987 resultados para SPECTROSCOPIC TARGET SELECTION
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Laponite-derived materials represent promising materials for optical applications. In this work, Eu(3+)- or Er(3+)-doped laponite xerogels and films were prepared from colloidal dispersion. Homogeneous, crack-free and transparent single layers were deposited on soda-lime substrates with a thickness of 10 mu m. Structural and spectroscopic properties were analyzed by thermal analyses, X-ray diffractometry, transmission electron microscopy, infrared spectroscopy, and luminescence spectroscopy. The addition of a rare earth ion to the laponite does not promote any changes in thermal stability or phase transition. Laponite clay was identified after annealing up to 500 degrees C, with a decrease in basal spacing when the annealing temperature is changed from 100 degrees C to 500 degrees C. Enstatite polymorphs and amorphous silicate phases were observed after heat treatment at 700 degrees C and 900 degrees C. Stationary and time-dependent luminescence spectra in the visible region for Eu(3+), and (5)D(0) lifetime are discussed in terms of thermal treatment and structural evolution. In the layered host, the Eu(3+) ions are distributed in many different local environments. However, Eu(3+) ions were found to occupy at least two symmetry sites, and the ions are preferentially incorporated into the crystalline enstatite for the materials annealed at 700 degrees C and 900 degrees C. A (5)D(0) lifetime of 1.3 ms and 3.1 ms was obtained for Eu(3+) ions in an amorphous silicate and crystalline MgSiO(3) local environment, respectively. Strong Er(3+) emission at the 1550 nm region was observed for the materials annealed at 900 degrees C, with a bandwidth of 44 nm. (C) 2008 Elsevier B.V. All rights reserved.
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The solubilization of an europium (III) beta-diketonate chelate in aqueous medium and the changes in its photophysical properties upon its inclusion into an alpha-cyclodextrin hydrophobic cavity are described. The complex [Eu(tta)(3)center dot(H(2)O)(2)] (tta = 4,4,4-trifluoro-1-(thiophen-2-yl)butane-1,3-dione) was synthesized, characterized, and incorporated into the hydrophobic cavity by stirring in an alpha-cyclodextrin aqueous solution. The inclusion was confirmed by (1)H NMR, and the stoichiometry of association was obtained by the Job method. The maximum in the excitation spectrum of the alpha-CD inclusion compound in aqueous solution was shifted 28 nm compared with the maximum of non alpha-CD complex. The emission spectrum of the association is similar to that of the free solid complex and displays the characteristic (5)D(0) -> (7)F(0-4) Eu(3+) transitions.
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Prior experience with the elevated plus maze (EPM) increases the avoidance of rodents to the open arms and impairs the anxiolytic-like effects of benzodiazepines on the traditional behaviors evaluated upon re-exposure to the maze, a phenomenon known as one-trial tolerance. Risk assessment behaviors are also sensitive to benzodiazepines. During re-exposure to the maze, these behaviors reinstate the information-processing initiated during the first experience, and the detection of danger generates stronger open-arm avoidance. The present study investigated whether the benzodiazepine midazolam alters risk assessment behaviors and Fos protein distribution associated with test and retest sessions in the EPM. Naive or maze-experienced Wistar rats received either saline or midazolam (0.5 mg/kg i.p.) and were subjected to the EPM. Midazolam caused the usual effects on exploratory behavior, increasing exploratory activity of naive rats in the open arms and producing no effects on these conventional measures in rats re-exposed to the maze. Risk assessment behaviors, however, were sensitive to the benzodiazepine during both sessions, indicating anxiolytic-like effects of the drug in both conditions. Fos immunohistochemistry showed that midazolam injections were associated with a distinct pattern of action when administered before the test or retest session, and the anterior cingulate cortex, area 1 (Cg1), was the only structure targeted by the benzodiazepine in both situations. Bilateral infusions of midazolam into the Cg1 replicated the behavioral effects of the drug injected systemically, suggesting that this area is critically involved in the anxiolytic-like effects of benzodiazepines, although the behavioral strategy adopted by the animals appears to depend on the previous knowledge of the threatening environment. (C) 2009 IBRO. Published by Elsevier Ltd. All rights reserved.
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Rats were trained in a Pavlovian serial ambiguous target discrimination, in which a target cue was reinforced if it was preceded by one stimulus (P -> T+) but was not reinforced if it was preceded by another stimulus (N -> T-). Test performance indicated that stimulus control by these features was weaker than that acquired by features trained within separate serial feature positive (P -> T+, T-) and serial feature negative (N -> W-, W+) discriminations. The form of conditioned responding and the patterns of transfer observed suggested that the serial ambiguous target discrimination was solved by occasion setting. The data are discussed in terms of the use of retrospective coding strategies when solving Pavlovian serial conditional discriminations, and the acquisition of special properties by both feature and target stimuli. (C) 2008 Published by Elsevier B.V.
