993 resultados para AG-69-6


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Patterns of vocal rehabilitation for 37 pharyngolaryngectomy patients and 55 total laryngectomy patients over a 5-year period were compared. An electrolarynx (EL) was introduced as the initial communication mode immediately after surgery for 98% of patients, with 30% of pharyngolaryngectomy and 74% of laryngectomy patients subsequently developing tracheoesophageal speech (TES) as their primary mode of communication. Follow-up with 14 of 37 pharyngolaryngectomy patients and 36 of 55 laryngectomy patients was conducted 1-6 years following surgery and revealed that 90% of the pharyngolaryngectomy patients maintained the use of TES in the long term compared to 69% of the laryngectomy group. Long-term outcomes relating to communication disability and handicap did not differ significantly between the two surgical groups, however the laryngectomy patients had significantly higher levels of wellbeing. Across the whole group of patients, statistical comparison revealed that patients using TES had significantly lower levels of disability, handicap and distress than EL users. Considering that lower levels of disability, handicap and distress are associated with TES, and the data supports that suitably selected patients can maintain functional TES in the long term, increased application of this form of communication rehabilitation should be encouraged where viable for the pharyngolaryngectomy population. Copyright (C) 2003 S. Karger AG, Basel.

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Tireoidectomia sob efeito de bloqueio do plexo cervical superficial (BPCS) tem sofrido resistência. OBJETIVO: Comparar variáveis cirúrgicas e anestésicas, custos do tratamento e grau de satisfação de pacientes submetidos à hemitireoidectomia sob efeito de anestesia geral e BPCS. CASUÍSTICA E MÉTODOS: Foram 21 pacientes submetidos à anestesia geral (AG) e outro tanto ao BPCS. Após sedação, no grupo com BPCS, usou-se marcaína com vasoconstritor, e quando necessário, lidocaína a 2% com vasoconstritor. Sedação intra-operatória com diazepam endovenoso e metoprolol para controle da PA e FC eram administradas quando necessário. Usou-se anestesia geral (AG) segundo padronização do serviço. RESULTADOS: Foram significantes (p<0,05, teste t de Student) para o tempo de cirurgia (ag111,4:bpcs125,5 min), tempo de anestesia (ag154,1:bpcs488,6 min), tempo de permanência na sala cirúrgica (ag15:bpcs1 min), custos do tratamento (ag203,2:bpcs87,4 R$), presença de bradicardia (ag0:bpcs23,8%) e lesão laringotraqueal (ag51:bpcs0%). Como resultados não significativos tiveram: tempo de internação (ag17,3:bpcs15,1 hora); volume de sangramento (ag41,9:bpcs47,6 gr), tamanho da peça operatória (ag52,1:bpcs93,69 cm3) e grau de satisfação dos pacientes (ag3,8:bpcs3,9). CONCLUSÃO: Embora com incidência maior de bradicardia (23,8%), o bloqueio permitiu ressecar tumorações de até 348 cm3 com menor custo e sem apresentar lesões laringotraqueais, presentes em 51% dos pacientes submetidos à AG.

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Introduction: Visual anomalies that affect school-age children represent an important public health problem. Data on the prevalence are lacking in Portugal but is needed for planning vision services. This study was conducted to determine the prevalence of strabismus, decreased visual acuity, and uncorrected refractive error in Portuguese children aged 6 to 11 years. Methods and materials: A cross-sectional study was carried out on a sample of 672 school-age children (7.69 ± 1.19 years). Children received an orthoptic assessment (visual acuity, ocular alignment, and ocular movements) and non-cycloplegic autorefraction. Results: After orthoptic assessment, 13.8% of children were considered abnormal (n = 93). Manifest strabismus was found in 4% of the children. Rates of esotropia (2.1%) were slightly higher than exotropia (1.8%). Strabismus rates were not statistically significant different per sex (p = 0.681) and grade (p = 0.228). Decreased visual acuity at distance was present in 11.3% of children. Visual acuity ≤20/66 (0.5 logMAR) was found in 1.3% of the children. We also found that 10.3% of children had an uncorrected refractive error. Conclusions: Strabismus affects a small proportion of the Portuguese school-age children. Decreased visual acuity and uncorrected refractive error affected a significant proportion of school-age children. New policies need to be developed to address this public health problem.

