Hipervolemia mais tríplice oclusão vascular no tratamento da lesão traumática da veia cava retro-hepática e veias hepáticas

BACKGROUND: Liver vascular isolation is essential for the treatment of the retrohepatic vena cava and hepatic veins. Triple vessel occlusion (TVO - occlusion of the portal triad, the inferior vena cava above the renal veins and within the pericardium) is the easiest isolation method for the surgeon. Unfortunately, this technique cannot be applied to hypovolemic and/or shock (cardiac arrest) patients as it compromises venous return. OBJECTIVES: Our objective is to demonstrate that in the above mentioned patients, establishing a previous hypervolemic state allows the safe use of TVO. METHODS: The method includes efficient injury tamponade with aggressive fluid replacement until normal blood volume is reached (resuscitation). Normal blood volume is recognized by a return of arterial blood pressure to normal levels, inferior vena cava filling and an increase in aortic wall tension. Following this procedure, hypervolemia is obtained by the rapid additional infusion of 1.500 to 2.000 ml of fluids. TVO in this situation does not alter the heart rhythm and maintains a clear operative field which is essential for hepatotomy, venorrhaphy and or venous ligation. RESULTS: Three patients were successfully operated.

Comparison of nuclear grade and immunohistochemical features in situ and invasive components of ductal carcinoma of breast

PURPOSE:To compare the prognostic and predictive features between in situ and invasive components of ductal breast carcinomas. METHODS:We selected 146 consecutive breast samples with ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) associated with adjacent invasive breast carcinoma (IBC). We evaluated nuclear grade and immunohistochemical expression of estrogen receptor (ER), progesterone receptor (PR), human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2), cytokeratin 5/6 (CK5/6), and epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) in both components, in situ and invasive, and the Ki-67 percentage of cells in the invasive part. The DCIS and IBC were classified in molecular surrogate types determined by the immunohistochemical profile as luminal (RE/PR-positive/ HER2-negative), triple-positive (RE/RP/HER2-positive), HER2-enriched (ER/PR-negative/HER2-positive), and triple-negative (RE/RP/HER2-negative). Discrimination between luminal A and luminal B was not performed due to statistical purposes. Correlations between the categories in the two groups were made using the Spearman correlation method. RESULTS:There was a significant correlation between nuclear grade (p<0.0001), expression of RE/RP (p<0.0001), overexpression of HER2 (p<0.0001), expression of EGFR (p<0.0001), and molecular profile (p<0.0001) between components in situ and IBC. CK 5/6 showed different distribution in DCIS and IBC, presenting a significant association with the triple-negative phenotype in IBC, but a negative association among DCIS. CONCLUSIONS: Our results suggest that classical prognostic and predictive features of IBC are already determined in the preinvasive stage of the disease. However the role of CK5/6 in invasive carcinoma may be different from the precursor lesions.

A systematic study of the brain base arteries in the turkey (Meleagris gallopavo)

Thirty heads with neck segments of turkeys (Meleagris gallopavo) were dissected for a systematic study of the arteries. The frequency of the arteries found was: Cerebral carotid artery, intercarotid anastomosis and internal ophthalmic artery (100%). Caudal branch of the cerebral carotid artery to the right (R) vestigial artery (70%) and developed (30%) and to the left (L) developed (70%) and vestigial artery (30%). Ventral tectal mesencephalic artery in (70%) to R and (30%) to L was the direct branch of the cerebral carotid artery to L (70%) and to R (30%) collateral branch of the developed caudal branch. Basilar artery to L in (70%) and to R (30%) formed from the developed caudal branch; rostral ventral cerebellar artery present (86.7%) and absent (13.3%) to R and L. Caudal ventral cerebellar artery to R single (73.3%), double (23.3%) and triple (3.3%); caudal ventral cerebellar artery to L single (73.3%) and double (26.7%). Dorsal spinal artery branch of caudal ventral cerebellar artery to R (80%) and to L (73.3%). The rostral branch of cerebral carotid artery showed as collateral branches the single caudal cerebral artery to R (100%) and to L (96.7%) while in (3.3%) it was double. The middle cerebral artery was single to R and L (100%). Cerebroethmoidal artery to R and L (100%) with its collateral branch to single rostral cerebral artery (90%) to R and (86.7%) to L and double (10%) to R and (13.3%) to L. Ethmoidal artery to R and to L (100%) single. The cerebral arterial circle was rostrally and caudally opened, so that the cerebral blood supply was exclusively made by the carotid system.

