968 resultados para 10-(Octyloxy) decyl-2-(trimethylammonium)
Resumo:
Stool is chemically complex and the extraction of DNA from stool samples is extremely difficult. Haemoglobin breakdown products, such as bilirubin, bile acids and mineral ions, that are present in the stool samples, can inhibit DNA amplification and cause molecular assays to produce false-negative results. Therefore, stool storage conditions are highly important for the diagnosis of intestinal parasites and other microorganisms through molecular approaches. In the current study, stool samples that were positive for Giardia intestinalis were collected from five different patients. Each sample was stored using one out of six different storage conditions [room temperature (RT), +4ºC, -20ºC, 70% alcohol, 10% formaldehyde or 2.5% potassium dichromate] for DNA extraction procedures at one, two, three and four weeks. A modified QIAamp Stool Mini Kit procedure was used to isolate the DNA from stored samples. After DNA isolation, polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplification was performed using primers that target the β-giardin gene. A G. intestinalis-specific 384 bp band was obtained from all of the cyst-containing stool samples that were stored at RT, +4ºC and -20ºC and in 70% alcohol and 2.5% potassium dichromate; however, this band was not produced by samples that had been stored in 10% formaldehyde. Moreover, for the stool samples containing trophozoites, the same G. intestinalis-specific band was only obtained from the samples that were stored in 2.5% potassium dichromate for up to one month. As a result, it appears evident that the most suitable storage condition for stool samples to permit the isolation of G. intestinalis DNA is in 2.5% potassium dichromate; under these conditions, stool samples may be stored for one month.
Resumo:
Purpose: To report the diffusion-weighted MR imaging (DWI) findings in hepatic alveolar echinococcosis (AE). To evaluate the usefulness of apparent diffusion coefficients (ADCs) for differentiating the 5 types of AE lesions (as reported by Kodama, Radiology, 2003).Methods and Materials: We retrospectively included 17 patients (10 women, mean age 64.3years) with 48 AE liver lesions (>1cm2) that had been investigated by 3-Tesla MR imaging between March 2008 and August 2011 performing our standard protocol including DWI (b-values: 0, 300 and 600s/mm2). In consensus, two radiologists assessed lesion characteristics such as diameter, cystic and/or fibrotic components including Kodama classification, signal intensity, contrast enhancement, calcifications (on CT), and measured the ADC of each lesion. AE was confirmed by serology, biopsy and/or surgery in all patients.Results: Seventeen lesions of Kodama type 1, 10 of type 2, 19 of type 3, 1 of type 4 and 1 of type 5 were found. Mean(±SD) ADC of all AE lesions was 1.75±0.45 ×10-3mm2/s. Mean(±SD) ADCs of Kodama type 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 lesions were 1.74±0.55, 1.71±0.49, 1.82±0.36, 1.46±0 and 1.43±0 ×10-3mm2/s, respectively. No significant difference was noted between the different Kodama types (p=0.89). Presence of fibrotic (p=0.24) and/or calcified (p=0.90) components, or contrast enhancement (p=0.84) of AE lesions were not correlated with significant differences in ADCs.Conclusion: ADCs of AE lesions are relatively low compared to other cystic liver lesions, which is helpful in suggesting the diagnosis. However, ADCs were not found to be useful for differentiating Kodama types of AE lesions.
