957 resultados para GALAXIES: SPIRAL
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The Fornax Cluster Spectroscopic Survey (FCSS) project utilizes the Two-degree Field (2dF) multi-object spectrograph on the Anglo-Australian Telescope (AAT). Its aim is to obtain spectra for a complete sample of all 14 000 objects with 16 5 less than or equal to b(j) less than or equal to 19 7 irrespective of their morphology in a 12 deg(2) area centred on the Fornax cluster. A sample of 24 Fornax cluster members has been identified from the first 2dF field (3.1 deg(2) in area) to be completed. This is the first complete sample of cluster objects of known distance with well-defined selection limits. Nineteen of the galaxies (with -15.8 < M-B < 12.7) appear to be conventional dwarf elliptical (dE) or dwarf S0 (dS0) galaxies. The other five objects (with -13.6 < M-B < 11.3) are those galaxies which were described recently by Drinkwater et al. and labelled 'ultracompact dwarfs' (UCDs). A major result is that the conventional dwarfs all have scale sizes alpha greater than or similar to 3 arcsec (similar or equal to300 pc). This apparent minimum scale size implies an equivalent minimum luminosity for a dwarf of a given surface brightness. This produces a limit on their distribution in the magnitude-surface brightness plane, such that we do not observe dEs with high surface brightnesses but faint absolute magnitudes. Above this observed minimum scale size of 3 arcsec, the dEs and dS0s fill the whole area of the magnitude-surface brightness plane sampled by our selection limits. The observed correlation between magnitude and surface brightness noted by several recent studies of brighter galaxies is not seen with our fainter cluster sample. A comparison of our results with the Fornax Cluster Catalog (FCC) of Ferguson illustrates that attempts to determine cluster membership solely on the basis of observed morphology can produce significant errors. The FCC identified 17 of the 24 FCSS sample (i.e. 71 per cent) as being 'cluster' members, in particular missing all five of the UCDs. The FCC also suffers from significant contamination: within the FCSS's field and selection limits, 23 per cent of those objects described as cluster members by the FCC are shown by the FCSS to be background objects.
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Using data from the H I Parkes All Sky Survey (HIPASS), we have searched for neutral hydrogen in galaxies in a region similar to25x25 deg(2) centred on NGC 1399, the nominal centre of the Fornax cluster. Within a velocity search range of 300-3700 km s(-1) and to a 3sigma lower flux limit of similar to40 mJy, 110 galaxies with H I emission were detected, one of which is previously uncatalogued. None of the detections has early-type morphology. Previously unknown velocities for 14 galaxies have been determined, with a further four velocity measurements being significantly dissimilar to published values. Identification of an optical counterpart is relatively unambiguous for more than similar to90 per cent of our H I galaxies. The galaxies appear to be embedded in a sheet at the cluster velocity which extends for more than 30degrees across the search area. At the nominal cluster distance of similar to20 Mpc, this corresponds to an elongated structure more than 10 Mpc in extent. A velocity gradient across the structure is detected, with radial velocities increasing by similar to500 km s(-1) from south-east to north-west. The clustering of galaxies evident in optical surveys is only weakly suggested in the spatial distribution of our H I detections. Of 62 H I detections within a 10degrees projected radius of the cluster centre, only two are within the core region (projected radius
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Restricted cochlear lesions in adult animals result in plastic changes in the representation of the lesioned cochlea, and thus in the frequency map, in the contralateral auditory cortex and thalamus. To examine the contribution of subthalamic changes to this reorganization, the effects of unilateral mechanical cochlear lesions on the frequency organization of the central nucleus of the inferior colliculus (ICC) were examined in adult cats. Lesions typically resulted in a broad high-frequency hearing loss extending from a frequency in the range 15-22 kHz. After recovery periods of 2.5-18 months, the frequency organization of ICC contralateral to the lesioned cochlea was determined separately for the onset and late components of multiunit responses to tone-burst stimuli. For the late response component in all but one penetration through the ICC, and for the onset response component in more than half of the penetrations, changes in frequency organization in the lesion projection zone were explicable as the residue of prelesion responses. In half of the penetrations exhibiting nonresidue type changes in onset-response frequency organization, the changes appeared to reflect the unmasking of normally inhibited inputs. In the other half it was unclear whether the changes reflected unmasking or a dynamic process of reorganization. Thus, most of the observed changes were explicable as passive consequences of the lesion, and there was limited evidence for plasticity in the ICC. The implications of the data with respect to the primary locus of the changes and to the manner in which they contribute to thalamocortical reorganization are considered. (C) 2003 Wiley-Liss, Inc.
