64 resultados para Univalent Functions with Negative Coefficients


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PURPOSE: Upright tilt-table testing (UTT) is an useful method for identifying patients with neurocardiogenic syncope, but its role in the evaluation of therapeutic efficacy is controversial. The aim of this study was to determine the correlation between negative UTT after therapy introduction (acute efficacy) and symptom recurrence during follow-up (chronic efficacy). METHODS: We studied 56 severely symptomatic patients (age 27±19 years) with recurrent (7±12 episodes) neurocardiogenic syncope (positive UTT). Once empirical pharmacological therapy was initiated, all patients underwent another UTT (therapeutic evaluation test - TET). Therapy was not modified after TET results. The probability of symptom recurrence was analyzed with the Kaplan-Meier method and compared by log-rank test in patients with negative and positive TET. RESULTS: Negative UTT after therapy was related to a significantly lower probability of recurrence during follow-up (4.9 versus 52.4% in 12 months, P<0.0001). CONCLUSION: A good correlation exists between acute and long-term efficacy of pharmacological therapy for neurocardiogenic syncope, so that serial UTT may be considered a good method for identifying an effective therapeutic strategy.

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The author has studied the influence of acetylcholine solutions directly applied on the motor cortex of dogs, cats monkeys and rabbits. For this purpose small squares of filter paper were soaked in the acetylcholine solution and soon afterwards laid on the motor cortex. Solutions varying from 0,2 to 10 per cent have been experimented. It has been shown that local application of the solutions on the motor points, previously localized by induction coil, produced motor reactions. It has been found, in the dogs that 10 per cent acetylcholine solutions cause localized muscular twitchings (clonus) in almost all the animals experimented. Generalised epileptiform convulsions were obtained in44,4% of the dogs. Convulsions were also obtained by employing 1 per cent solution of acetylcholine. Definite response has been obtained with 0,2 per cent solution. Failure of motor action, pointed out by other authors, has been related to the use of anesthetics. Convulsions were easily produced by rapid light mechanical stimulations of the skin covering the muscles in conection with the excited motor point, and the application on the motor point of acetylcholine. The results on monkeys can be summarized as follows. Two species of monkeys were experimented: Cebus capucinus and Macaca mulata. In the monkeys C. capucinus generalised convulsive reactions were induced with actylcholine solutions in a concentration as low as 0,5 per cent. Motor reaction or convulsive seizeres were obtained in seven of the eight monkeys used. Three monkeys M. mulata were stimulated with 10 per cent acetylcholine solution but only localized muscular contraction hae been observed. Similar results has been obtained on the motor cortex of cats and rabbits. One of the three cats employed has shown epileptiform convulsions and the remaining only localized muscular contractions. In the rabbits muscular twitchings have been also induced. The sensitizing power of eserine on the action of acetylcholine has been also searched. The results indicate that a previous application of eserine solution on the motor center, potentiates the action of acetylcholine. The intensity of the muscular twitchings is greater than the obtained before the application of the eserine solution. Generalised epileptiform convulsions sometimes appeared following the use of lower concentrations of acetylcholine than those previously employed. Experiments have been carried out by injecting eserine and prostigmine by parenteral route. A dosis dufficient for induce small muscular tremors did not enhance obviously the motor effects produced by the application of the acetylcholine solutions on the motor cortex. From seven dogs experimented, all previously tested for convulsive seiruzes by application of 1 and 10 per cent acetylcholine solution with negative results, only one has shown epileptiform convulsions after the injection of prostigmine. Morphine has also been tested as facilitating substance for convulsions induced by acetylcholine. Six from the nine dogs submitted to the experiments, developed epileptiform seizures after injection of morphine and stimulation of the motor cortex with acetylcholine. (Table IV). In another series of experiments atropine and nicotine have been studied as for to their action on the motor effects of acetylcholine. Nicotine has a strong convulsant action, even when employed in very high concentration. Since a depressant effect has not appeared even by the applications of high concentrations of nicotine in the motor corteõ of dogs, unlike the classical observations for the autonomus nervous system, it was not possible to verify the action of acetylcholine on a motor center paralised by nicotine. It is important to not that the motor phenomena observed after the first aplication of acetylcholine, can desappear by the renewal of the pieces of filter paper soaked in the acetylcholine solution. Atropine, either applied on the motor point in low concentration, or injected in sufficient amount for inhibiting the “muscarinic effects” of acetylcholine on the autonomous nervous system, did not prevent the motor reactions of acetylcholine on the cerebral cortex.

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Six patients of terciary yaws, were treated with Penicillin in small dosis at Evandro Chagas Hospital of the Oswaldo Cruz Institute. The lesions presented by the patients were: gummatous ulcerations, periostitis, osteitis, osteoporosis and gangoza (rhinopharyngitis mutilans). In all cases, clinic recovery were obtained, the time of treatment varying from 2 to 8 months. The total amount of oxford units 'per" subject varied from 48.000 to 586.800 Patients with bone lesions, ever after the treatment, has not showed complete recomposition of the bone structure, ever so aparently healing and with negative sorologics tests. Identical results has been observed in patient showing the same lesions and treated with neo-arsphenamine. The patients are still under observations at the Hospital.