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The authors have standardized methods for evaluation of the activity of the glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase and of glutathione reductase. The general principle of the first method was based on methemoglobin formation by sodium nitrite followed by stimulation of the glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase with methylene blue. Forty six adults (23 males and 23 females) were studied. Subjects were not G6PD deficient and were aged 20 to 30 years. The results showed that methemoglobin reduction by methylene blue was 154.40 and 139.90 mg/min (p<0.05) for males and females, respectively, in whole blood, and 221.10 and 207.85 mg/min (n.s.), respectively, in washed red cells. These data showed that using washed red cells and 0.7g% sodium nitrite concentration produced no differences between sexes and also shortened reading time for the residual amount of methemoglobin to 90 minutes. Glutathione reductase activity was evaluated on the basis of the fact that cystamine (a thiol agent) binds to the SH groups of hemoglobin, forming complexes. These complexes are reversed by the action of glutathione reductase, with methemoglobin reduction occurring simultaneously with this reaction. Thirty two adults (16 males and 16 females) were studied. Subjects were not G6PD deficient and were aged 20 to 30 years. Methemoglobin reduction by cystamine was 81.27 and 91.13 mg/min (p<0.01) for males and females, respectively. These data showed that using washed red cells and 0.1 M cystamine concentration permits a reading of the residual amount of methemoglobin at 180 minutes of incubation. Glutathione reductase activity was evaluated by methemoglobin reduction by cystamine in 14 females before and after treatment with 10 mg riboflavin per day for 8 days. The results were 73.69 and 94.26 jug/min (p<0.01) before and after treatment, showing that riboflavin treatment increase glutathione reductase activity even in normal individuals. Three Black G6PD-deficient individuals (2 males and 1 female) were also studied. The G6PD and glutathione reductase were partially activated, the change being more intense in males. On the basis of race and of the laboratory characteristics observed, it is possible to suggest that the G6PD deficiency of these individuals is of the African type and that the female is heterozygous for this deficiency. Analysis of the results as a whole permitted us to conclude that the methods proposed here were efficient for evaluating the activity of the glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase and of glutathione reductase. The latter is dependent on the pentose pathway, which generates NADPH, and on riboflavin, a FAD precursor vitamin.

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PhD in Sciences Specialty in Physics

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Animal studies point to an implication of the endocannabinoid system on executive functions. In humans, several studies have suggested an association between acute or chronic use of exogenous cannabinoids (Δ9-tetrahydrocannabinol) and executive impairments. However, to date, no published reports establish the relationship between endocannabinoids, as biomarkers of the cannabinoid neurotransmission system, and executive functioning in humans. The aim of the present study was to explore the association between circulating levels of plasma endocannabinoids N-arachidonoylethanolamine (AEA) and 2-Arachidonoylglycerol (2-AG) and executive functions (decision making, response inhibition and cognitive flexibility) in healthy subjects. One hundred and fifty seven subjects were included and assessed with the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test; Stroop Color and Word Test; and Iowa Gambling Task. All participants were female, aged between 18 and 60 years and spoke Spanish as their first language. Results showed a negative correlation between 2-AG and cognitive flexibility performance (r = -.37; p<.05). A positive correlation was found between AEA concentrations and both cognitive flexibility (r = .59; p<.05) and decision making performance (r = .23; P<.05). There was no significant correlation between either 2-AG (r = -.17) or AEA (r = -.08) concentrations and inhibition response. These results show, in humans, a relevant modulation of the endocannabinoid system on prefrontal-dependent cognitive functioning. The present study might have significant implications for the underlying executive alterations described in some psychiatric disorders currently associated with endocannabinoids deregulation (namely drug abuse/dependence, depression, obesity and eating disorders). Understanding the neurobiology of their dysexecutive profile might certainly contribute to the development of new treatments and pharmacological approaches.