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Direct evidence of stellar material from galaxy disruption in the intra-cluster medium (ICM) relies on challenging observations of individual stars, planetary nebulae and diffuse optical light. Here we show that the ultra-compact dwarf galaxies (UCDs) we have discovered in the Fornax Cluster are a new and easy-to-measure probe of disruption in the ICM. We present spectroscopic observations supporting the hypothesis that the UCDs are the remnant nuclei of tidally threshed dwarf galaxies. Deep optical imaging of the cluster has revealed a 43-kpc long arc of tidal debris, flanking a nucleated dwarf elliptical (dE,N) cluster member. We may be witnessing galaxy threshing in action.
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Schejter, L. and Mantelatto, F.L. 2011. Shelter association between the hermit crab Sympagurus dimorphus and the zoanthid Epizoanthus paguricola in the southwestern Atlantic Ocean. -Acta Zoologica (Stockholm) 92: 141-149. The available literature on zoanthid-hermit crab associations deals only with records of this phenomenon, providing no detailed information. We describe, for the first time, the shell-like colonies of Epizoanthus paguricola associated with the hermit crab Sympagurus dimorphus from benthic samples taken in the Argentine Sea, between 85 and 131 m depth, and provide information about morphometric relationships between the hermits and the zoanthids. In total, 260 specimens (137 males and 123 females) of S. dimorphus were collected, 240 (92.3%) of which were living in symbiosis with E. paguricola. The remaining 20 (7.7%) were living inside gastropod shells. As the initial structure of the pseudoshell, 12 different gastropod species were found (all were almost totally covered with colonies of E. paguricola). The hermit crab lives in the spiral cavity inside the soft colony, which seemed to be slightly different depending on the initial gastropod. Aperture pseudoshell morphology did not seem to be related to the sex of the hermit crab host, although males showed larger apertures for a given colony size. This fact is probably related to a larger size of male`s cheliped (sexual dimorphic character) used like a gastropod operculum and that may serve as a template for the growing of the aperture pseudoshell edge. The number of epizoanthid polyps per colony increased in relation to the weight of the colony and to the size of the hermit crab. A process of selection of the initial shell was evident, because species of Naticidae were not the most common gastropods in this benthic community, but were those most used by hermit crabs (> 60%). The puzzling association between hermit crab, shell and zoanthid presumably occurs during the hermit juvenile phase, when the crab occupies a small shell, and a zoanthid larva settles on it. Given the close relationship between S. dimorphus and E. paguricola found in this region, we support the idea that due to the low availability of adequate gastropod shells for hermit life cycle, this association allows the establishment and the continuity of the hermit crab population in the studied area.
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Background: The presence of coronary artery calcium (CAC) is an independent marker of increased risk of cardiovascular disease (CVD) events and mortality. However, the predictive value of thoracic aorta calcification (TAC), which can be additionally identified without further scanning during assessment of CAC, is unknown. Methods: We followed a cohort of 8401 asymptomatic individuals (mean age: 53 +/- 10 years, 69% men) undergoing cardiac risk factor evaluation and TAC and CAC testing with electron beam computed tomography. Multivariable Cox proportional hazards models were developed to predict all-cause mortality based on the presence of TAC. Results: During a median follow-up period of 5 years, 124 (1.5%) deaths were observed. Overall survival was 96.9% and 98.9% for those with and without detectable TAC, respectively (p < 0.0001). Compared to those with no TAC, the hazard ratio for mortality in the presence of TAC was 3.25 (95% CI: 2.28-4.65, p < 0.0001) in unadjusted analysis. After adjusting for age, gender, hypertension, dyslipidemia, diabetes mellitus, smoking and family history of premature coronary artery disease, and presence of CAC the relationship remained robust (HR 1.61, 95% CI: 1.10-2.27, p = 0.015). Likelihood ratio chi(2) statistics demonstrated that the addition of TAC contributed significantly in predicting mortality to traditional risk factors alone (chi(2) = 13.62, p = 0.002) as well as risk factors + CAC (chi(2) = 5.84, p = 0.02) models. Conclusion: In conclusion, the presence of TAC was associated with all-cause mortality in our study; this relationship was independent of conventional CVD risk factors as well as the presence of CAC. (C) 2009 Elsevier Ireland Ltd. All rights reserved.