Resumo:
RESUME Le diagnostic d'infection tuberculeuse repose essentiellement sur le test tuberculinique (test de Mantoux). Cependant, le résultat de ce dernier est également influencé par d'autres facteurs, le plus important étant la vaccination par le Bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG), interaction connue depuis de nombreuses années. Il est généralement admis que l'effet de la vaccination peut entraîner des réactions positives jusqu'à un diamètre d'induration de 15 mm. Au-delà, la positivité du test est en général attribuée à une primo-infection tuberculeuse. Peu d'études se sont réellement penchées sur le sujet. Chez le personnel de soins soumis à des Mantoux répétés, cette notion revêt une importance particulière pour interpréter correctement une réaction fortement positive en l'absence de facteurs de risque tuberculeux, dans un pays à faible endémie tuberculeuse. Notre étude a cherché à déterminer si le diamètre transversal de l'induration du Mantoux était un critère fiable pour distinguer une positivité associée à une infection tuberculeuse de celle associée à une ancienne vaccination. Elle s'est attachée à rechercher un seuil au-delà duquel l'infection tuberculeuse pourrait être considérée comme probable. Entre janvier 1991 et mars 1998, tous les nouveaux employés du CHUV ont été invités à recevoir un test tuberculinique à l'occasion de leur visite d'entrée à la Médecine du personnel. En cas de réponse négative, un deuxième test a été pratiqué une semaine plus tard, pour détecter un éventuel effet booster. Lors de la première visite, l'infirmière a rempli un questionnaire comprenant les données démographiques usuelles, des informations concernant les facteurs pouvant influencer la positivité du test, notamment les antécédents de vaccination par le BCG, les expositions à la tuberculose et l'existence d'antécédents d'infection tuberculeuse. Parmi les 5117 sujets inclus dans l'étude, nous avons trouvé que l'influence de la vaccination variait en fonction de l'âge. Chez les sujets de moins de 40 ans, la vaccination par le BCG était le prédicteur le plus important d'un Mantoux positif inférieur à 18 mm, de loin supérieur aux facteurs de risque habituels pour une infection tuberculeuse, eux aussi significatifs. L'effet du BCG était présent pour des réactions allant jusqu'à 20 mm. Pour les Mantoux supérieurs à 20 mm, l'odds ratio (OR) relatif au BCG demeure clairement élevé (supérieur à 3,4) bien que non significatif. Par contre, pour les employés âgés de plus de 40 ans, le BCG est un facteur prédictif pour les tests supérieurs à 10 mm (OR 2.4) mais n'est plus un facteur significatif pour une taille supérieure à 15 mm. Ces résultats montrent que l'interprétation d'un test tuberculinique même fortement positif, doit être faite avec prudence et discernement. En effet, notre étude démontre que chez les sujets vaccinés de moins de 40 ans, dans les zones de faible endémie tuberculeuse particulièrement en l'absence de facteurs de risque pour une infection tuberculeuse, un Mantoux positif jusqu'à 18 mm est dû, le plus probablement, à une ancienne vaccination par le BCG, plutôt qu'à une infection par M tuberczilosis. L'interprétation des Mantoux de taille inférieure à 18 mm et les Mantoux effectués chez des sujets de moins de 40 ans, doit prendre en compte l'existence d'un BCG antérieur. En conséquence, la mise en évidence d'une réaction de Mantoux fortement positive ne devrait pas conduire systématiquement à un traitement préventif. L'absence de spécificité du test Mantoux, utilisé pour le dépistage de la tuberculose depuis bientôt une centaine d'année, est un problème connu. Nous démontrons que la taille de l'induration ne peut pas être utilisée de façon fiable comme critère pour identifier une infection tuberculeuse chez une personne vaccinée avec le BCG, avec le risque de sui-traiter un nombre important de sujets. Dans notre étude, 21% des sujets avaient un Mantoux supérieur ou égal à 15 mm et auraient dû être traités selon les recommandations en vigueur en Suisse si l'on ne tenait pas compte du BCG antérieur. Des tests plus spécifiques sont actuellement à l'étude et permettront vraisemblablement, à l'avenir, de palier au problème de l'absence de spécificité du test de Mantoux. Abstract : Background. Previous bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) vaccination can confound the results of a tuberculin skin test (TST). We sought to determine a cutoff diameter of TST induration beyond which the influence of BCG vaccination was negligible in evaluating potential Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection in a population of health care workers with a high vaccination rate and low incidence of tuberculosis. Methods. From 1991 through 1998, all new employees at the University Hospital of Lausanne, Switzerland, underwent a 2-step TST at entry visit. We also gathered information on demographic characteristics, along with factors commonly associated with tuberculin positivity, including previous BCG vaccination, history of latent M. tuberculosis infection, and predictors for M. tuberculosis infection. Results. Among the 5117 investigated subjects, we found that influence of BCG vaccination on TST results varied across categories of age (likelihood ratio test, 0.0001). Prior BCG vaccination had a strong influence on skin test results of mm in diameter among persons <40 years old, compared with the influence of factors predictive of M. tuberculosis infection. Prior latent M. tuberculosis infection and travel or employment in a country in which tuberculosis is endemic also had significant influences. Conclusions. Interpretation of TST reactions of mm among BCG-vaccinated persons <40 years of age must be done with caution in areas with a low incidence of tuberculosis. In such a population, except for persons who have never been vaccinated, TST reactions of ---518 mm are more likely to be the result of prior vaccination than infection and should not systematically lead to preventive treatment.
