Hepatitis B virus screening in contacts of blood donors with antibodies against core protein (anti-HBc), but without surface antigen (HBsAg)

To increase blood safety Brazil introduced screening for anti-HBc among blood donors in 1993. There was a decrease in the hepatitis B virus (HBV) transmission, but this measure identified a great number of HBsAg-negative, anti-HBc-positive donors. Surveillance policy determines that contacts of HBV carriers should be screened to HBV markers, but there is no recommendation about how to guide contacts of HBsAg-negative, anti-HBc-positive donors. Aiming to evaluate whether the contacts of this group are at greater risk for HBV infection, a cross-sectional study was performed to compare prevalence of HBV infection between contacts of HBsAg-positive blood donors (group I) and contacts of HBsAg-negative, anti-HBc-positive donors (group II). Contacts were submitted to a questionnaire and blood tests for HBV markers. In group I (n = 143), 53 (37.1%) were anti-HBc-positive and 11 (7.7%) were HBsAg-positive. In group II (n = 111), there were 9 and 0.9%, respectively. HBV exposure was associated with group I, sexual activity, blood transfusion, being one of the donor's parents, and living for more than ten years with the donor. Regarding the families as sample units, it was more common to find at least one member with HBV markers (p < 0.05) among the families of group I compared to group II. Contacts of HBsAg-negative, anti-HBc-positive individuals presented a much lower risk of having already been exposed to HBV and there is no need to screen them for HBV in low to moderate prevalence populations.

Schistosoma mansoni major egg antigen Smp40: molecular modeling and potential immunoreactivity for anti-pathology vaccine development

The pathogenesis of Schistosoma mansoni infection is largely determined by host T-cell mediated immune responses such as the granulomatous response to tissue deposited eggs and subsequent fibrosis. The major egg antigens have a valuable role in desensitizing the CD4+ Th cells that mediate granuloma formation, which may prevent or ameliorate clinical signs of schistosomiasis.S. mansoni major egg antigen Smp40 was expressed and completely purified. It was found that the expressed Smp40 reacts specifically with anti-Smp40 monoclonal antibody in Western blotting. Three-dimensional structure was elucidated based on the similarity of Smp40 with the small heat shock protein coded in the protein database as 1SHS as a template in the molecular modeling. It was figured out that the C-terminal of the Smp40 protein (residues 130 onward) contains two alpha crystallin domains. The fold consists of eight beta strands sandwiched in two sheets forming Greek key. The purified Smp40 was used for in vitro stimulation of peripheral blood mononuclear cells from patients infected with S. mansoni using phytohemagglutinin mitogen as a positive control. The obtained results showed that there is no statistical difference in interferon-g, interleukin (IL)-4 and IL-13 levels obtained with Smp40 stimulation compared with the control group (P > 0.05 for each). On the other hand, there were significant differences after Smp40 stimulation in IL-5 (P = 0.006) and IL-10 levels (P < 0.001) compared with the control group. Gaining the knowledge by reviewing the literature, it was found that the overall pattern of cytokine profile obtained with Smp40 stimulation is reported to be associated with reduced collagen deposition, decreased fibrosis, and granuloma formation inhibition. This may reflect its future prospect as a leading anti-pathology schistosomal vaccine candidate.

Schistosoma mansoni antigen-driven interleukin-10 production in infected asthmatic individuals

Asthmatics infected with Schistosoma mansoni have a less severe course of asthma and an inhibition of the Th2 inflammatory response that seems to be mediated by interleukin (IL-10). The objective of this study was to evaluate the capacity of some S. mansoni antigens to stimulate IL-10 production in vitro by cells of asthmatic infected individuals. Peripheral bloods mononuclear cells were stimulated with the S. mansoni recombinant antigens Sm22.6, Sm14, P24, and PIII antigen. IL-10 was measured in the supernatants of cultures. As the recombinant antigens were cloned in Escherichia coli, we blocked contaminant endotoxin with polymyxin B added to the cultures. We demonstrated that all antigens used drove high production of IL-10 in S. mansoni infected individuals (n = 13, 408 ± 514 and 401 ± 383 pg/ml, 484 ± 245 pg/ml, 579 ± 468 pg/ml, respectively). In asthmatics infected with S. mansoni (n = 21) rP24 induced higher levels of IL-10 (565 ± 377 pg/ml) when compared to PIII, rSm14 and rSm22.6 (184 ± 209 pg/ml; 292 ± 243 pg/ml; 156 ± 247 pg/ml, respectively). Conclusion: the S. mansoni antigens evaluated in this study stimulated IL-10 production by cells from infected individuals and therefore they have the potential to be used as a modulator of the inflammatory response in asthma.

