1000 resultados para 61-462


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OBJECTIVE: The purpose of this study was to establish longitudinal reference ranges for fetal ultrasound biometry measurements and growth parameters in twin pregnancies. METHOD: A total of 200 uncomplicated twin pregnancies before 21 weeks of gestation were recruited for this prospective, longitudinal study. Women who abandoned follow-up, pregnancies with unknown outcomes or pregnancies with complications were excluded. Ultrasound scans were performed every three weeks, and biparietal and occipitofrontal diameters, head and abdominal circumferences, and femur diaphysis length measurements were obtained for each fetus at each visit. Estimated fetal weight, biparietal/occipitofrontal diameter, head circumference/abdominal circumference, and femur diaphysis length/abdominal circumference ratios were also calculated. Multilevel regression analysis was performed on normalized data. RESULTS: A total of 807 ultrasound examinations were performed in 125 twin pregnancies between 14 and 38 weeks of gestation (6.5 +/- 1.4 scans/pregnancy). Regression analysis demonstrated significant correlations for all variables with gestational age, namely log of the biparietal diameter (r = 0.98), log of the occipitofrontal diameter (r = 0.98), log of the head circumference (r = 0.99), log of the abdominal circumference (r = 0.98), square root of the femur length (r = 0.99), log of the estimated fetal weight (r = 0.99), biparietal/occipitofrontal ratio (r = -0.11), head/abdomen circumference ratio (r = -0.56), and log of the femur length/abdominal circumference ratio (r = 0.61). Values corresponding to the 10th, 50th, and 90th percentiles for estimated fetal weight at 28, 32, and 36 weeks, respectively, were as follows: 937, 1,096, 1,284 g; 1,462, 1,720, 2,025 g; and 2,020, 2,399, 2,849 g. CONCLUSION: In twin pregnancies, fetal ultrasound biometry measurements and growth parameters show a significant correlation with gestational age.

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Die Arbeit befasst sich mit der Haftungsproblematik des vorläufigen Insolvenzverwalters, dem das Insolvenzgericht bereits im Eröffnungsverfahren die Verwaltungs- und Verfügungsbefugnis über das schuldnerische Vermögen übertragen hat. Nach § 55 Abs. 2 InsO haben Verbindlichkeiten, die der vorläufige Insolvenzverwalter begründet hat, im eröffneten Verfahren den Rang von Masseverbindlichkeiten. Gleiches gilt im Fall der Inanspruchnahme von Gegenleistungen aus bereits bestehenden Dauerschuldverhältnissen. Für die von ihm dergestalt begründeten Masseverbindlichkeiten haftet der vorläufige Insolvenzverwalter im Fall eines späteren Forderungsausfalls gegenüber den Gläubigern persönlich, sofern er nicht den Entlastungsbeweis führen kann, dass bei Eingehung der Verbindlichkeit der spätere Ausfall nicht absehbar war (§§ 21, 61 InsO). Schwerpunkt der vorliegenden Arbeit ist die Herausarbeitung der Haftungsvoraussetzungen des § 61 InsO, der an ein pflichtwidriges Verhalten des (vorläufigen) Insolvenzverwalters anknüpft. Der vorläufige Verwalter hat, um einer Haftung nach §§ 21, 61 InsO zu entgehen, vor Eingehung neuer Masseverbindlichkeiten die zukünftige Massedeckung zu prüfen. Hierbei müssen die zukünftigen Einnahmen und Ausgaben im Wege einer Finanzplanung erfasst und bewertet werden. Die Herausarbeitung dieser in Literatur und Praxis bislang stiefmütterlich behandelten Problematik ist Kernthema der Dissertation.

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Le attività di ricerca della presente tesi di dottorato si sono focalizzata principalmente sulla parassitofauna dei pesci marini allevati in Grecia ed in Italia con particolare attenzione allo studio degli ectoparassiti di maggior rilievo sanitario in maricoltura ed alla ricerca di endoparassiti di potenziale interesse zoonosico, in particolare larve di nematodi Anisakidae del genere Anisakis. Nel corso del triennio sono stati sottoposti ad esami parassitologici 916 spigole (Dicentrarchus labrax) e 462 orate (Sparus aurata) prelevate presso diverse tipologie di allevamenti greci ed italiani. Per quanto concerne le spigole, la presenza di ectoparassiti è stata riscontrata nel 29,2% e nel 61,9% dei soggetti provenienti rispettivamente da impianti siti in Grecia ed in Italia, mentre le orate hanno presentato percentuali di positività rispettivamente del 87,5% e del 26,7%. Gli ectoparassiti dominanti sono risultati essere il monogeneo Diplectanum aequans nelle spigole ed il ciliato Cryptocaryon irritans e il monogeneo Furnestinia echeneis nelle orate, sebbene sia stato possibile studiare anche il coinvolgimento di altri ectoparassiti, quali il monogeneo Sparicotyle chrysophrii ed il dinoflagellato Amyloodinium ocellatum, nel determinismo di alcuni episodi morbosi. Le osservazioni istopatologiche hanno permesso di caratterizzare le lesioni causate dagli ectoparassiti a diverse intensità d’infestazione. Per quanto concerne la ricerca di parassiti zoonosici, con particolare riferimento agli stadi larvali di nematodi Anisakidae del genere Anisakis, si sono condotti esami parassitologici a livello di cavità viscerale e di muscolo laterale in tutti i soggetti provenienti da allevamenti in gabbia (626 soggetti, di cui 441 spigole e 185 orate). Tutti i soggetti esaminati sono risultati negativi, indicando come il rischio di infestazione da larve di nematodi anisakidi possa essere considerato trascurabile in spigole ed orate allevate in gabbia, come già dimostrato per il salmone atlantico (EFSA, 2010).