Resumo:
BACKGROUND: Diffusion-weighted magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is increasingly being used for assessing the treatment succes in oncology, but the real clinical value needs to evaluated by comparison with other, already established, metabolic imaging techniques. PURPOSE: To prospectively evaluate the clinical potential of diffusion-weighted MRI with apparent diffusion coefficient (ADC) mapping for gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST) response to targeted therapy compared with 18F-fluorodeoxyglucose positron emission tomography/computed tomography (18F-FDG PET/CT). MATERIAL AND METHODS: Eight patients (mean age, 56 ± 11 years) known to have metastatic GIST underwent 18F-FDG PET/CT and MRI (T1Gd, DWI [b = 50,300,600], ADC mapping) simultaneously, before and after change in targeted therapy. MR and PET/CT examinations were first analyzed blindly. Second, PET/CT images were co-registered with T1Gd-MR images for lesion detection. Only 18F-FDG avid lesions were considered. Maximum standardized uptake value (SUVmax) and the corresponding minimum ADCmin were measured for the six largest lesions per patient, if any, on baseline and follow-up examinations. The relationship between changes in SUVmax and ADCmin was analyzed (Spearman's correlation). RESULTS: Twenty-four metastases (12 hepatic, 12 extra-hepatic) were compared on PET/CT and MR images. SUVmax decreased from 7.7 ± 8.1 g/mL to 5.5 ± 5.4 g/mL (P = 0.20), while ADCmin increased from 1.2 ± 0.3 × 10(-3)mm(2)/s to 1.5 ± 0.3 × 10(-3)mm(2)/s (P = 0.0002). There was a significant association between changes in SUVmax and ADCmin (rho = - 0.62, P = 0.0014), but not between changes in lesions size (P = 0.40). CONCLUSION: Changes in ADCmin correlated with the response of 18F-FDG avid GIST to targeted therapy. Thus, diffusion-weighted MRI may represent a radiation-free alternative for follow-up treatment for metastatic GIST patients.
Resumo:
In this study we evaluate the dynamics of the biophile element phosphorus (P) in the catchment and proglacial areas of the Rhone and Oberaar glaciers (central Switzerland). We analysed erosion and dissolution rates of P-containing minerals in the subglacial environment by sampling water and suspended sediment in glacier outlets during three ablation and two accumulation seasons. We also quantified biogeochemical weathering rates of detrital P in proglacial sedimentary deposits using two chronosequences of samples of fresh, suspended, material obtained from the Oberaar and Rhone water outlets, Little-Ice-Age (LIA) moraines and Younger Dryas (YD) tills in each catchment. Subglacial P weathering is mainly a physical process and detrital P represents more than 99%, of the precipitation-corrected total P denudation flux (234 and 540 kg km(-2) yr(-1) for the Rhone and Oberaar catchments, respectively). The calculated detrital P flux rates are three to almost five times higher than the world average flux. The precipitation-corrected soluble reactive P (SRP) flux corresponds to 1.88-1.99 kg km(-2) yr(-1) (Rhone) and 2.12-2.44 kg km(-2) yr(-1) (Oberaar), respectively. These fluxes are comparable to those of tropical rivers draining transport-limited, tectonically inactive weathering areas. In order to evaluate the efficiency of detrital P weathering in the Rhone and Oberaar proglacial areas, we systematically graded apatite grains extracted from the chronosequence in each catchment relative to weathering-induced changes in their surface morphologies (grades 1-4). Fresh apatite grains are heavily indented and dissolution rounded (grade 1). LIA grains from two 0-10 cm deep moraine samples show extensive dissolution etching, similar to surface grains from the YD profile (mean grades 2.7, 3.5 and 3.5, respectively). In these proglacial deposits, the weathering front deepens progressively as a function of time due to biocorrosion in the evolving acidic pedosphere, with mechanical indentations on grains acting as sites of preferential dissolution. We also measured iron-bound, organic and detrital P concentrations in the chronosequence and show that organic and iron-bound P has almost completely replaced detrital P in the top layers of