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Objectives This study was designed to evaluate whether the absence of coronary calcium could rule out >= 50% coronary stenosis or the need for revascularization. Background The latest American Heart Association guidelines suggest that a calcium score (CS) of zero might exclude the need for coronary angiography among symptomatic patients. Methods A substudy was made of the CORE64 (Coronary Evaluation Using Multi-Detector Spiral Computed Tomography Angiography Using 64 Detectors) multicenter trial comparing the diagnostic performance of 64-detector computed tomography to conventional angiography. Patients clinically referred for conventional angiography were asked to undergo a CS scan up to 30 days before. Results In all, 291 patients were included, of whom 214 (73%) were male, and the mean age was 59.3 +/- 10.0 years. A total of 14 (5%) patients had low, 218 (75%) had intermediate, and 59 (20%) had high pre-test probability of obstructive coronary artery disease. The overall prevalence of >= 50% stenosis was 56%. A total of 72 patients had CS = 0, among whom 14 (19%) had at least 1 >= 50% stenosis. The overall sensitivity for CS = 0 to predict the absence of >= 50% stenosis was 45%, specificity was 91%, negative predictive value was 68%, and positive predictive value was 81%. Additionally, revascularization was performed in 9 (12.5%) CS = 0 patients within 30 days of the CS. From a total of 383 vessels without any coronary calcification, 47 (12%) presented with >= 50% stenosis; and from a total of 64 totally occluded vessels, 13 (20%) had no calcium. Conclusions The absence of coronary calcification does not exclude obstructive stenosis or the need for revascularization among patients with high enough suspicion of coronary artery disease to be referred for coronary angiography, in contrast with the published recommendations. Total coronary occlusion frequently occurs in the absence of any detectable calcification. (Coronary Evaluation Using Multi-Detector Spiral Computed Tomography Angiography Using 64 Detectors [CORE-64]; NCT00738218) (J Am Coll Cardiol 2010;55:627-34) (C) 2010 by the American College of Cardiology Foundation
Coronary CT angiography using 64 detector rows: methods and design of the multi-centre trial CORE-64
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Multislice computed tomography (MSCT) for the noninvasive detection of coronary artery stenoses is a promising candidate for widespread clinical application because of its non-invasive nature and high sensitivity and negative predictive value as found in several previous studies using 16 to 64 simultaneous detector rows. A multi-centre study of CT coronary angiography using 16 simultaneous detector rows has shown that 16-slice CT is limited by a high number of nondiagnostic cases and a high false-positive rate. A recent meta-analysis indicated a significant interaction between the size of the study sample and the diagnostic odds ratios suggestive of small study bias, highlighting the importance of evaluating MSCT using 64 simultaneous detector rows in a multi-centre approach with a larger sample size. In this manuscript we detail the objectives and methods of the prospective ""CORE-64"" trial (""Coronary Evaluation Using Multidetector Spiral Computed Tomography Angiography using 64 Detectors""). This multi-centre trial was unique in that it assessed the diagnostic performance of 64-slice CT coronary angiography in nine centres worldwide in comparison to conventional coronary angiography. In conclusion, the multi-centre, multi-institutional and multi-continental trial CORE-64 has great potential to ultimately assess the per-patient diagnostic performance of coronary CT angiography using 64 simultaneous detector rows.
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Background: The accuracy of multidetector computed tomographic (CT) angiography involving 64 detectors has not been well established. Methods: We conducted a multicenter study to examine the accuracy of 64-row, 0.5-mm multidetector CT angiography as compared with conventional coronary angiography in patients with suspected coronary artery disease. Nine centers enrolled patients who underwent calcium scoring and multidetector CT angiography before conventional coronary angiography. In 291 patients with calcium scores of 600 or less, segments 1.5 mm or more in diameter were analyzed by means of CT and conventional angiography at independent core laboratories. Stenoses of 50% or more were considered obstructive. The area under the receiver-operating-characteristic curve (AUC) was used to evaluate diagnostic accuracy relative to that of conventional angiography and subsequent revascularization status, whereas disease severity was assessed with the use of the modified Duke Coronary Artery Disease Index. Results: A total of 56% of patients had obstructive coronary artery disease. The patient-based diagnostic accuracy of quantitative CT angiography for detecting or ruling out stenoses of 50% or more according to conventional angiography revealed an AUC of 0.93 (95% confidence interval [CI], 0.90 to 0.96), with a sensitivity of 85% (95% CI, 79 to 90), a specificity of 90% (95% CI, 83 to 94), a positive predictive value of 91% (95% CI, 86 to 95), and a negative predictive value of 83% (95% CI, 75 to 89). CT angiography was similar to conventional angiography in its ability to identify patients who subsequently underwent revascularization: the AUC was 0.84 (95% CI, 0.79 to 0.88) for multidetector CT angiography and 0.82 (95% CI, 0.77 to 0.86) for conventional angiography. A per-vessel analysis of 866 vessels yielded an AUC of 0.91 (95% CI, 0.88 to 0.93). Disease severity ascertained by CT and conventional angiography was well correlated (r=0.81; 95% CI, 0.76 to 0.84). Two patients had important reactions to contrast medium after CT angiography. Conclusions: Multidetector CT angiography accurately identifies the presence and severity of obstructive coronary artery disease and subsequent revascularization in symptomatic patients. The negative and positive predictive values indicate that multidetector CT angiography cannot replace conventional coronary angiography at present. (ClinicalTrials.gov number, NCT00738218.).