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The purpose of this study was to analyse retrospectively a feline population with intracranial neoplastic diseases, to document seizure patterns in these animals and to determine whether partial seizures were more frequently associated with structural brain lesions then generalised seizures. In addition, a comparison was made within the population with intracranial neoplasia between two groups of cats: one with and one without seizures. Special emphasis was given to the evaluation of tumour type, localisation and size of the lesion and its correlation with seizure prevalence. Sixty-one cats with histopathological diagnosis of intracranial tumour were identified. Fourteen cats (23%; group A) had a history of seizure(s). Forty-seven cats (77%; group B) had no history of seizure(s). Generalised tonic-clonic seizures were seen in eight cats (57%) and were the most common seizure pattern in our cats with intracranial neoplasia. Clusters of seizures were observed in six cats. Status epilepticus was observed in one patient. The mean age of the cats was 7.9 years within group A (median 8.5) and 9.3 years (median 10) within group B. The cats with lymphoma within both groups were significantly younger than cats with meningioma. In both groups meningioma and lymphoma were confirmed to be the most frequent tumour type, followed by glial cell tumours. The prevalence of the seizures in patients with glial cell tumours was 26.7%, 26.3% in patients with lymphomas and 15% in cases with meningiomas. In 33 cases (54.1%) the tumours were localised in the forebrain, 15 tumours (24.6%) were in the brainstem, four (6.6%) in the cerebellum and nine tumours (14.7%) had multifocal localisation. Parietal lobe and basal ganglia mostly affected group A. In group B tumours were most frequently located in the parietal and frontal lobes as well as in the diencephalon. A positive association was documented between the localisation of a tumour in the forebrain and seizure occurrence.

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Maternal smoking in pregnancy is associated with respiratory diseases in the offspring, possibly due to prenatal influences on the developing immune system. We investigated whether maternal smoking in pregnancy was associated with cord blood leukocyte numbers, including precursor dendritic cells, adjusting for concomitant factors. In a prospective healthy birth cohort study, total leukocyte counts were reduced in neonates of smoking mothers [10.7 (8.4-13.0), n=14] compared with nonexposed infants [14.7 (13.7-15.7), n=74, p=0.002] [geometric mean cells x 10(3)/microL (95% confidence interval)]. All leukocyte subsets were decreased, most prominently segmented neutrophils [4.3 (2.8-5.7) versus 6.2 (5.5-6.8), p=0.021], lymphocytes [3.8 (2.9-4.8) versus 5.0 (4.5-5.6), p=0.036], and myeloid precursor dendritic cells [12.7 cells/microL (9.1-17.8) versus 18.3 (15.8-21.2), p=0.055]. These differences persisted after adjustment for possible confounders. Predictors of myeloid precursor dendritic cell numbers in multivariable models were maternal smoking (-5.1 cells/microL, p=0.042), age (-0.5 cells/microL/y, p=0.035), and, marginally, asthma (+8.1 cells/microL, p=0.075). The decrease of all leukocytes in neonates of smoking mothers could be clinically significant and suggests a decreased cell production, increased peripheral recruitment, or retention in bone marrow. Given the importance of dendritic cells in early immune responses, their decrease might reflect an impact of maternal smoking on the developing fetal immune system.