Assessment of a DNA vaccine encoding an anchored-glycosylphosphatidylinositol tegumental antigen complexed to protamine sulphate on immunoprotection against murine schistosomiasis

Protamine sulphate/DNA complexes have been shown to protect DNA from DNase digestion in a lipid system for gene transfer. A DNA-based vaccine complexed to protamine sulphate was used to induce an immune response against Schistosoma mansoni anchored-glycosylphosphatidylinositol tegumental antigen in BALB/c mice. The protection elicited ranged from 33 to 44%. The spectrum of the elicited immune response induced by the vaccine formulation without protamine was characterized by a high level of IgG (IgG1> IgG2a). Protamine sulphate added to the DNA vaccine formulation retained the green fluorescent protein encoding-plasmid longer in muscle and spleen. The experiments in vivo showed that under protamine sulphate effect, the scope of protection remained unchanged, but a modulation in antibody production (IgG1= IgG2a) was observed.

IL-12 controls cytotoxicity of a novel subset of self-antigen-specific human CD28+ cytolytic T cells.

Activated CD8 T cells develop cytotoxicity against autologous cells bearing foreign Ags and self/tumor Ags. However, self-specific cytolysis needs to be kept under control to avoid overwhelming immunopathology. After peptide vaccination of melanoma patients, we studied molecular and functional properties of T cell subsets specific for the self/tumor Ag Melan-A/MART-1. Ex vivo analysis revealed three Ag-specific effector memory (EM) populations, as follows: CD28-negative EM (EM28(-)) T cells strongly expressing granzyme/perforin, and two EM28(+) subsets, one with high and the other with low level expression of these cytotoxic proteins. For further functional characterization, we generated 117 stable CD8 T cell clones by ex vivo flow cytometry-based sorting of these subsets. All EM28(-)-derived clones lysed target cells with high efficacy. In contrast, EM28(+)-derived clones were heterogenous, and could be classified in two groups, one with high and the other with low killing capacity, correlating with granzyme/perforin expression. High and low killer phenotypes remained surprisingly stable for several months. However, strongly increased granzyme expression and cytotoxicity were observed after exposure to IL-12. Thus, the data reveal a newly identified subset of CD28(+) conditional killer T cells. Because CD28 can mediate strong costimulatory signals, tight cytotoxicity control, as shown in this study through IL-12, may be particularly important for subsets of T cells expressing CD28.

From the Cover: Nanoparticle conjugation of antigen enhances cytotoxic T-cell responses in pulmonary vaccination.

The ability of vaccines to induce memory cytotoxic T-cell responses in the lung is crucial in stemming and treating pulmonary diseases caused by viruses and bacteria. However, most approaches to subunit vaccines produce primarily humoral and only to a lesser extent cellular immune responses. We developed a nanoparticle (NP)-based carrier that, upon delivery to the lung, specifically targets pulmonary dendritic cells, thus enhancing antigen uptake and transport to the draining lymph node; antigen coupling via a disulfide link promotes highly efficient cross-presentation after uptake, inducing potent protective mucosal and systemic CD8(+) T-cell immunity. Pulmonary immunization with NP-conjugated ovalbumin (NP-ova) with CpG induced a threefold enhancement of splenic antigen-specific CD8(+) T cells displaying increased CD107a expression and IFN-γ production compared with immunization with soluble (i.e., unconjugated) ova with CpG. This enhanced response was accompanied by a potent Th17 cytokine profile in CD4(+) T cells. After 50 d, NP-ova and CpG also led to substantial enhancements in memory CD8(+) T-cell effector functions. Importantly, pulmonary vaccination with NP-ova and CpG induced as much as 10-fold increased frequencies of antigen-specific effector CD8(+) T cells to the lung and completely protected mice from morbidity following influenza-ova infection. Here, we highlight recruitment to the lung of a long-lasting pool of protective effector memory cytotoxic T-cells by our disulfide-linked antigen-conjugated NP formulation. These results suggest the reduction-reversible NP system is a highly promising platform for vaccines specifically targeting intracellular pathogens infecting the lung.