A systematic study of the brain base arteries in the rabbit (Oryctolagus cuniculus)

The brains of 30 New Zealand rabbits (Oryctolagus cuniculus) were injected with red stained latex. The arteries of the ventral surface of the brain were systematized on the right (R) and on the left (L) side with the respective percentage of appearance: the aortic arch emitted the braquicephalic trunk and the left subclavian artery (83.3%); or the braquicephalic trunk, the left common carotid artery and the left subclavian artery (16.7%). The braquicephalic trunk emitted the right and the left common carotid arteries and the right subclavian artery (83.3%); or the right common carotid artery and the right subclavian artery (16.7%). The common carotid arteries were divided into external and internal carotid arteries (96.7% on the R, 100% on the L.). The internal carotid artery to the R was present (96.7%) and absent (3.3%), and to the L, was present (100%). The rostral choroidal artery to the R was collateral branch of the rostral branch of the internal carotid artery (83.3%), collateral branch of caudal branch of the internal carotid artery (16.7%), and to the L was collateral branch of the rostral branch of the internal carotid artery (93.3%), collateral branch of the caudal branch of the internal carotid artery (6.7%). The middle cerebral artery to the R and to the L was single (80%) and double (20%). The rostral cerebral artery to the R had middle caliber (90%), thin caliber (6.7%) and too thin caliber (3.3%), and to the L had middle caliber (76.7%), thin caliber (16.7%) and too thin caliber (6.7%). The internal ethmoidal artery was absent (73.3%), present and single (26.7%). The caudal cerebral artery to the R was single (66.7%), double (26.7%) and triple (6.7%), and to the L was single (63.3%) and double (36.7%). The terminal branches of the right and left vertebral arteries were present (100%, and formed the basilar artery (100%). The ventral spinal artery was present (100%). The caudal cerebellar artery, to the R was single (43.3%), single with labyrinthic artery isolated (26.7%) and double (30%), and to the L was single (50%), single with labyrinthic artery isolated (6.7%), double (40%) and triple (3.3%). The trigeminal artery to the R and to the L was present (100%). The rostral cerebellar artery to the R was single (53.3%) and double (46,7%), and to the L was single (63.3%) and double (36.7%). The rabbit's cerebral arterial circle was caudally closed (100%) and rostrally closed (93.3%) or opened (6.7%). The brain was supplied by the vertebral-basilar and carotid systems.

Selectivity of chemical weed control systems in conventional cotton

Cotton is highly susceptible to the interference imposed by weed community, being therefore essential to adopt control measures ensuring the crop yield. Herbicides are the primary method of weed control in large-scale areas of production, and usually more than one herbicide application is necessary due to the extensive crop cycle. This study aimed to evaluate the selectivity of different chemical weed control systems for conventional cotton. The experiment took place in the field in a randomized block design, with twenty nine treatments and four replications in a split plot layout (adjacent double check). Results showed that triple mixtures in pre-emergence increased the chance of observing reductions in the cotton yield. To avoid reductions in crop yield, users should proceed to a maximum mixture of two herbicides in pre-emergence, followed by S-metolachlor over the top, followed by one post-emergence mixture application of pyrithiobac-sodium + trifloxysulfuron-sodium.