the YD profiles. Detrital P weathering rates are calculated as 3 10 and 280 kg km(-2) yr(-1) for LIA moraines and 10 kg km(-2) yr(-1) for YD tills. During the first 300 years of glacial sediment exposure P dissolution rates are shown to be approximately 70 times higher than the mean global dissolved P flux from ice-free continents. After 11.6 kyr the flux is 2.5 times the global mean. These data strengthen the argument for substantial changes in the global dissolved P flux on glacial-interglacial timescales. A crude extrapolation from the data described here suggests that the global dissolved P flux may increase by 40-45% during the first few hundred years of a deglaciation phase
Resumo:
Transforming growth factor beta (TGF-beta) has been shown to be a central immunomodulator used by leishmaniae to escape effective mechanisms of protection in human and murine infections with these parasites. However, all the information is derived from studies of established infection, while little is known about TGF-beta production in response to Leishmania stimulation in healthy subjects. In this study, TGF-beta1 production was demonstrated in peripheral blood mononuclear cells from healthy subjects never exposed to leishmaniae in response to live Leishmania guyanensis, and the TGF-beta1-producing cells were described as a distinct subpopulation of CD4(+) CD25(+) regulatory T cells. The suppressive properties of CD4(+) CD25(+) T cells were demonstrated in vitro by their inhibition of production of interleukin 2 (IL-2) and IL-10 by CD4(+) CD25(-) T cells in the presence of either anti-CD3 or L. guyanensis. Although neutralization of TGF-beta1 did not reverse the suppressive activity of CD4(+) CD25(+) T cells activated by anti-CD3, it reversed the suppressive activity of CD4(+) CD25(+) T cells activated by L. guyanensis. Altogether our data demonstrated that TGF-beta1 is involved in the suppressive activity of L. guyanensis-stimulated CD4(+) CD25(+) T cells from healthy controls.
Resumo:
Introduction: Nasal continuous positive airways pressure (n-CPAP) is an effective treatment in premature infants with respiratory distress. The cardio-pulmonary interactions secondary to n-CPAP are well studied in adults, but less well described in premature infants. We postulated that there could be important interactions with regard to the patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). Methods: Prospective study, approved by the local ethic committee. Premature infants less than 32 weeks gestation, _7 days-old, needing n-CPAP for respiratory distress, but without the need of additional oxygen were included in the study. Every patient had a first echocardiography with n-CPAP and then n-CPAP was retrieved. 3 hours later the echocardiography was repeated by the same investigator and then the patient replaced on n-CPAP. Results: 14 premature newborn were included, mean gestational age of 28 _ 2 weeks, mean weight 1.1 _ 0.3 Kg and height 39 _ 3 cm. Echocardiographic measurements are depicted in Table 1. Significant finding were observed between measurement on n- CPAP or without n-CPAP: on end diastolic left ventricular diameter (12.8 _ 1.6 mm vs. 13.5 _ 2 mm), on end systolic left ventricular diameter (8.4 _ 1.3 mm vs. 9.1 _ 1.5 mm), left atrium diameter (8.9 _ 2.2 mm vs. 10.4 _ 2.5 mm), maximal velocity on tricuspid valve (46 _ 10 cm/s vs. 51 _ 9 cm/s), calculated Qp (3.7 _ 0.8 L/min/m2 vs. 4.3 _ 0.8 L/min/m2). Only three patients have demonstrated a PDA during the study. Conclusion: Positive end expiratory pressure (Peep) has hemodynamic effects which are: reduction of systemic and pulmonary venous return as shown by the changes on tricuspid valve inflow,on the calculated Qp and finally on the diameter of the left atrium and left ventricle.We found in premature infants the same hemodynamic effects than those described in adults but with lower Peep values. This could be due to the particular elasticity and weakness of the thoracic wall of premature infants. Interestingly the flow through a PDA seems also to be diminished with Peep, but the number of patients is insufficient to conclude. Further investigation will be needed to better understand these interactions. Table 