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OBJECTIVE. The purpose of the study was to investigate patient characteristics associated with image quality and their impact on the diagnostic accuracy of MDCT for the detection of coronary artery stenosis. MATERIALS AND METHODS. Two hundred ninety-one patients with a coronary artery calcification (CAC) score of <= 600 Agatston units (214 men and 77 women; mean age, 59.3 +/- 10.0 years [SD]) were analyzed. An overall image quality score was derived using an ordinal scale. The accuracy of quantitative MDCT to detect significant (>= 50%) stenoses was assessed using quantitative coronary angiography (QCA) per patient and per vessel using a modified 19-segment model. The effect of CAC, obesity, heart rate, and heart rate variability on image quality and accuracy were evaluated by multiple logistic regression. Image quality and accuracy were further analyzed in subgroups of significant predictor variables. Diagnostic analysis was determined for image quality strata using receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curves. RESULTS. Increasing body mass index (BMI) (odds ratio [OR] = 0.89, p < 0.001), increasing heart rate (OR = 0.90, p < 0.001), and the presence of breathing artifact (OR = 4.97, p = 0.001) were associated with poorer image quality whereas sex, CAC score, and heart rate variability were not. Compared with examinations of white patients, studies of black patients had significantly poorer image quality (OR = 0.58, p = 0.04). At a vessel level, CAC score (10 Agatston units) (OR = 1.03, p = 0.012) and patient age (OR = 1.02, p = 0.04) were significantly associated with the diagnostic accuracy of quantitative MDCT compared with QCA. A trend was observed in differences in the areas under the ROC curves across image quality strata at the vessel level (p = 0.08). CONCLUSION. Image quality is significantly associated with patient ethnicity, BMI, mean scan heart rate, and the presence of breathing artifact but not with CAC score at a patient level. At a vessel level, CAC score and age were associated with reduced diagnostic accuracy.
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Objectives: The aim of this study was to determine the precision of the measurements of 2 craniometric anatomic points-glabella and anterior nasal spine-in order to verify their possibility as potential locations for placing implants aimed at nasal prostheses retention. Methods: Twenty-six dry human skulls were scanned in a high-resolution spiral tomography with 1-mm axial slice thickness and 1-mm interval reconstruction using a bone tissue filter. Images obtained were stored and transferred to an independent workstation containing e-film imaging software. The measurements (in the glabella and anterior nasal fossa) were made independently by 2 observers twice for each measurement. Data were submitted to statistical analysis (parametric t test). Results: The results demonstrated no statistically significant difference between interobserver and intraobserver measurements (P > .05). The standard error was found to be between 0.49 mm and 0.84 mrn for measurements in bone protocol, indicating a high /eve/ of precision. Conclusions: The measurements obtained in anterior nasal spine and glabella were considered precise and reproducible. Mean values of such measurements pointed to the possibility of implant placement in these regions, particularly in the anterior nasal spine.