Sunflower response to repeated foliar applications of Paclobutrazol

Paclobutrazol (PBZ), a well-known growth retardant of the triazole family, is mostly used for controlling plant size and growth, resulting in more desirable compact plants for floricultural purposes; however, limited experimental data are available for use of PBZ in field sunflower. The objective of this study was to evaluate the effect of repeated foliar applications of PBZ at rates of 50 + 50 g ha-1(double application) and 50 + 50 + 50 g ha-1 (triple application) on sunflower morphology and productivity. PBZ applications corresponded to growth stages of four to five, five to six, and six to eight true leaves of sunflower plants, respectively. The double foliar application of PBZ reduced sunflower plant height at maturity by 4.4% (or by 11.7 cm). The triple foliar application of PBZ reduced sunflower plant height at maturity by 14.4% (or by 49.2 cm). However, PBZ either in the double or the triple application reduced achene yield per plant by 25.6% and 22.5% and the 100-achene weight by 11.4% and 25.0%, respectively, compared with the non-treated control. Overall, the repeated foliar applications of PBZ at the rates tested in this study, apart from providing a reduction of sunflower plant height, had major adverse effects on achene yield and weight. Thus, different application schemes of PBZ or perhaps different growth regulators should be investigated to control plant height in sunflower.

VINASSE EFFECT ON HERBICIDES CLOMAZONE AND TEBUTHIURON AVAILABILITY IN DIFFERENT KINDS OF SOILS

ABSTRACT The objective of this study was to evaluate the availability of herbicides clomazone and tebuthiuron in the solution in different kinds of soils saturated with water or vinasse. Samples of 30 soils with different characteristics were arranged on trays to the herbicides spraying. Then they were homogenized, placed in plastic cartridges and saturated with deionized water or vinasse, and remaining at rest during 18 hours. Two extractions were made, the first one quantified the presence of the herbicides in the soil solution and in the second one the total extraction of herbicide remaining in the soil was taken to determine the recovery percentage of each herbicide tested. For quantification, a LC-MS/MS system was used, a compound of a high performance liquid chromatograph (HPLC) coupled to a triple quadruple mass spectrometer. Tebuthiuron was more available in the soil with the vinasse addition when compared to water. Vinasse applications resulted in no significant difference in availability of clomazone between treatments. Tebuthiuron showed the highest availability frequencies, and on average of all samples 32.49% were extracted from total herbicide applied, while for clomazone this value was 16.50%.

MULTIPLE RESISTANCE OF Sagittaria montevidensis BIOTYPES TO ACETOLACTATE SYNTHASE AND PHOTOSYSTEM II INHIBITING HERBICIDES

ABSTRACT The objective of this research was to evaluate the occurance of multiple resistance of Sagittaria montevidensis (SAGMO) biotypes to acetolactate synthase (ALS) and photosystem II (PSII) inhibiting herbicides through dose-response experiments. The experiment was conducted in a greenhouse from October 2012 to March 2013, in Pelotas, RS. The experimental design was completely randomized, with four replications. Treatments were arranged in a triple factorial design: two biotypes of S. montevidensis(SAGMO 35 - susceptible to herbicides and SAGMO 32 - suspected to be multiple resistance to ALS and PSII inhibiting herbicides), four herbicides (penoxsulam, (imazethapyr+imazapic), bentazon and saflufenacil) and 8 rates of these herbicides (1/32x, 1/16x, 1/8x, 1/4x, 1/2x, 0x, 1x, 2x, 4x, 8x, 16x, 32x and 64x). SAGMO 32 biotype presented high levels of resistance to penoxsulam, (imazethapyr+imazapic) and bentazon. For a 50% reduction in dry matter of the resistant biotype rate of 138 and 2.46 times higher than the label required for the susceptible biotype of the herbicides (imazethapyr+imazapic) and bentazon, respectively, are required. Saflufenacil may be used successfully to controlSagittaria montevidensis resistant in irrigated rice.