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Background: Condition-dependence is a ubiquitous feature of animal life histories and has important implications for both natural and sexual selection. Mate choice, for instance, is typically based on condition-dependent signals. Theory predicts that one reason why condition-dependent signals may be special is that they allow females to scan for genes that confer high parasite resistance. Such explanations require a genetic link between immunocompetence and body condition, but existing evidence is limited to phenotypic associations. It remains unknown, therefore, whether females selecting males with good body condition simply obtain a healthy mate, or if they acquire genes for their offspring that confer high immunocompetence. Results: Here we use a cross-foster experimental design to partition the phenotypic covariance in indices of body condition and immunocompetence into genetic, maternal and environmental effects in a passerine bird, the zebra finch Taeniopygia guttata. We show that there is significant positive additive genetic covariance between an index of body condition and an index of cell-mediated immune response. In this case, genetic variance in the index of immune response explained 56% of the additive genetic variance in the index of body condition. Conclusion: Our results suggest that, in the context of sexual selection, females that assess males on the basis of condition-dependent signals may gain genes that confer high immunocompetence for their offspring. More generally, a genetic correlation between indices of body condition and imuunocompetence supports the hypothesis that parasite resistance may be an important target of natural selection. Additional work is now required to test whether genetic covariance exists among other aspects of both condition and immunocompetence.
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Background and objectives: Levels of parathyroid hormone (PTH) and the phosphaturic hormone FGF23, a fibroblast growth factor (FGF) family member, increase early in chronic kidney disease (CKD) before the occurrence of hyperphosphatemia. This short-term 6-wk dose titration study evaluated the effect of two phosphate binders on PTH and FGF23 levels in patients with CKD stages 3 to 4. Design, setting, participants, and measurements: Patients were randomized to receive over a 6-wk period either calcium acetate (n = 19) or sevelamer hydrochloride (n = 21). Results: At baseline, patients presented with elevated fractional excretion of phosphate, serum PTH, and FGF23. During treatment with both phosphate binders there was a progressive decline in serum PTH and urinary phosphate, but no change in serum calcium or serum phosphate. Significant changes were observed for FGF23 only in sevelamer-treated patients. Conclusions: This study confirms the positive effects of early prescription of phosphate binders on PTH control. Prospective and long-term studies are necessary to confirm the effects of sevelamer on serum FGF23 and the benefits of this decrease on outcomes. Clin J Am Soc Nephrol 5: 286-291, 2010. doi: 10.2215/CJN.05420709
The selection of intended actions and the observation of others' actions: A time-resolved fMRI study
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Whenever we plan, imagine, or observe an action, the motor systems that would be involved in preparing and executing that action are similarly engaged. The way in which such common motor activation is formed, however, is likely to differ depending on whether it arises from our own intentional selection of action or from the observation of another's action. In this study, we use time-resolved event-related functional MRI to tease apart neural processes specifically related to the processing of observed actions, the selection of our own intended actions, the preparation for movement, and motor response execution. Participants observed a finger gesture movement or a cue indicating they should select their own finger gesture to perform, followed by a 5-s delay period; participants then performed the observed or self-selected action. During the preparation and readiness for action, prior to initiation, we found activation in a common network of higher motor areas, including dorsal and ventral premotor areas and the pre-supplementary motor area (pre-SMA); the more caudal SMA showed greater activation during movement execution. Importantly, the route to this common motor activation differed depending on whether participants freely selected the actions to perform or whether they observed the actions performed by another person. Observation of action specifically involved activation of inferior and superior parietal regions, reflecting involvement of the dorsal visual pathway in visuomotor processing required for planning the action. In contrast, the selection of action specifically involved the dorsal lateral prefrontal and anterior cingulate cortex, reflecting the role of these prefrontal areas in attentional selection and guiding the selection of responses. (c) 2005 Elsevier Inc. All rights reserved.