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Background: Gout patients initiating urate lowering therapy have an increased risk of flares. Inflammation in gouty arthritis is induced by interleukin (IL)-1b. Canakinumab inhibits IL-1b effectively in clinical studies. This study compared different doses of canakinumab vs colchicine in preventing flares in gout patients initiating allopurinol therapy.Methods: In this 24 wk double blind study, gout patients (20-79 years) initiating allopurinol were randomized (1:1:1:1:1:1:2) to canakinumab s.c. single doses of 25, 50, 100, 200, 300 mg, or 150mg divided in doses every 4 wks (50þ50þ25þ25mg [q4wk]) or colchicine 0.5mg p.o. daily for 16 wks. Primary outcome was to determine the canakinumab dose giving comparable efficacy to colchicine with respect to number of flares occurring during first 16 wks. Secondary outcomes included number of patients with flares and C-reactive protein (CRP) levels during the first 16 wks.Results: 432 patients were randomized and 391 (91%) completed the study. All canakinumab doses were better than colchicine in preventing flares and therefore, a canakinumab dose comparable to colchicine couldn't be determined. Based on a negative binomialmodel, all canakinumab groups, except 25 mg, reduced the flare rate ratio per patient significantly compared to colchicine group (rate ratio estimates 25mg 0.60, 50mg 0.34, 100mg 0.28, 200mg 0.37, 300mg 0.29, q4wk 0.38; p_0.05). Percentage of patients with flares was lower for all canakinumab groups (25mg 27.3%, 50mg 16.7%, 100mg 14.8%, 200mg 18.5%, 300mg 15.1%, q4wk 16.7%) compared to colchicine group (44.4%). All patients taking canakinumab were significantly less likely to experience at least one gout flare than patients taking colchicine (odds ratio range [0.22 - 0.47]; p_0.05 for all). Median baseline CRP levels were 2.86 mg/L for 25 mg, 3.42 mg/L for 50 mg, 1.76 mg/L for 100 mg, 3.66 mg/L for 200 mg, 3.21 mg/L for 300 mg, 3.23 mg/L for q4wk canakinumab groups and 2.69 mg/L for colchicine group. In all canakinumab groups with median CRP levels above the normal range at baseline, median levels declined within 15 days of treatment and were maintained at normal levels (ULN¼3 mg/L) throughout the 16 wk period. Adverse events (AEs) occurred in 52.7% (25 mg), 55.6% (50 mg), 51.9% (100 mg), 51.9% (200 mg), 54.7% (300 mg), 58.5% (q4wk) of patients on canakinumab vs 53.7% of patients on colchicine. Serious AEs (SAE) were reported in 2 (3.6%; 25 mg), 2 (3.7%, 50 mg), 3 (5.6%, 100 mg), 3 (5.6%, 200 mg), 3 (5.7%, 300 mg), 1 (1.9%, q4wk) patients on canakinumab and in 5 (4.6%) patients on colchicine. 1 fatal SAE (myocardial infarction, not related to study drug) occurred in colchicine group.Conclusions: In this randomized, double-blind active controlled study of flare prevention in gout patients initiating allopurinol therapy, treatment with canakinumab led to a statistically significant reduction in flares compared with colchicine and was well tolerated.Disclosure statement: U.A., A.B., G.K., D.R. and P.S. are employees of and have stock options or bold holdings with Novartis Pharma AG. E.M. is a principal investigator for Novartis Pharmaceuticals Corporation. E.N. has received consulting fees from Roche. N.S. has received research grants from Novartis Pharmaceuticals Corporation. A.S. has received consultancy fees from Novartis Pharma AG, Abbott, Bristol-Myers Squibb, Essex, Pfizer, MSD, Roche, UCB and Wyeth. All other authors have declared no conflicts of interest.

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Kirje 1.6.1970

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El rango de los volúmenes de zooplancton fluctuó entre 0,91 y 371,69 mL/100m3.