Ca2+ dependence of gluconeogenesis stimulation by glucagon at different cytosolic NAD+-NADH redox potentials

The influence of Ca2+ on hepatic gluconeogenesis was measured in the isolated perfused rat liver at different cytosolic NAD+-NADH potentials. Lactate and pyruvate were the gluconeogenic substrates and the cytosolic NAD+-NADH potentials were changed by varying the lactate to pyruvate ratios from 0.01 to 100. The following results were obtained: a) gluconeogenesis from lactate plus pyruvate was not affected by Ca2+-free perfusion (no Ca2+ in the perfusion fluid combined with previous depletion of the intracellular pools); gluconeogenesis was also poorly dependent on the lactate to pyruvate ratios in the range of 0.1 to 100; only for a ratio equal to 0.01 was a significantly smaller gluconeogenic activity observed in comparison to the other ratios. b) In the presence of Ca2+, the increase in oxygen uptake caused by the infusion of lactate plus pyruvate at a ratio equal to 10 was the most pronounced one; in Ca2+-free perfusion the increase in oxygen uptake caused by lactate plus pyruvate infusion tended to be higher for all lactate to pyruvate ratios; the most pronounced difference was observed for a lactate/pyruvate ratio equal to 1. c) In the presence of Ca2+ the effects of glucagon on gluconeogenesis showed a positive correlation with the lactate to pyruvate ratios; for a ratio equal to 0.01 no stimulation occurred, but in the 0.1 to 100 range stimulation increased progressively, producing a clear parabolic dependence between the effects of glucagon and the lactate to pyruvate ratio. d) In the absence of Ca2+ the relationship between the changes caused by glucagon in gluconeogenesis and the lactate to pyruvate ratio was substantially changed; the dependence curve was no longer parabolic but sigmoidal in shape with a plateau beginning at a lactate/pyruvate ratio equal to 1; there was inhibition at the lactate to pyruvate ratios of 0.01 and 0.1 and a constant stimulation starting with a ratio equal to 1; for the lactate to pyruvate ratios of 10 and 100, stimulation caused by glucagon was much smaller than that found when Ca2+ was present. e) The effects of glucagon on oxygen uptake in the presence of Ca2+ showed a parabolic relationship with the lactate to pyruvate ratios which was closely similar to that found in the case of gluconeogenesis; the only difference was that inhibition rather than stimulation of oxygen uptake was observed for a lactate to pyruvate ratio equal to 0.01; progressive stimulation was observed in the 0.1 to 100 range. f) In the absence of Ca2+ the effects of glucagon on oxygen uptake were different; the dependence curve was sigmoidal at the onset, with a well-defined maximum at a lactate to pyruvate ratio equal to 1; this maximum was followed by a steady decline at higher ratios; at the ratios of 0.01 and 0.1 inhibition took place; oxygen uptake stimulation caused by glucagon was generally lower in the absence of Ca2+ except when the lactate to pyruvate ratio was equal to 1. The results of the present study demonstrate that stimulation of gluconeogenesis by glucagon depends on Ca2+. However, Ca2+ is only effective in helping gluconeogenesis stimulation by glucagon at highly negative redox potentials of the cytosolic NAD+-NADH system. The triple interdependence of glucagon-Ca2+-NAD+-NADH redox potential reveals highly complex interrelations that can only be partially understood at the present stage of knowledge

The effect of CagA status on response to Helicobacter pylori eradication therapy in Western Turkey

If cytotoxin-associated gene A (CagA) status affects the response rates of therapy, then it may be possible to predict Helicobacter pylori eradication rates. We aimed to evaluate the response to eradication treatment of H. pylori infection in CagA-positive and CagA-negative patients. A total of 184 patients (93 males, 91 females, mean age 42.6 ± 12.8 years) with H. pylori-positive chronic gastritis were studied. Subjects underwent a gastroscopy and biopsy specimens were taken from the gastric antrum, body, and fundus. Before the eradication therapy was given all patients were tested for CagA, TNF-alpha and gastrin levels. They were then prescribed lansoprazole (30 mg bid), clarithromycin (500 mg bid), and amoxicillin (1.0 mg bid) for one week. On the 8th week a second endoscopy was performed and further biopsy specimens were obtained from the same sites as in the initial endoscopy. One hundred and twenty-seven patients (69.1%) were found to be CagA positive and 57 patients (30.9%) were CagA negative. The total eradication rate was 82.6%. In the CagA-positive group this rate was 87.4%, and in the CagA-negative group it was 71.9% (P = 0.019). TNF-alpha levels were higher in the CagA-positive than in the CagA-negative group (P = 0.001). However, gastrin levels were not different between groups (P = 0.421). Our findings revealed that CagA-negative status might be a risk factor for failure of H. pylori triple therapies. The CagA pathogenicity island gives a growth advantage to H. pylori strains and has been associated with an increase in the inflammatory response at the gastric mucosal level. These properties could make CagA-positive H. pylori strains more susceptible to antibiotics.

