Recommendations for raloxifene use in daily clinical practice in the Swiss setting.

BACKGROUND/AIM: Raloxifene is the first selective estrogen receptor modulator that has been approved for the treatment and prevention of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women in Europe and in the US. Although raloxifene reduces the risk of invasive breast cancer in postmenopausal women with osteoporosis and in postmenopausal women at high risk for invasive breast cancer, it is approved in that indication in the US but not in the EU. The aim was to characterize the clinical profiles of postmenopausal women expected to benefit most from therapy with raloxifene based on published scientific evidence to date. METHODS: Key individual patient characteristics relevant to the prescription of raloxifene in daily practice were defined by a board of Swiss experts in the fields of menopause and metabolic bone diseases and linked to published scientific evidence. Consensus was reached about translating these insights into daily practice. RESULTS: Through estrogen agonistic effects on bone, raloxifene reduces biochemical markers of bone turnover to premenopausal levels, increases bone mineral density (BMD) at the lumbar spine, proximal femur, and total body, and reduces vertebral fracture risk in women with osteopenia or osteoporosis with and without prevalent vertebral fracture. Through estrogen antagonistic effects on breast tissue, raloxifene reduces the risk of invasive estrogen-receptor positive breast cancer in postmenopausal women with osteoporosis and in postmenopausal women at high risk for invasive breast cancer. Finally, raloxifene increases the incidence of hot flushes, the risk of venous thromboembolic events, and the risk of fatal stroke in postmenopausal women at increased risk for coronary heart disease. Postmenopausal women in whom the use of raloxifene is considered can be categorized in a 2 × 2 matrix reflecting their bone status (osteopenic or osteoporotic based on their BMD T-score by dual energy X-ray absorptiometry) and their breast cancer risk (low or high based on the modified Gail model). Women at high risk of breast cancer should be considered for treatment with raloxifene. CONCLUSION: Postmenopausal women between 50 and 70 years of age without climacteric symptoms with either osteopenia or osteoporosis should be evaluated with regard to their breast cancer risk and considered for treatment with raloxifene within the framework of its contraindications and precautions.

Glasgow Coma Score für den Patienten mit Schädel-Hirn-Trauma [Glasgow Coma Scale in traumatic brain injury].

Even 30 years after its first publication the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is still used worldwide to describe and assess coma. The GCS consists of three components, the ocular, motor and verbal response to standardized stimulation, and is used as a severity of illness indicator for coma of various origins. The GCS facilitates information transfer and monitoring changes in coma. In addition, it is used as a triage tool in patients with traumatic brain injury. Its prognostic value regarding the outcome after a traumatic brain injury still lacks evidence. One of the main problems is the evaluation of the GCS in sedated, paralysed and/or intubated patients. A multitude of pseudoscores exists but a universal definition has yet to be defined.

Clinical predictors for Legionella in patients presenting with community-acquired pneumonia to the emergency department.

BACKGROUND: Legionella species cause severe forms of pneumonia with high mortality and complication rates. Accurate clinical predictors to assess the likelihood of Legionella community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) in patients presenting to the emergency department are lacking. METHODS: We retrospectively compared clinical and laboratory data of 82 consecutive patients with Legionella CAP with 368 consecutive patients with non-Legionella CAP included in two studies at the same institution. RESULTS: In multivariate logistic regression analysis we identified six parameters, namely high body temperature (OR 1.67, p < 0.0001), absence of sputum production (OR 3.67, p < 0.0001), low serum sodium concentrations (OR 0.89, p = 0.011), high levels of lactate dehydrogenase (OR 1.003, p = 0.007) and C-reactive protein (OR 1.006, p < 0.0001) and low platelet counts (OR 0.991, p < 0.0001), as independent predictors of Legionella CAP. Using optimal cut off values of these six parameters, we calculated a diagnostic score for Legionella CAP. The median score was significantly higher in Legionella CAP as compared to patients without Legionella (4 (IQR 3-4) vs 2 (IQR 1-2), p < 0.0001) with a respective odds ratio of 3.34 (95%CI 2.57-4.33, p < 0.0001). Receiver operating characteristics showed a high diagnostic accuracy of this diagnostic score (AUC 0.86 (95%CI 0.81-0.90), which was better as compared to each parameter alone. Of the 191 patients (42%) with a score of 0 or 1 point, only 3% had Legionella pneumonia. Conversely, of the 73 patients (16%) with > or =4 points, 66% of patients had Legionella CAP. CONCLUSION: Six clinical and laboratory parameters embedded in a simple diagnostic score accurately identified patients with Legionella CAP. If validated in future studies, this score might aid in the management of suspected Legionella CAP.