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The Trepca Pb-Zn-Ag skarn deposit (29 Mt of ore at 3.45% Pb, 2.30% Zn, and 80 g/t Ag) is located in the Kopaonik block of the western Vardar zone, Kosovo. The mineralization, hosted by recrystallized limestone of Upper Triassic age, was structurally and lithologically controlled. Ore deposition is spatially and temporally related with the postcollisional magmatism of Oligocene age (23-26 Ma). The deposit was formed during two distinct mineralization stages: an early prograde closed-system and a later retrograde open-system stage. The prograde mineralization consisting mainly of pyroxenes (Hd(54-100)Jo(0-45)Di(0-45)) resulted from the interaction of magmatic fluids associated with Oligocene (23-26 Ma) postcollisional magmatism. Whereas there is no direct contact between magmatic rocks and the mineralization, the deposit is classified as a distal Pb-Zn-Ag skarn. Abundant pyroxene reflects low oxygen fugacity (<10(-31) bar) and anhydrous environment. Fluid inclusion data and mineral assemblage limit the prograde stage within a temperature range between 390 degrees and 475 degrees C. Formation pressure is estimated below 900 bars. Isotopic composition of aqueous fluid, inclusions hosted by hedenbergite (delta D = -108 to -130 parts per thousand; delta O-18 = 7.5-8.0 parts per thousand), Mn-enriched mineralogy and high REE content of the host carbonates at the contact with the skarn mineralization suggest that a magmatic fluid was modified during its infiltration through the country rocks. The retrograde mineral assemblage comprises ilvaite, magnetite, arsenopyrite, pyrrhotite, marcasite, pyrite, quartz, and various carbonates. Increases in oxygen and sulfur fugacities, as well as a hydrous character of mineralization, require an open-system model. The opening of the system is related to phreatomagmatic explosion and formation of the breccia. Arsenopyrite geothermometer limits the retrograde stage within the temperature range between 350 degrees and 380 degrees C and sulfur fugacity between 10(-8.8) and 10(-7.2) bars. The principal ore minerals, galena, sphalerite, pyrite, and minor chalcopyrite, were deposited from a moderately saline Ca-Na chloride fluid at around 350 degrees C. According to the isotopic composition of fluid inclusions hosted by sphalerite (delta D = -55 to -74 parts per thousand; delta O-18 = -9.6 to -13.6 parts per thousand), the fluid responsible for ore deposition was dominantly meteoric in origin. The delta S-31 values of the sulfides spanning between -5.5 and +10 parts per thousand point to a magmatic origin of sulfur. Ore deposition appears to have been largely contemporaneous with the retrograde stage of the skarn development. Postore stage accompanied the precipitation of significant amount of carbonates including the travertine deposits at the deposit surface. Mineralogical composition of travertine varies from calcite to siderite and all carbonates contain significant amounts of Mn. Decreased formation temperature and depletion in the REE content point to an influence of pH-neutralized cold ground water and dying magmatic system.

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BACKGROUND: We hypothesized that polymorphic mutations exist that are associated with the emergence of the multinucleoside resistance mutations (MNR), 69 insertion and Q151M. METHODS: The Swiss HIV Cohort Study was screened, and the frequencies of polymorphic mutations in HIV-1 (subtype B) were compared between patients detected with the 69 insertion (n = 17), Q151M (n = 29), ≥2 thymidine analogue mutations (TAM) 1 (n = 400) or ≥2 TAM 2 (n = 249). Logistic regressions adjusted for the antiretroviral treatment history were performed to analyze the association of the polymorphic mutations with MNR. RESULTS: The 69 insertion and TAM 1 were strongly associated and occurred in 94.1% (16 of 17) together. The 69 insertion seemed to emerge as a consequence of the TAM 1 pathway (median years until detection: 6.8 compared with 4.4 for ≥2 TAM 1, P Wilcoxon = 0.009). Frequencies of 8 polymorphic mutations (K43E, V60I, S68G, S162C, T165I, I202V, R211K, F214L) were significantly different between groups. Logistic regression showed that F214L and V60I were associated with the emergence of Q151M/TAM 2 opposed to 69 insertion/TAM 1. S68G, T165I, and I202V were associated with Q151M instead of TAM 2. CONCLUSIONS: Besides antiretroviral therapy, polymorphic mutations may contribute to the emergence of specific MNR mutations.