The humoral immune response to recombinant nucleocapsid antigen of canine distemper virus in dogs vaccinated with attenuated distemper virus or DNA encoding the nucleocapsid of wild-type virus.

This study compared the humoral immune response against the nucleocapsid-(N) protein of canine distemper virus (CDV) of dogs vaccinated with a multivalent vaccine against parvo-, adeno-, and parainfluenza virus and leptospira combined with either the attenuated CDV Onderstepoort strain (n = 15) or an expression plasmid containing the N-gene of CDV (n = 30). The vaccinations were applied intramuscularly three times at 2-week intervals beginning at the age of 6 weeks. None of the pre-immune sera recognized the recombinant N-protein, confirming the lack of maternal antibodies at this age. Immunization with DNA vaccine for CDV resulted in positive serum N-specific IgG response. However, their IgG (and IgA) titres were lower than those of CDV-vaccinated dogs. Likewise, DNA-vaccinated dogs did not show an IgM peak. There was no increase in N-specific serum IgE titres in either group. Serum titres to the other multivalent vaccine components were similar in both groups.

Induction of an immune response through the idiotypic network with monoclonal anti-idiotype antibodies in the carcinoembryonic antigen system.

Anti-idiotype antibodies can mimic the conformational epitopes of the original antigen and act as antigen substitutes for vaccination and/or serological purposes. To investigate this possibility concerning the tumor marker carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA), BALB/c mice were immunized with the previously described anti-CEA monoclonal antibody (MAb) 5.D11 (AB1). After cell fusion, 15 stable cloned cell lines secreting anti-Ids (AB2) were obtained. Selected MAbs gave various degrees of inhibition (up to 100%) of the binding of 125I-labeled CEA to MAb 5.D11. Absence of reactivity of anti-Id MAbs with normal mouse IgG was first demonstrated by the fact that anti-Id MAbs were not absorbed by passage through a mouse IgG column, and second because they bound specifically to non-reduced MAb 5.D11 on Western blots. Anti-5.D11 MAbs did not inhibit binding to CEA of MAb 10.B9, another anti-CEA antibody obtained in the same fusion as 5.D11, or that of several anti-CEA MAbs reported in an international workshop, with the exception of two other anti-CEA MAbs, both directed against the GOLD IV epitope. When applied to an Id-anti-Id competitive radioimmunoassay, a sensitivity of 2 ng/ml of CEA was obtained, which is sufficient for monitoring circulating CEA in carcinoma patients. To verify that the anti-Id MAbs have the potential to be used as CEA vaccines, syngeneic BALB/c mice were immunized with these MAbs (AB2). Sera from immunized mice were demonstrated to contain AB3 antibodies recognizing the original antigen, CEA, both in enzyme immunoassay and by immunoperoxidase staining of human colon carcinoma. These results open the perspective of vaccination against colorectal carcinoma through the use of anti-idiotype antibodies as antigen substitutes.

Biomedical nanoparticles modulate specific CD4(+) T cell stimulation by inhibition of antigen processing in dendritic cells