Coronary magnetic resonance angiography in adolescents and young adults with kawasaki disease.

BACKGROUND: In patients with Kawasaki disease, serial evaluation of the distribution and size of coronary artery aneurysms (CAA) is necessary for risk stratification and therapeutic management. Although transthoracic echocardiography is often sufficient for this purpose initially, visualization of the coronary arteries becomes progressively more difficult as children grow. We sought to prospectively compare coronary magnetic resonance angiography (MRA) and x-ray coronary angiography findings in patients with CAA caused by Kawasaki disease. METHODS AND RESULTS: Six subjects (age 10 to 25 years) with known CAA from Kawasaki disease underwent coronary MRA using a free-breathing T2-prepared 3D bright blood segmented k-space gradient echo sequence with navigator gating and tracking. All patients underwent x-ray coronary angiography within a median of 75 days (range, 1 to 359 days) of coronary MRA. There was complete agreement between MRA and x-ray angiography in the detection of CAA (n=11), coronary artery stenoses (n=2), and coronary occlusions (n=2). Excellent agreement was found between the 2 techniques for detection of CAA maximal diameter (mean difference=0.4 +/- 0.6 mm) and length (mean difference=1.4 +/- 1.6 mm). The 2 methods showed very similar results for proximal coronary artery diameter (mean difference=0.2 +/- 0.5 mm) and CAA distance from the ostia (mean difference=0.1 +/- 1.5 mm). CONCLUSION: Free-breathing 3D coronary MRA accurately defines CAA in patients with Kawasaki disease. This technique may provide a non-invasive alternative when transthoracic echocardiography image quality is insufficient, thereby reducing the need for serial x-ray coronary angiography in this patient group.

Hippocampal atrophy predicts conversion to dementia after STN-DBS in Parkinson's disease.

BACKGROUND: Hippocampal atrophy (HA) is a known predictor of dementia in Alzheimer's disease. HA has been found in advanced Parkinson's disease (PD), but no predicting value has been demonstrated yet. The identification of such a predictor in candidates for subthalamic deep brain stimulation (STN-DBS) would be of value. Our objective was to compare preoperative hippocampal volumes (HV) between PD patients who subsequently converted to dementia (PDD) after STN-DBS and those who did not (PDnD). METHODS: From a cohort of 70 consecutive STN-DBS treated PD patients, 14 converted to dementia over 25.6+/-20.2 months (PDD). They were compared to 14 matched controls (PDnD) who did not convert to dementia after 43.9+/-11.7 months. On the preoperative 3D MPRAGE MRI images, HV and total brain volumes (TBV) were measured by a blinded investigator using manual and automatic segmentation respectively. RESULTS: PDD had smaller preoperative HV than PDnD (1.95+/-0.29 ml; 2.28+/-0.33 ml; p<0.01). This difference reinforced after normalization for TBV (3.28+/-0.48, 3.93+/-0.60; p<0.01). Every 0.1 ml decrease of HV increased the likelihood to develop dementia by 24.6%. A large overlap was found between PD and PDnD HVs, precluding the identification of a cut-off score. CONCLUSIONS: As in Alzheimer's disease, HA may be a predictor of the conversion to dementia in PD. This preoperative predictor suggests that the development of dementia after STN-DBS is related to the disease progression, rather then the procedure. Further studies are needed to define a cut-off score for HA, in order to affine its predictive value for an individual patient.

KRAS mutation testing for predicting response to anti-EGFR therapy for colorectal carcinoma: proposal for an European quality assurance program.