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To discover the developmental relationship between the auditory brainstem response (ABR) and the focal inferior colliculus (IC) response, 32 young tammar wallabies were used, by the application of simultaneous ABR and focal brainstem recordings, in response to acoustic clicks and tone bursts of seven frequencies. The ic or the tammar wallaby undergoes a rapid functional development from postnatal day (PND) 114 to 160. The earliest (PND 114) auditory evoked response was recorded from the rostral IC. With development, more caudal parts of the IC became functional until age about PND 127, when all parts of the IC were responsive to sound. Along a dorsoventral direction, the duration of the IC response decreased, the peak latency shortened, while the amplitude increased, reaching a maximum value at the central IC, then decreased. After PND 160, the best frequency (BF) of the ventral IC was the highest, with values between 12.5 and 16 kHz, the BF of the dorsal IC was the lowest, varying between 3.2 and 6.4 kHz, while the BF of the central IC was between 6.4 and 12.5 kHz. Between PND 114 and 125, the IC response did not have temporal correlation with the ABR. Between PND 140 and 160, only the early components of the responses from the ventral and central IC correlated with the P4 waves of the ABR. After PND 160, responses recorded from different depths of the IC had a temporal correlation with the ABR. (C) 2001 Published by Elsevier Science B.V.
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Four different fibroblast growth factor receptors (FGFR) are known, three of which have splice variants (known as the b and c variants) in the FGF-binding domain, to give different patterns of sensitivity to the different FGFs. The expression of the b and c variants of the FGF receptors. together with the expression of the ligands FGF1. FGF2, FGF3, FGF7, FGF8b and FGF8c, was determined by quantitative reverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction in developing whole mouse inner ears, and in dissected components of the postnatal mouse inner ear. At embryonic age (E)10.5 days, when the otocyst is a simple closed sac, the receptor most heavily expressed was FGFR2b, relative to the postnatal day 0 level. Over the period E10.5-E12.5. during which the structures of the inner ear start to form, the expression of the different FGF receptors increased 10(2)-10(4) fold per unit of tissue, and there was a gradual switch towards expression of the 'c' splice variants of FGFR2 and FGFR3 rather than the 'b' variants. At E10.5, the ligands most heavily expressed, relative to the postnatal day 0 level, were FGF3, FGF8b and FGF8c. In the postnatal inner eat. the patterns of expression of receptors and ligands tended to be correlated, such that receptor variants were expressed in the same regions as the ligands that are known to activate them effectively. The neural/sensory region expressed high levels of FGFR3c, and high levels of the ligand FGF8b. The same area also expressed high levels of FGFR1b and FGFR2b, and high levels of FGF3. The lateral wall of the cochlea (including the stria vascularis and the spiral ligament) expressed high levels of FGFR1c and FGF1. 11 is suggested that the different FGF receptors and ligands are expressed in a spatially coordinated pattern to selectively program cochlear development. (C) 2001 Elsevier Science B.V. All rights reserved.
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The distributions of the Eph-class receptors EphA4 and EphB 1, and their ligands ephrin-A2, ephrin-B1, and ephrin-B2, were analysed by immunostaining in the mouse inner ear. Complementary patterns of EphA4 and its potential ligand ephrin-A2 were found, with ephrin-A2 in many of the structures lining the cochlear duct and within the cochlear nerve cells, and EphA4 in the deeper structures underlying the cochlear duct and in the cells lining the nerve pathway. EphB1 and its potential ligands ephrin-B1 and ephrin-B2 showed a segregated layered expression in the lateral wall of the cochlear duct (the external sulcus), which together with EphA4 expressed in the area, form a four-layered structure with an alternating pattern of receptors and ligands in the different layers. This arrangement gives the potential for different bidirectional Eph-mediated interactions between each of the layers. The results suggest that the Eph system in the cochlea may have a role in maintaining cell segregation during phases of cochlear development. (C) 2002 Wiley-Liss, Inc.
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Pulp lifters, also known, as pan lifters are an integral part of the majority of autogenous (AG), semi-autogenous (SAG) and grate discharge ball mills. The performance of the pulp lifters in conjunction with grate design determines the ultimate flow capacity of these mills. Although the function of the pulp lifters is simply to transport the slurry passed through the discharge grate into the discharge trunnion, their performance depends on their design as well as that of the grate and operating conditions such as mill speed and charge level. However, little or no work has been reported on the performance of grate-pulp lifter assemblies and in particular the influence of pulp lifter design on slurry transport. Ideally, the discharge rate through a grate-pulp lifter assembly should be equal to the discharge rate through at a given mill hold-up. However, the results obtained have shown that conventional pulp lifter designs cause considerable restrictions to flow resulting in reduced flow capacity. In this second of a two-part series of papers the performance of conventional pulp lifters (radial and spiral designs) is described and is based on extensive test work carried out in a I m diameter pilot SAG mill. (C) 2003 Elsevier Science Ltd. All rights reserved.