Lymphocyte subpopulations during cytomegalovirus disease in renal transplant recipients

We have determined the number of circulating T, B and natural killer cells in renal transplant recipients in order to detect changes during cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections. Serial blood samples were taken from 61 patients on standard triple immunosuppression therapy (cyclosporin A, azathioprine and prednisone). Using two-color flow cytometry analysis, the absolute number of CD3+, CD4+, CD8+, CD19+, CD3+HLA-DR+ and CD16+56+ cells was determined. Forty-eight patients (78.7%) developed active CMV infection, and all of them subsequently recovered. Twenty of the infected patients (32.8%) presented symptoms compatible with CMV disease during the infectious process. The number of lymphocytes and their main subpopulations were normal before the onset of CMV disease. During the disease there was a decrease followed by a significant increase (P<0.005) in the number of CD3+, CD4+, CD8+ and CD3+HLA-DR+ cells. No significant changes were observed in natural killer cells or B lymphocytes during the disease. We conclude, as observed in all viremic patients recovering from infection, that recovery is associated with an increase in the number of T cell subsets. The monitoring of different lymphocyte subsets along with antigenemia can be extremely useful in the detection of patients at high risk of developing CMV symptoms, allowing the early introduction of antiviral therapy or the reduction of immunosuppression therapy.

High incidence of adverse reactions to initial antiretroviral therapy in Brazil

A concurrent prospective study was conducted from 2001 to 2003 to assess factors associated with adverse reactions among individuals initiating antiretroviral therapy at two public referral HIV/AIDS centers in Belo Horizonte, MG, Brazil. Adverse reactions were obtained from medical charts reviewed up to 12 months after the first antiretroviral prescription. Cox proportional hazard model was used to perform univariate and multivariate analyses. Relative hazards (RH) were estimated with 95% confidence intervals (CI). Among 397 charts reviewed, 377 (95.0%) had precise information on adverse reactions and initial antiretroviral treatment. Most patients received triple combination regimens including nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors and protease inhibitors. At least one adverse reaction was recorded on 34.5% (N = 130) of the medical charts (0.17 adverse reactions/100 person-day), while nausea (14.5%) and vomiting (13.1%) were the most common ones. Variables independently associated with adverse reactions were: regimens with nevirapine (RH = 1.78; 95% CI = 1.07-2.96), indinavir or indinavir/ritonavir combinations (RH = 2.05; 95% CI = 1.15-3.64), female patients (RH = 1.93; 95% CI = 1.31-2.83), 5 or more outpatient visits (RH = 1.94; 95% CI = 1.25-3.01), non-adherence to antiretroviral therapy (RH = 2.38; 95% CI = 1.62-3.51), and a CD4+ count of 200 to 500 cells/mm³ (RH = 2.66; 95% CI = 1.19-5.90). An independent and negative association was also found for alcohol use (RH = 0.55; 95% CI = 0.33-0.90). Adverse reactions were substantial among participants initiating antiretroviral therapy. Specially elaborated protocols in HIV/AIDS referral centers may improve the diagnosis, management and prevention of adverse reactions, thus contributing to improving adherence to antiretroviral therapy among HIV-infected patients.