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Purpose Dasatinib is a BCR-ABL inhibitor, 325-fold more potent than imatinib against unmutated BCR-ABL in vitro. Phase II studies have demonstrated efficacy and safety with dasatinib 70 mg twice daily in chronic-phase (CP) chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) after imatinib treatment failure. In phase I, responses occurred with once-daily administration despite only intermittent BCR-ABL inhibition. Once-daily treatment resulted in less toxicity, suggesting that toxicity results from continuous inhibition of unintended targets. Here, a dose-and schedule-optimization study is reported. Patients and Methods In this open-label phase III trial, 670 patients with imatinib-resistant or -intolerant CP-CML were randomly assigned 1: 1: 1: 1 between four dasatinib treatment groups: 100 mg once daily, 50 mg twice daily, 140 mg once daily, or 70 mg twice daily. Results With minimum follow-up of 6 months (median treatment duration, 8 months; range, = 1 to 15 months), marked and comparable hematologic (complete, 86% to 92%) and cytogenetic (major, 54% to 59%; complete, 41% to 45%) response rates were observed across the four groups. Time to and duration of cytogenetic response were similar, as was progression-free survival (8% to 11% of patients experienced disease progression or died). Compared with the approved 70-mg twice-daily regimen, dasatinib 100 mg once daily resulted in significantly lower rates of pleural effusion (all grades, 7% v 16%; P = .024) and grade 3 to 4 thrombocytopenia (22% v 37%; P = .004), and fewer patients required dose interruption (51% v 68%), reduction (30% v 55%), or discontinuation (16% v 23%). Conclusion Dasatinib 100 mg once daily retains the efficacy of 70 mg twice daily with less toxicity. Intermittent target inhibition with tyrosine kinase inhibitors may preserve efficacy and reduce adverse events.
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Two humanized monoclonal antibody constructs bearing the same variable regions of an anti-CD3 monoclonal antibody, whole IgG and FvFc, were expressed in CHO cells. Random and site-specific integration were used resulting in similar expression levels. The transfectants were selected with appropriate selection agent, and the surviving cells were plated in semi-solid medium for capture with FITC-conjugated anti-human IG antibody and picked with the robotic ClonePix FL. Conditioned media from selected clones were purified by affinity chromatography and characterized by SDS-PAGE, Western-blot, SEC-HPLC, and isoelectric focusing. Binding to the target present in healthy human mononuclear cells was assessed by flow cytometry, as well as by competition between the two constructs and the original murine monoclonal antibody. The humanized constructs were not able to dislodge the murine antibody while the murine anti-CD3 antibody could dislodge around 20% of the FvFc or IgG humanized versions. Further in vitro and in vivo pre-clinical analyses will be carried out to verify the ability of the humanized versions to demonstrate the immunoregulatory profile required for a humanized anti-CD3 monoclonal antibody.
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Condensation of (-)-norephedrine with excess formaldehyde under mild conditions leads to formation of the 2:1 condensation product N,N'-methylenebis(4-methyl-5-phenyl)oxazolidine compared with the reaction with 1 mol of formaldehyde, which leads to 4-methyl-5-phenyloxazolidine. H-1 and C-13 NMR spectroscopy was used to monitor the stability of this compound and its decomposition products. The 2:1 condensation product is found to be stable in CDC1(3) but breaks down rapidly in CD3OD to yield a 50:50 mixture of 4-methyl-5-phenyloxazolidine and 3-hydroxymethyl-4-methyl-5-phenyloxazolidine. Upon addition of D2O to this equimolar mixture, the latter compound decomposes to norephedrine and formaldehyde, whereas the former compound is stable. (C) 1997 by John Wiley & Sons, Ltd.
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The study investigated the social rules applicable to selection interviews, and the attributions ions made by interviewers in response to rule-breaking behaviours by candidates. Sixty personnel specialists (31 males and 29 females) participated in the main study which examined their perceptions of social rules and attributions about rule breaking in their work experience. They listened to audiotapes of actual selection interviews, and made judgments about hireability communication competence, and specific social rules. Results indicated that interview rules could be categorized into two groups: specific interview presentation skills and general interpersonal competence. While situational attributions were more salient in explaining the breaking of general interpersonal competence rules, internal attributions (ability, effort) were more salient explanations for the breaking of more specific interview rules (with the exception of the preparation rule where lack of effort was the most likely explanation for rule breaking). Candidates previously judged as competent communicators were rated more favourably on both global and specific measures of rule-following competence, as well as on hireability. The theoretical and practical implications of combining social rules and attribution theory in the study of selection interviews are discussed.