1. Echocardiographic measurement (mean (SD)). With n-CPAP Without n-CPAP p value RV ED diameter (mm) 6.3 (1.7) 6.04 (1.1) NS LV ED diameter (mm) 12.8 (1.6) 13.5 (2.0) _0.05 LV ES diameter (mm) 8.4 (1.3) 9.1 (1.5) _0.05 SF (%) 34 (5) 33 (6) NS Ao valve diameter (mm) 7.4 (1.3) 7.4 (1.2) NS LA diameter (mm) 8.9 (2.2) 10.4 (2.5) _0.05 Vmax Ao (cm/s) 70 (16) 71 (18) NS Vmax PV (cm/s) 69 (15) 72 (16) NS Vmax TV (cm/s) 46 (10) 51 (9) _0.05 Vmax MV (cm/s) 53 (17) 54 (18) NS Qp (L/min/m2) 3.7 (0.8) 4.3 (0.8) _0.05 Qs (L/min/m2) 4.0 (0.8) 4.0 (0.7) NS Qp/Qs 0.92 (0.14) 1.09 (0.23) _0.05 RV: right ventricle, LV: left ventricle, ED: end diastolic, ES: end systolic, SF: shortening fraction,Ao: aortic valve, LA: left atrium,Vmax: maximum Doppler Velocity, Qp: pulmonary output, Qs: systemic output, NS: non significant.
Resumo:
Résumé Le but de cette étude est d'évaluer la faisabilité et l'efficacité d'un traitement des carcinomes pharyngo-laryngés avancés par combinaison de chimiothérapie intensive associé à une radiothérapie accélérée. Vingt-trois patients ont été inclus (age médian 54 ans, entre 35 et 70 ans). Les localisations tumorales étaient l'hypopharynx (n=7), base de langue (n=10), nasopharynx (n=2) ou l'oesophage proximal (n.1), ou sans porte d'entrée (n=3). Le traitement comprend trois cycles de chimiothérapie (cisplatin 100mg/m2 à J1 ; 5-FU 1000mg/m2 par jour pendant 5 jours en perfusion continue, précédé par de l'amifostine 910mg/m2 ; répété toutes les trois semaines). La radiothérapie concomitante, accélérée (dose totale de 70Gy en 6 semaines) a été débuté au premier jour du deuxième cycle de chimiothérapie. Vingt et un patients ont pu achever la radiothérapie. Dix-huit patients étaient en rémission complète à la fin du traitement. Avec un suivi médian de 45 mois, le taux de survie globale atteint 56% (95% Cl, 32-79%). Le contrôle loco-régional était de 71% (95% CI, 52-91%). La toxicité associée au traitement consistait en une insuffisance rénale réversible (≥grade II) chez 9 patients (43%) et une agranulocytose fébrile chez 9 patients (43%). Tous les patients ont présenté une mucite modérée à sévère (grade II/III) et 19 patients ont montré une toxicité cutanée de grade III. En conclusion, le traitement combiné de radiothérapie accélérée avec une chimiothérapie concomitante à base de Cisplatin/5-FU full-dose avec amifostine est faisable. La toxicité est importante mais reste maîtrisable dans le cadre d'un centre multidisciplinaire. Le taux de survie globale à 4 ans est prometteur, la recherche en vue de traitements moins toxiques doit se poursuivre. Abstract The purpose of this study was to evaluate the feasibility and efficacy of a treatment concept combining three cycles of full-dose chemotherapy (CT) with concomitant accelerated uninterrupted radiotherapy (RI). Twenty- three patients (median age: 54 years, range: 35-70) with locally advanced squamous cell carcinoma of the head and neck (SCCHN) were included. The primary tumor involved the hypopharynx (n=7), base of the tongue (n=10), nasopharynx (n=2) or upper esophagus (n=1) or its location was unknown (n=3). Treatment consisted of three cycles of chemotherapy (cisplatin 100 mg/m2 on day 1; 5-FU 1,000 mg/m2 per day for 5 days as a continuous infusion, preceded by amifostine 910 mg/m2). repeated every 3 weeks. Uninterrupted concomitant boost-accelerated RI (total dose of 70 Gy in 6 weeks) started together on day 1 of the second cycle. All but two patients received the full course of RT. Eighteen patients achieved complete remission (78%). At a median follow-up of 45 months the overall survival was 56% (95% c.i. 32-79%) and the loco-regional control 71% (95% c.i. 52-91%). Toxicity involved reversible renal insufficiency of grade II in 9 patients (39%) and neutropenic fever in 9 patients (39%). All patients suffered from moderate to severe mucositis (grade HMI), and 19 patients presented cutaneous toxicity grade III. Concomitant boost-accelerated RI combined with concurrent full-dose cisplatin/5-FU chemotherapy and amifostine is feasible with manageable, although substantial, toxicity. The overall survival of 4 years is promising. Newer regimens causing less acute mucosal and skin toxicity are needed.