Understanding how nanoparticles may affect immune responses is an essential prerequisite to developing novel clinical applications. To investigate nanoparticle-dependent outcomes on immune responses, dendritic cells (DCs) were treated with model biomedical poly(vinylalcohol)-coated super-paramagnetic iron oxide nanoparticles (PVA-SPIONs). PVA-SPIONs uptake by human monocyte-derived DCs (MDDCs) was analyzed by flow cytometry (FACS) and advanced imaging techniques. Viability, activation, function, and stimulatory capacity of MDDCs were assessed by FACS and an in vitro CD4(+) T cell assay. PVA-SPION uptake was dose-dependent, decreased by lipopolysaccharide (LPS)-induced MDDC maturation at higher particle concentrations, and was inhibited by cytochalasin D pre-treatment. PVA-SPIONs did not alter surface marker expression (CD80, CD83, CD86, myeloid/plasmacytoid DC markers) or antigen-uptake, but decreased the capacity of MDDCs to process antigen, stimulate CD4(+) T cells, and induce cytokines. The decreased antigen processing and CD4(+) T cell stimulation capability of MDDCs following PVA-SPION treatment suggests that MDDCs may revert to a more functionally immature state following particle exposure.

Comparison of tests for the detection of circulating filarial antigen (Og4C3-ELISA and AD12-ICT) and ultrasound in diagnosis of lymphatic filariasis in individuals with microfilariae

Significant advances were made in the diagnosis of filariasis in the 1990s with the emergence of three new alternative tools: ultrasound and tests to detect circulating antigen using two monoclonal antibodies, Og4C3 and AD12-ICT-card. This study aimed to identify which of these methods is the most sensitive for diagnosis of infection. A total of 256 individuals, all male and carrying microfilariae (1-15,679 MF/mL), diagnosed by nocturnal venous blood samples, were tested by all three techniques. The tests for circulating filarial antigen concurred 100% and correctly identified 246/256 (96.69%) of the positive individuals, while ultrasound detected only 186/256 (73.44%). Of the circulating antigen tests, ICT-card was the most convenient method for identification of Wuchereria bancrofti carriers. It was easy to perform, practical and quick.

Serological diagnosis of Chagas disease: evaluation and characterisation of a low cost antigen with high sensitivity and specificity

In spite of evident progress in the serology of Chagas disease, the requirement for new diagnostic antigens persists. We have evaluated different antigens obtained from Trypanosoma cruzi grown in medium rich in nutrients or under nutrient stress, autoclaved or sonicated and fractionated by differential centrifugation. The resulting antigens were evaluated for diagnosis of Chagas disease using ELISA. Immunofluorescence of the parasites demonstrated that nutrient stress induced changes in the distribution and density of antigens recognised by a pool of sera from experimentally infected mice. When evaluated using ELISA, it was evident that most fractions had good sensitivity but poor specificity. Surprisingly, the best specificity and sensitivity was observed with parasites cultured under nutrient stress and autoclaved. Furthermore this antigen had low cross reactivity with sera from other parasitic diseases, Leishmaniasis in particular. Western blot analysis demonstrated that autoclaving seems to non-specifically eliminate cross-reactive antigens. In conclusion, autoclaving epimastigotes of T. cruzi, after nutrient stress, allowed us to obtain an antigen that could be used in the serological diagnosis of Chagas disease.

Lymphoid environment limits superantigen and antigen-induced T cell proliferation at high precursor frequency.

After superantigen challenge a significant proportion of superantigen-reactive T cells remain undivided. We provide evidence that the lymphoid environment limits T cell proliferation in the secondary lymphoid organs when the frequency of superantigen reactive T cells is unusually high. We monitored T cell proliferation and the percentage of undivided cells when the frequency of superantigen-reactive T cells was low (1%), intermediate (15%) or high (30-100%) by transferring fluorescently labeled cells into different recipients. When the frequency was low, practically all the reactive T cells entered cell cycle and proliferated maximally. At intermediate frequencies a large proportion of reactive T cells did not enter cell cycle and the whole population divided less. A further increase in reactive T cells did not alter the percentage of undivided cells but induced a further decrease in the number of cell divisions. Interestingly, the observations made with superantigens were confirmed with peptide antigen and TCR-transgenic mice. Moreover, in vivo and in vitro data suggest that dendritic cells are the most likely candidates in limiting T cell proliferation in the lymphoid environment. In conclusion, we show that the availability of APC in the lymphoid environment can quantitatively limit T cell priming.

In vitro attachment of glycosyl-inositolphospholipid anchor structures to mouse Thy-1 antigen and human decay-accelerating factor.