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Fifty-four Large White gilts were used to determine the effect of body composition at selection (145 d of age) on the onset of puberty and subsequent reproductive development until 202 d of age. Gilts were assigned to one of three groups based on their backfat depth at selection: 10 to 12 mm (L), 13 to 15 mm (M), and 16 to 18 mm (F). All of the F gilts, 92% of the M gilts, and 67% of the L gilts reached puberty by slaughter at 202 d of age. Data from a subgroup (first 67% to reach puberty in each group; L = Lp, M = Mp, and F = Fp) was also used. The M (Mp) and F (Fp) gilts reached puberty at 172 d (166 d) and 170 d (166 d) of age, respectively, but the L (Lp) gilts at 184.5 d were 12 d (18 d) older than M(P < .05), Mp(P < .001), and F(P < .01), Fp (P < .001) gilts. The Lp (97.68 kg) and Mp (98.33 kg) gilts were lighter (P < .01) than Fp (108.72 kg) gilts at puberty. There were no differences (P < .05) among the L, M, and F gilts in terms of backfat depth or weight at puberty. The L (Lp) gilts had a mean of 1.16 (1.75) estrous cycles, which was lower (P < .01) than for M (Mp) and (P < .01) F (Fp) gilts, with 1.96 (2.29) and 2.25 (2.33) cycles, respectively. L (Lp) gilts had fewer (P < .05) follicles, 13.14 (12.63), than either M (Mp), 19.08 (18.71), or F (Fp), 18.25 (17.42) gilts. The number of corpora lutea was not influenced (P > .05) by grouping at selection, but Fp gilts had fewer (P < .05) corpora lutea than Mp or Fp gilts. Live weight at slaughter was not influenced (P > .10) by grouping at selection or subgrouping at puberty. The L gilts with a mean of 18.05 mm of backfat at slaughter were leaner (P < .05) than the F (21.66 mm) but not (P > .10) the M gilts (19.41 mm). Subgrouping had no effect. Fat deposition and protein deposition were higher (P < .05) in those animals that attained puberty. We conclude that the rate of fat and protein deposition seems to be one of the determinants of puberty attainment.
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Fogo selvagem (FS), the endemic form of pemphigus foliaceus (PF), is characterized by pathogenic anti-desmoglein 1 (DSG1) autoantibodies. To study the etiology of FS, hybridomas that secrete either IgM or IgG (predominantly IgG1 subclass) autoantibodies were generated from the B cells of eight FS patients and one individual 4 years before FS onset, and the H and L chain V genes of anti-DSG1 autoantibodies were analyzed. Multiple lines of evidence suggest that these anti-DSG1 autoantibodies are antigen selected. First, clonally related sets of anti-DSG1 hybridomas characterize the response in individual FS patients. Second, H and L chain V gene use seems to be biased, particularly among IgG hybridomas, and third, most hybridomas are mutants and exhibit a bias in favor of CDR (complementary determining region) amino acid replacement (R) mutations. Strikingly, pre-FS hybridomas also exhibit evidence of antigen selection, including an overlap in V(H) gene use and shared multiple R mutations with anti-DSG1 FS hybridomas, suggesting selection by the same or a similar antigen. We conclude that the anti-DSG1 response in FS is antigen driven and that selection for mutant anti-DSG1 B cells begins well before the onset of disease.
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AIM The cognitive deficits present in the Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) are not yet well characterized. Attention, considered to be the brain mechanism responsible for the selection of sensory stimuli, could be disturbed in DMD, contributing, at least partially, to the observed global cognitive deficit. The aim of this study was to investigate attentional function in individuals with DMD. METHOD Twenty-five males (mean age 12y; SD 2y 2mo) with DMD and 25 healthy males (mean age 12y; SD 2y) were tested in a visuospatial task (Posner computerized test). They were instructed to respond as quickly as possible to a lateralized visual target stimulus with the ipsilateral hand. Their attention was automatically orientated by a peripheral prime stimulus or, alternatively, voluntarily orientated by a central spatially informative cue. RESULTS The main result obtained was that the attentional effect (sum of the benefit and the cost of attention) did not differ between the two groups in the case of automatic attention (p=0.846) but was much larger for individuals with DMD than for comparison individuals in the case of voluntary attention (p < 0.001). INTERPRETATION The large voluntary attentional effect exhibited by the participants with DMD seems similar to that of younger children, suggesting that the disease is associated with delayed maturation of voluntary attention mechanisms.
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Cancer/testis Antigens (CTAs) are immunogenic proteins with a restricted expression pattern in normal tissues and aberrant expression in different types of tumors being considered promising candidates for immunotherapy. We used the alignment between EST sequences and the human genome sequence to identify novel CT genes. By examining the EST tissue composition of known CT clusters we defined parameters for the selection of 1184 EST clusters corresponding to putative CT genes. The expression pattern of 70 CT gene candidates was evaluated by RT-PCR in 21 normal tissues, 17 tumor cell lines and 160 primary tumors. We were able to identify 4 CT genes expressed in different types of tumors. The presence of antibodies against the protein encoded by 1 of these 4 CT genes (FAM46D) was exclusively detected in plasma samples from cancer patients. Due to its restricted expression pattern and immunogenicity FAM46D represents a novel target for cancer immunotherapy. (c) 2009 Elsevier Inc. All rights reserved.