Resumo:
El estudio del hiperparatirodismo es una indicación cada vez más frecuente en Medicina nuclear debido a la incorporación de técnica híbrida SPECT-TC, que añade a la gammagrafía planar convencional de doble trazador (MIBI y Pertecnetato) y doble fase (10 minutos y 2 horas) información sobre localización, fundamentalmente. El sistema de procesado convencional (reconstrucción iterativa OSEM) presenta buenos resultados, no obstante, existen limitaciones como son la resolución espacial y ruido. El sistema de reconstrucción Wide Beam Reconstruction WBR™ mejora fundamentalmente estos aspectos. Con este objetivo, se ha realizado una comparación entre ambos métodos, en pacientes con sospecha de hiperparatiroidismo.
Resumo:
Both angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors and potassium-sparing diuretics tend to increase serum potassium levels. This retrospective study was undertaken to assess whether these two types of agents can nevertheless be combined safely. Twelve hypertensive patients were treated for 1-70 months (mean = 17) with an ACE inhibitor together with a potassium-sparing diuretic (spironolactone, n = 10; amiloride, n = 2). In addition, eight patients also took a thiazide or a loop diuretic. Nine patients had a normal and three a slightly impaired renal function. No clinically relevant hyperkalemia was observed during the course of the study. These data suggest that it is not impossible to combine an ACE inhibitor with a potassium-sparing diuretic, as long as renal function is normal and serum potassium concentration is monitored closely.
Resumo:
A liderança é uma das ferramentas imprescindível no processo de trabalho do enfermeiro. Este estudo teve como objetivos fazer um levantamento bibliográfico sobre liderança no contexto da enfermagem e caracterizar tal produção científica encontrada, com base nas variáveis: ano, local de publicação e categorização dos temas. Tratou-se de uma revisão de literatura realizada on-line na base de dados LILACS, considerando periódicos, dissertações e teses disponíveis em língua portuguesa e espanhola, nos últimos vinte anos. Dos 31 trabalhos selecionados, 17 (54,8%) em revista de enfermagem internacional, 10 artigos (32,2%) foram publicados em periódicos de enfermagem nacional, 3 dissertações de mestrado (9,8%) e 1 tese de livre-docência (3,2%), com maior predomínio de divulgação entre 1997 e 1998 (22,6%). Ao categorizar as referências teve-se: 14 trabalhos (45,2%) sobre estilo de liderança exercido pelos enfermeiros, 15 (48,4%) reflexões sobre liderança e 2 publicações (6,4%) discorrendo a respeito de liderança e comunicação.