Novel therapeutic agents targeting the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) have improved outcomes for patients with colorectal carcinoma. However, these therapies are effective only in a subset of patients. Activating mutations in the KRAS gene are found in 30-40% of colorectal tumors and are associated with poor response to anti-EGFR therapies. Thus, KRAS mutation status can predict which patient may or may not benefit from anti-EGFR therapy. Although many diagnostic tools have been developed for KRAS mutation analysis, validated methods and standardized testing procedures are lacking. This poses a challenge for the optimal use of anti-EGFR therapies in the management of colorectal carcinoma. Here we review the molecular basis of EGFR-targeted therapies and the resistance to treatment conferred by KRAS mutations. We also present guideline recommendations and a proposal for a European quality assurance program to help ensure accuracy and proficiency in KRAS mutation testing across the European Union.

Imagerie et arthrose [Imaging in osteoarthritis].

Plain radiography remains useful for the diagnosis of osteoarthritis, even if it is not always essential. It is moreover poorly correlated with symptoms, as it reflects rather the accumulation of damage then active processes. Similarly, it is a poor indicator of the progression of osteoarthritis. Modem imaging, particularly MRI, has allowed us to understand better the evolving processes, demonstrating a good correlation with symptoms and a better predictive value of clinical course. It has gradually replaced standard radiography in the study because it directly demonstrates sequelae and the active processes in all the structures of the joint. It remains clinically indicated only to exclude an alternative diagnosis or to determine a possible complication of osteoarthritis.

Fatigue and weight loss predict survival on circadian chemotherapy for metastatic colorectal cancer.

BACKGROUND: Chemotherapy-induced neutropenia has been associated with prolonged survival selectively in patients on a conventional schedule (combined 5-fluorouracil, leucovorin, and oxaliplatin [FOLFOX2]) but not on a chronomodulated schedule of the same drugs administered at specific circadian times (chronoFLO4). The authors hypothesized that the early occurrence of chemotherapy-induced symptoms correlated with circadian disruption would selectively hinder the efficacy of chronotherapy. METHODS: Fatigue and weight loss (FWL) were considered to be associated with circadian disruption based on previous data. Patients with metastatic colorectal cancer (nâeuro0/00=âeuro0/00543) from an international phase 3 trial comparing FOLFOX2 with chronoFLO4 were categorized into 4 subgroups according to the occurrence of FWL or other clinically relevant toxicities during the initial 2 courses of chemotherapy. Multivariate Cox models were used to assess the role of toxicity on the time to progression (TTP) and overall survival (OS). RESULTS: The proportions of patients in the 4 subgroups were comparable in both treatment arms (Pâeuro0/00=âeuro0/00.77). No toxicity was associated with TTP or OS on FOLFOX2. The median OS on FOLFOX2 ranged from 16.4 (95% confidence limits [CL], 7.2-25.6 months) to 19.8 months (95% CL, 17.7-22.0 months) according to toxicity subgroup (Pâeuro0/00=âeuro0/00.45). Conversely, FWL, but no other toxicity, independently predicted for significantly shorter TTP (Pâeuro0/00<âeuro0/00.0001) and OS (Pâeuro0/00=âeuro0/00.001) on chronoFLO4. The median OS on chronoFLO4 was 13.8 months (95% CL, 10.4-17.2 months) or 21.1 months (95% CL, 19.0-23.1 months) according to presence or absence of chemotherapy-induced FWL, respectively. CONCLUSIONS: Early onset chemotherapy-induced FWL was an independent predictor of poor TTP and OS only on chronotherapy. Dynamic monitoring to detect early chemotherapy-induced circadian disruption could allow the optimization of rapid chronotherapy and concomitant improvements in safety and efficacy.

Can MRI replace CT in evaluating semicircular canal dehiscence?

BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: Patients with symptoms of semicircular canal dehiscence often undergo both CT and MR imaging. We assessed whether FIESTA can replace temporal bone CT in evaluating patients for SC dehiscence. MATERIALS AND METHODS: We retrospectively reviewed 112 consecutive patients (224 ears) with vestibulocochlear symptoms who underwent concurrent MR imaging and CT of the temporal bones between 2007 and 2009. MR imaging protocol included a FIESTA sequence covering the temporal bone (axial 0.8-mm section thickness, 0.4-mm spacing, coronal/oblique reformations; 41 patients at 1.5T, 71 patients at 3T). CT was performed on a 64-row multidetector row scanner (0.625-mm axial acquisition, with coronal/oblique reformations). Both ears of each patient were evaluated for dehiscence of the superior and posterior semicircular canals in consensual fashion by 2 neuroradiologists. Analysis of the FIESTA sequence and reformations was performed first for the MR imaging evaluation. CT evaluation was performed at least 2 weeks after the MR imaging review, resulting in a blinded comparison of CT with MR imaging. CT was used as the reference standard to evaluate the MR imaging results. RESULTS: For SSC dehiscence, MR imaging sensitivity was 100%, specificity was 96.5%, positive predictive value was 61.1%, and negative predictive value was 100% in comparison with CT. For PSC dehiscence, MR imaging sensitivity was 100%, specificity was 99.1%, positive predictive value was 33.3%, and negative predictive value was 100% in comparison with CT. CONCLUSIONS: MR imaging, with a sensitivity and negative predictive value of 100%, conclusively excludes SSC or PSC dehiscence. Negative findings on MR imaging preclude the need for CT to detect SC dehiscence. Only patients with positive findings on MR imaging should undergo CT evaluation.

Nontraumatic subarachnoid hemorrhage management: evaluation with reduced iodine volume at CT angiography.

PURPOSE: To evaluate the technical quality and the diagnostic performance of a protocol with use of low volumes of contrast medium (25 mL) at 64-detector spiral computed tomography (CT) in the diagnosis and management of adult, nontraumatic subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH). MATERIALS AND METHODS: This study was performed outside the United States and was approved by the institutional review board. Intracranial CT angiography was performed in 73 consecutive patients with nontraumatic SAH diagnosed at nonenhanced CT. Image quality was evaluated by two observers using two criteria: degree of arterial enhancement and venous contamination. The two independent readers evaluated diagnostic performance (lesion detection and correct therapeutic decision-making process) by using rotational angiographic findings as the standard of reference. Sensitivity, specificity, and positive and negative predictive values were calculated for patients who underwent CT angiography and three-dimensional rotational angiography. The intraclass correlation coefficient was calculated to assess interobserver concordance concerning aneurysm measurements and therapeutic management. RESULTS: All aneurysms were detected, either ruptured or unruptured. Arterial opacification was excellent in 62 cases (85%), and venous contamination was absent or minor in 61 cases (84%). In 95% of cases, CT angiographic findings allowed optimal therapeutic management. The intraclass correlation coefficient ranged between 0.93 and 0.95, indicating excellent interobserver agreement. CONCLUSION: With only 25 mL of iodinated contrast medium focused on the arterial phase, 64-detector CT angiography allowed satisfactory diagnostic and therapeutic management of nontraumatic SAH.

Cell-mediated immunity to predict cytomegalovirus disease in high-risk solid organ transplant recipients.

Late-onset cytomegalovirus (CMV) disease commonly occurs after discontinuation of antiviral prophylaxis. We determined the utility of testing CD8+ T-cell response against CMV as a predictor of late-onset CMV disease after a standard course of antiviral prophylaxis. Transplant patients at high-risk for CMV disease were enrolled. CD8+ T-cell-mediated immunity (CMI) was tested using the QuantiFERON-CMV assay at baseline, 1, 2 and 3 months posttransplant by measurement of interferon-gamma response to whole blood stimulation with a 21-peptide pool. The primary outcome was the ability of CMI testing to predict CMV disease in the first 6 months posttransplant. There were 108 evaluable patients (D+/R+ n = 39; D-/R+ n = 34; D+/R- n = 35) of whom 18 (16.7%) developed symptomatic CMV disease. At the end of prophylaxis, CMI was detectable in 38/108 (35.2%) patients (cutoff 0.1 IU/mL interferon-gamma). CMV disease occurred in 2/38 (5.3%) patients with a detectable interferon-gamma response versus 16/70 (22.9%) patients with a negative response; p = 0.038. In the subgroup of D+/R- patients, CMV disease occurred in 1/10 (10.0%) patients with a detectable interferon-gamma response (cutoff 0.1 IU/mL) versus 10/25 (40.0%) patients with a negative CMI, p = 0.12. Monitoring of CMI may be useful for predicting late-onset CMV disease.