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PURPOSE: To perform a quantitative and qualitative comparison of gadobutrol and gadoterate in three-station contrast enhanced magnetic resonance angiography (CE-MRA) of the lower limbs. MATERIALS AND METHODS: In this prospective randomized controlled trial, 52 patients with leg ischemia were randomly assigned to one of two groups receiving either gadobutrol (1.0 mmol Gd/mL, 15 mL) or gadoterate (0.5 mmol Gd/mL, 30 mL). Three-station 3D CE-MRAs from the pelvis to the ankles were performed with moving-table technique on a 1.5T MR scanner. Injection time was identical in both groups. Signal-to-noise (SNR) and contrast-to-noise ratios (CNR) were calculated for 816 arteries. Contrast quality in 1196 vessel segments was evaluated separately by two blinded readers on a three-point scale. RESULTS: Mean SNR (61.8 +/- 7.8 for gadobutrol vs. 61.9 +/- 9.1 for gadoterate, P = 0.257), CNR (52.8 +/- 9.1 vs. 52.8 +/- 10.7, P = 0.154), and qualitative ranking (1.41 vs. 1.44, P = 0.21) for all vessels did not differ significantly between the two patient groups. The overall quality was good in 90.4% with gadoterate and 94.2% with gadobutrol (P = 0.462). CONCLUSION: High-concentration gadobutrol allows neither a higher CNR nor any qualitative advantage over the ordinary unspecific Gd agent gadoterate when the same Gd load and injection times are used in multistation CE-MRA of the peripheral arteries.

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INTRODUCTION Our aim was to assess the prevalence of gingival recessions in patients before, immediately after, and 2 and 5 years after orthodontic treatment. METHODS Labial gingival recessions in all teeth were scored (yes or no) by 2 raters on initial, end-of-treatment, and posttreatment (2 and 5 years) plaster models of 302 orthodontic patients (38.7% male; 61.3% female) selected from a posttreatment archive. Their mean ages were 13.6 years (SD, 3.6; range, 9.5-32.7 years) at the initial assessment, 16.2 years (SD, 3.5; range, 11.7-35.1 years) at the end of treatment, 18.6 years (SD, 3.6; range, 13.7-37.2 years) at 2 years posttreatment, and 21.6 (SD, 3.5; range, 16.6-40.2 years) at 5 years posttreatment. A recession was noted (scored "yes") if the labial cementoenamel junction was exposed. All patients had a fixed retainer bonded to either the mandibular canines only (type I) or all 6 mandibular front teeth (type II). RESULTS There was a continuous increase in gingival recessions after treatment from 7% at end of treatment to 20% at 2 years posttreatment and to 38% at 5 years posttreatment. Patients less than 16 years of age at the end of treatment were less likely to develop recessions than patients more than 16 years at the end of treatment (P = 0.013). The prevalence of recessions was not associated with sex (P = 0.462) or extraction treatment (P = 0.32). The type of fixed retainer did not influence the development of recessions in the mandibular front region (P = 0.231). CONCLUSIONS The prevalence of gingival recessions steadily increases after orthodontic treatment. The recessions are more prevalent in older than in younger patients. No variable, except for age at the end of treatment, seems to be associated with the development of gingival recessions.

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Molecular diagnosis of canine bartonellosis can be extremely challenging and often requires the use of an enrichment culture approach followed by PCR amplification of bacterial DNA. HYPOTHESES: (1) The use of enrichment culture with PCR will increase molecular detection of bacteremia and will expand the diversity of Bartonella species detected. (2) Serological testing for Bartonella henselae and Bartonella vinsonii subsp. berkhoffii does not correlate with documentation of bacteremia. ANIMALS: Between 2003 and 2009, 924 samples from 663 dogs were submitted to the North Carolina State University, College of Veterinary Medicine, Vector Borne Diseases Diagnostic Laboratory for diagnostic testing with the Bartonella α-Proteobacteria growth medium (BAPGM) platform. Test results and medical records of those dogs were retrospectively reviewed. METHODS: PCR amplification of Bartonella sp. DNA after extraction from patient samples was compared with PCR after BAPGM enrichment culture. Indirect immunofluorescent antibody assays, used to detect B. henselae and B. vinsonii subsp. berkhoffii antibodies, were compared with PCR. RESULTS: Sixty-one of 663 dogs were culture positive or had Bartonella DNA detected by PCR, including B. henselae (30/61), B. vinsonii subsp. berkhoffii (17/61), Bartonella koehlerae (7/61), Bartonella volans-like (2/61), and Bartonella bovis (2/61). Coinfection with more than 1 Bartonella sp. was documented in 9/61 dogs. BAPGM culture was required for PCR detection in 32/61 cases. Only 7/19 and 4/10 infected dogs tested by IFA were B. henselae and B. vinsonii subsp. berkhoffii seroreactive, respectively. CONCLUSIONS AND CLINICAL IMPORTANCE: Dogs were most often infected with B. henselae or B. vinsonii subsp. berkhoffii based on PCR and enrichment culture, coinfection was documented, and various Bartonella species were identified. Most infected dogs did not have detectable Bartonella antibodies.