Resumo:
Using a direct binding assay based on photoaffinity labeling, we have studied the interaction of antigenic peptides with murine MHC class I molecules on living cells. Photoreactive derivatives were prepared by N-terminal amidation with iodo, 4-azido salicylic acid of the Kd restricted Plasmodium berghei circumsporozoite (P.b. CS) peptide 253-260 (YIPSAEKI) and the Db-restricted Adenovirus 5 early region 1A (Ad5 E1A) peptide 234-243 (SGPSNTPPEI). As assessed in functional competition experiments, both peptide derivatives retained the specific binding activity of the parental peptides for Kd or Dd, respectively. The P.b. CS photoprobe specifically labeled Kd molecules on P815 (H-2d) cells, but failed to label RMA (H-2b) cells. Conversely, the Ad5 E1A photoprobe specifically labeled Db molecules on RMA cells, but failed to label P815 cells. When the two photoprobes were tested on a panel of Con A-activated spleen cells expressing 10 different H-2 haplotypes, significant photoaffinity labeling was observed only on H-2d cells with the P.b. CS photoprobe and on H-2b cells with the Ad5 E1A photoprobe. Labeling of cell-associated Kd or Db molecules with the photoprobes was specifically inhibited by antigenic peptides known to be presented by the same class I molecule. Photoaffinity labeling of Kd with the P.b. CS photoprobe was used to study the dynamics of peptide binding on living P815 cells. Binding increased steadily with the incubation period (up to 8 h) at 37 degrees C and at ambient temperature, but was greatly reduced (greater than 95%) at 0 to 4 degrees C or in the presence of ATP synthesis inhibitors. The magnitude of the labeling was twofold higher at room temperature than at 37 degrees C. In contrast, binding to isolated Kd molecules in solution rapidly reached maximal binding, particularly at 37 degrees C. Dissociation of the photoprobe from either cell-associated or soluble Kd molecules was similar, with a half time of approximately 1 h at 37 degrees C, whereas the complexes were long-lived at 4 degrees C in both instances.
Resumo:
BACKGROUND: The storage of blood induces the formation of erythrocytes-derived microparticles. Their pathogenic role in blood transfusion is not known so far, especially the risk to trigger alloantibody production in the recipient. This work aims to study the expression of clinically significant blood group antigens on the surface of red blood cells microparticles. MATERIAL AND METHODS: Red blood cells contained in erythrocyte concentrates were stained with specific antibodies directed against blood group antigens and routinely used in immunohematology practice. After inducing erythrocytes vesiculation with calcium ionophore, the presence of blood group antigens was analysed by flow cytometry. RESULTS: The expression of several blood group antigens from the RH, KEL, JK, FY, MNS, LE and LU systems was detected on erythrocyte microparticles. The presence of M (MNS1), N (MNS2) and s (MNS4) antigens could not be demonstrated by flow cytometry, despite that glycophorin A and B were identified on microparticles using anti-CD235a and anti-MNS3. DISCUSSION: We conclude that blood group antigens are localized on erythrocytes-derived microparticles and probably keep their immunogenicity because of their capacity to bind specific antibody. Selective segregation process during vesiculation or their ability to elicit an immune response in vivo has to be tested by further studies.
Resumo:
PURPOSE: Repeated-sprint training in hypoxia (RSH) was recently shown to improve repeated-sprint ability (RSA) in cycling. This phenomenon is likely to reflect fiber type-dependent, compensatory vasodilation, and therefore, our hypothesis was that RSH is even more beneficial for activities involving upper body muscles, such as double poling during cross-country skiing. METHODS: In a double-blinded fashion, 17 competitive cross-country skiers performed six sessions of repeated sprints (each consisting of four sets of five 10-s sprints, with 20-s intervals of recovery) either in normoxia (RSN, 300 m; FiO2, 20.9%; n = 8) or normobaric hypoxia (RSH, 3000 m; FiO2, 13.8 %; n = 9). Before (pre) and after (post) training, performance was evaluated with an RSA test (10-s all-out sprints-20-s recovery, until peak power output declined by 30%) and a simulated team sprint (team sprint, 3 × 3-min all-out with 3-min rest) on a double-poling ergometer. Triceps brachii oxygenation was measured by near-infrared spectroscopy. RESULTS: From pretraining to posttraining, peak power output in the RSA was increased (P < 0.01) to the same extent (29% ± 13% vs 26% ± 18%, nonsignificant) in RSH and in RSN whereas the number of sprints performed was enhanced in RSH (10.9 ± 5.2 vs 17.1 ± 6.8, P < 0.01) but not in RSN (11.6 ± 5.3 vs 11.7 ± 4.3, nonsignificant). In addition, the amplitude in total hemoglobin variations during sprints throughout RSA rose more in RSH (P < 0.01). Similarly, the average power output during all team sprints improved by 11% ± 9% in RSH and 15% ± 7% in RSN. CONCLUSIONS: Our findings reveal greater improvement in the performance of repeated double-poling sprints, together with larger variations in the perfusion of upper body muscles in RSH compared with those in RSN.