Les rachialgies inflammatoires [Inflammatory back pain]

Inflammatory back pain is more than just inflammatory pain, but a set of symptoms which presence must evoke a diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis. However, it is insufficient by itself for a diagnosis which can only be reach as part of a diagnostic strategy searching for other clinical, biological or radiological abnormalities in order to obtain adequate diagnostic probability, while acknowledging the limitations of all these examinations.

Spine trabecular bone score subsequent to bone mineral density improves fracture discrimination in women.

Bone mineral density (BMD) measured by dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA) is used to diagnose osteoporosis and assess fracture risk. However, DXA cannot evaluate trabecular microarchitecture. This study used a novel software program (TBS iNsight; Med-Imaps, Geneva, Switzerland) to estimate bone texture (trabecular bone score [TBS]) from standard spine DXA images. We hypothesized that TBS assessment would differentiate women with low trauma fracture from those without. In this study, TBS was performed blinded to fracture status on existing research DXA lumbar spine (LS) images from 429 women. Mean participant age was 71.3 yr, and 158 had prior fractures. The correlation between LS BMD and TBS was low (r = 0.28), suggesting these parameters reflect different bone properties. Age- and body mass index-adjusted odds ratios (ORs) ranged from 1.36 to 1.63 for LS or hip BMD in discriminating women with low trauma nonvertebral and vertebral fractures. TBS demonstrated ORs from 2.46 to 2.49 for these respective fractures; these remained significant after lowest BMD T-score adjustment (OR = 2.38 and 2.44). Seventy-three percent of all fractures occurred in women without osteoporosis (BMD T-score > -2.5); 72% of these women had a TBS score below the median, thereby appropriately classified them as being at increased risk. In conclusion, TBS assessment enhances DXA by evaluating trabecular pattern and identifying individuals with vertebral or low trauma fracture. TBS identifies 66-70% of women with fracture who were not classified with osteoporosis by BMD alone.

Preoperative upper gastrointestinal testing can help predicting long-term outcome after gastric banding for morbid obesity.

BACKGROUND: Gastric banding (GB) is one of the most popular bariatric procedures for morbid obesity. Apart from causing weight loss by alimentary restriction, it can interfere with functions of the esophagus and upper stomach. The aim of this study was to evaluate if the results of extensive preoperative upper GI testing were correlated with long-term outcome and complications after GB. METHODS: Using a prospectively maintained computerized database including all the patients undergoing bariatric operations in both our hospitals, we performed a retrospective analysis of the patients who underwent complete upper gastrointestinal (GI) testing (endoscopy, pH monitoring, and manometry) before GB. RESULTS: One hundred thirty-four patients underwent complete testing before GB. Abnormal pH monitoring (increased total reflux time, increased diurnal reflux time, increased number of reflux episodes) predicted the development of complications and especially pouch dilatation and food intolerance. The mean De Meester score was higher among patients who developed complications than in the remaining ones (25.4 vs 17.7, P=0.03). High lower esophageal sphincter pressure also predicted progressive long-term food intolerance. Endoscopic findings were not predictive of the long-term outcome. CONCLUSIONS: There is some association between the function of the upper digestive tract and long-term complications after gastric banding. Abnormal pH monitoring predicts overall long-term complications, especially food intolerance with or without reflux, and pouch dilatation, and a high lower esophageal sphincter pressure predicts long-term food intolerance. Extended upper gastrointestinal testing with endoscopy, 24-h pH monitoring, and esophageal manometry is probably worthwhile in selecting patients for gastric banding.