Glycosyl-inositolphospholipid (GPL) anchoring structures are incorporated into GPL-anchored proteins immediately posttranslationally in the rough endoplasmic reticulum, but the biochemical and cellular constituents involved in this "glypiation" process are unknown. To establish whether glypiation could be achieved in vitro, mRNAs generated by transcription of cDNAs encoding two GPL-anchored proteins, murine Thy-1 antigen and human decay-accelerating factor (DAF), and a conventionally anchored control protein, polymeric-immunoglobulin receptor (IgR), were translated in a rabbit reticulocyte lysate. Upon addition of dog pancreatic rough microsomes, nascent polypeptides generated from the three mRNAs translocated into vesicles. Dispersal of the vesicles with Triton X-114 detergent and incubation of the hydrophobic phase with phosphatidylinositol-specific phospholipases C and D, enzymes specific for GPL-anchor structures, released Thy-1 and DAF but not IgR protein into the aqueous phase. The selective incorporation of phospholipase-sensitive anchoring moieties into Thy-1 and DAF but not IgR translation products during in vitro translocation indicates that rough microsomes are able to support and regulate glypiation.

Prevalent role of TCR alpha-chain in the selection of the preimmune repertoire specific for a human tumor-associated self-antigen.

The specificity of recognition of pMHC complexes by T lymphocytes is determined by the V regions of the TCR alpha- and beta-chains. Recent experimental evidence has suggested that Ag-specific TCR repertoires may exhibit a more V alpha- than V beta-restricted usage. Whether V alpha usage is narrowed during immune responses to Ag or if, on the contrary, restricted V alpha usage is already defined at the early stages of TCR repertoire selection, however, has remained unexplored. Here, we analyzed V and CDR3 TCR regions of single circulating naive T cells specifically detected ex vivo and isolated with HLA-A2/melan-A peptide multimers. Similarly to what was previously observed for melan-A-specific Ag-experienced T cells, we found a relatively wide V beta usage, but a preferential V alpha 2.1 usage. Restricted V alpha 2.1 usage was also found among single CD8(+) A2/melan-A multimer(+) thymocytes, indicating that V alpha-restricted selection takes place in the thymus. V alpha 2.1 usage, however, was independent from functional avidity of Ag recognition. Thus, interaction of the pMHC complex with selected V alpha-chains contributes to set the broad Ag specificity, as underlined by preferential binding of A2/melan-A multimers to V alpha 2.1-bearing TCRs, whereas functional outcomes result from the sum of these with other interactions between pMHC complex and TCR.

Evaluation of local immune response to Fasciola hepatica experimental infection in the liver and hepatic lymph nodes of goats immunized with Sm14 vaccine antigen

Protection against Fasciola hepatica in goats immunized with a synthetic recombinant antigen from Schistosoma mansoni fatty acid-binding protein 14 (rSm14) was investigated by assessing worm burdens, serum levels of hepatic enzymes, faecal egg count and hepatic damage, which was evaluated using gross and microscopic morphometric observation. The nature of the local immune response was assessed by examining the distribution of CD2+, CD4+, CD8+ and γ´+ T lymphocytes along with IgG+, IL-4+ and IFN-γ+ cells in the liver and hepatic lymph nodes (HLN). The goats used consisted of group 1 (unimmunized and uninfected), group 2 [infected control - immunized with Quillaia A (Quil A)] and group 3 (immunized with rSm14 in Quil A and infected), each containing seven animals. Immunization with rSm14 in Quil A adjuvant induced a reduction in gross hepatic lesions of 56.6% (p < 0.001) and reduced hepatic and HLN infiltration of CD2+, CD4+, CD8+ and γ´+ T lymphocytes as well as IL-4+ and IFN-γ+ cells (p < 0.05). This is the first report of caprine immunization against F. hepatica using a complete rSm14 molecule derived from S. mansoni. Immunization reduced hepatic damage and local inflammatory infiltration into the liver and HLN. However, considering that Quil A is not the preferential/first choice adjuvant for Sm14 immunization, further studies will be undertaken using the monophosphoryl lipid A-based family of adjuvants during clinical trials to facilitate anti-Fasciolavaccine development.