Elevated amniotic fluid amino acid levels in fetuses with gastroschisis

Our objective was to measure maternal plasma and amniotic fluid amino acid concentrations in pregnant women diagnosed as having fetuses with gastroschisis in the second trimester of pregnancy. Twenty-one pregnant women who had fetuses with gastroschisis detected by ultrasonography (gastroschisis group) in the second trimester and 32 women who had abnormal triple screenings indicating an increased risk for Down syndrome but had healthy fetuses (control group) were enrolled in the study. Amniotic fluid was obtained by amniocentesis, and maternal plasma samples were taken simultaneously. The chromosomal analysis of the study and control groups was normal. Levels of free amino acids and non-essential amino acids were measured in plasma and amniotic fluid samples using EZ:fast kits (EZ:fast GC/FID free (physiological) amino acid kit) by gas chromatography (Focus GC AI 3000 Thermo Finnigan analyzer). The mean levels of essential amino acids (histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, and valine) and non-essential amino acids (alanine, glycine, proline, and tyrosine) in amniotic fluid were found to be significantly higher in fetuses with gastroschisis than in the control group (P < 0.05). A significant positive correlation between maternal plasma and amniotic fluid concentrations of essential and nonessential amino acids was found only in the gastroschisis group (P < 0.05). The detection of significantly higher amino acid concentrations in the amniotic fluid of fetuses with a gastroschisis defect than in healthy fetuses suggests the occurrence of amino acid malabsorption or of amino acid leakage from the fetus into amniotic fluid.

Duodenal gastric metaplasia and Helicobacter pylori infection in patients with diffuse nodular duodenitis

Whether the regression of gastric metaplasia in the duodenum can be achieved after eradication of Helicobacter pylori is not clear. The aim of the present study was to investigate the relationship between H. pylori infection and gastric metaplasia in patients with endoscopic diffuse nodular duodenitis. Eighty-six patients with endoscopically confirmed nodular duodenitis and 40 control patients with normal duodenal appearance were investigated. The H. pylori-positive patients with duodenitis received anti-H. pylori triple therapy (20 mg omeprazole plus 250 mg clarithromycin and 400 mg metronidazole, all twice daily) for one week. A control endoscopy was performed 6 months after H. pylori treatment. The H. pylori-negative patients with duodenitis received 20 mg omeprazole once daily for 6 months and a control endoscopy was performed 2 weeks after treatment. The prevalence of H. pylori infection was 58.1%, and the prevalence of gastric metaplasia was 57.0%. Seventy-six patients underwent endoscopy again. No influence on the endoscopic appearance of nodular duodenitis was found after eradication of H. pylori or acid suppression therapy. However, gastric metaplasia significantly decreased and complete regression was achieved in 15/28 patients (53.6%) 6 months after eradication of H. pylori, accompanied by significant improvement of other histological alterations. Only mild chronic inflammation, but not gastric metaplasia, was found in the control group, none with H. pylori infection in the duodenal bulb. Therefore, H. pylori infection is related to the extent of gastric metaplasia in the duodenum, but not to the presence of diffuse nodular duodenitis.

Antiretroviral agents and acid-base balance at delivery of the neonate

Limited evidence is available regarding antiretroviral (ARV) safety for uninfected infants exposed to these drugs in utero. Our objective was to determine if ARV administered to pregnant women is associated with decreasing umbilical arterial pH and base excess in uninfected infants. A prospective study was conducted on 57 neonates divided into three groups: ZDV group, born to mothers taking zidovudine (N = 20), triple therapy (TT) group, born to mothers taking zidovudine + lamivudine + nelfinavir (N = 25), and control group (N = 12), born to uninfected mothers. Umbilical cord blood was used to determine umbilical artery gases. A test was performed to calculate the sample by comparing means by the unpaired one-tailed t-test, with a = 0.05 and ß = 20%, indicating the need for a sample of 18 newborn infants for the study groups to detect differences higher than 20%. The control and ARV groups were similar in gestational age, birth weight, and Apgar scores. Values of pH, pCO2, bicarbonate, and base excess in cord arterial blood obtained at delivery from the newborns exposed to TT were 7.23, 43.2 mmHg, 19.5 mEq/L, and -8.5 nmol/L, respectively, with no significant difference compared to the control and ZDV groups. We conclude that intrauterine exposure to ARV is not associated with a pathological decrease in umbilical arterial pH or base excess. While our data are reassuring, follow-up is still limited and needs to be continued into adulthood because of the possible potential for adverse effects of triple antiretroviral agents.