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The WHO criterion of defering any donation of blood by a confirmed case of malaria for three years after cessation of therapy can not be applied in areas where malaria in endemic. For this reason we developed an immunoenzymatic assay for the detection of plasmodial antigens for blood screening in malararial endemic areas. So, we tested sera from 191 individuals. Among patients with active disease 100% of the cases of Plasmodium falciparum or mixed infections and 91.7% of those with P. vivax were positive for the presence of plasmodial antigens. The lower parasitaemia detected was 0.0003% for P. vivax malária. When the frequency of positive circulating malarial antigens was evaluated among asymptomatic and symptomatic individuals with negative TBS, positive results were found in respectively 38.7% and 17.7% of the individuals studied in the 30 days after confirmed malaria attack. Data provide by these assays have shown that ELISA seemed to be more sensitive than parasitological examination for malaria diagnosis. This test by virtue of its high sensivity and the facilities in processing a large number of specimens, can prove to be useful in endemic areas for the recognition of asymptomatic malaria and screening of blood donors.

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This paper discusses current evidence for the relationship between polyclonal lymphocyte activation, specific immunossupression with decreased resistance, and autoimmune pathology, that are all often found associated with infections by a variety of virus, bacteria and parasites . The central question of class determination of immune effector activities is considered in the context of the cellular targets for nonspecific mitogenic activities associated with infection. A model is presented to integrate these findings: mitogenens produced by the microorganism or the infected cells are preferentially active on CD5 B cells, the resulting over-production of IL-10 will tend to bias all immune activities in to a Th-2mode of effector functions, with high titers of polyclonal antibodies and litle or no production of gamma IFN and other "inflamatory"lymphokines that often mediate resistance. In turn these conditions allow for parasite persistence and the corresponding long-term disregulation of self-directed immune reactivities, resulting in autoimmunity in the chronic phase. This model would predict that selective immunization with the mitogenic principles involved in desregulation, could stand better chances than strategies of vaccination based on immunopotentiation against othere, functionally neutral antigenic epitopes. It is argued, however, that the complexity of immune responses and their regulation together with our ignorance on the genetic controls of class-determination, offer poor prospects for a scientifically-based, rational development of vaccines in the near future. It is suggested that empirically-based and technologically developed vaccines might suceed, while basic scientific approaches are reinforced and given the time provide a better understanding of those process.

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The present paper reviews our recent data concerning the use of immunological methods employing monoclonal antibodies and synthetic peptides to study malaria transmission and immunity and to diagnose plasmodial infection. As concerns malaria transmission, we studied the main vectors of human malaria and the plasmodial species transmitted in endemic areas of Rondônia state, Brazil. The natural infection on anopheline was evaluated by immunoradiometric assay (IRMA) using monoclonal antibodies to an immunodominant sporozoite surface antigen (CS protein) demonstrated to be species specific. Our results showed that among six species of Anopheles found infected, An. darlingi was the main vector transmitting Plasmodium falciparum and P. vivax malaria in the immediate vicinity of houses. In order to assess the level of anti-CS antibodies we studied, by IRMA using the synthetic peptide corresponding to the repetitive epitope of the sporozoite CS protein, sera of individuals living in the same areas where the entomological survey has been performed. In this assay the prevalence of anti-CS antibodies was very low and did not reflect the malaria transmission rate in the studied areas. In relation to malaria diagnosis, a monoclonal antibody specific to an epitope of a 50 kDa exoantigen, the major component of supernatant collected at the time of schizont rupture, was used as a probe for the detection of P. falciparum antigens. This assay seemed to be more sensitive than parasitological examination for malaria diagnosis since it was able to detect plasmodial antigens in both symptomatic and asymtomatic individuals with negative thick blood smear at different intervals after a last parasitologically confirmed confirmed attack of malaria.

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The levels of IgE and IgG4 increased strongly between cohorts, indicating a dynamic immunological situation, but no immediate impact on infection levels. Morbidity was little specific abdominal discomfort was reported by 61%, diarrhoea by 33% of the subjects; mild hepatomegaly was found in 16%, splenomegaly in 0.5%. No relation to egg counts was observed for any symptom. This mild morbidity may be due to the recent nature of the focus. In the first cohort, the percentage of people with negative egg counts ten weeks after treatment was only 18%, though egg counts declined strongly. Antigen detection confirmed these results. Praziquantel treatment provoked transient but impressive side effects (colics, vomiting, urticaria, aedema), the occurrence of which correlated with intensity of infection. Cure rates in subsequent cohorts were followed up shorter after treatment but remained low. Reinfection nevertheless oppears limited. This lower drug efficacy may be due to very rapid reinfection and/or to the lack of immunity in the population, but also reduced susceptibility of the local parasite strain must be considered and studied.

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Immunoglobulin (Ig) isotype (IgG, IgG1, IgG2, IgG3, IgG4, IgM, IgD and IgE) levels were investigated, both pre- and post-treatment with praziquantel (PZQ), in 43 adults and children chronically infected with Schistosoma mansoni , by means of a two-site, isotype-specific immunoenzymometric assay. The patients were classified as responders (R) or non-responders (NR) on the basis of their circumoval precipitin test (COPT) results 12 months after treatment. In comparison with controls, pre-treatment R children showed significantly higher levels of IgG, IgG1, IgG4 (p<0.001) and IgE (p<0.01), and diminished IgG2 (p<0.05), while NR children showed significantly elevated levels only of IgE (p<0.05). Twelve months after therapy, R children maintained significantly lower levels of IgG2, but showed significantly decreased levels of IgG, IgG1, IgG4, and IgE, while the Ig isotype profile of NR children was unaltered. Adult R and NR showed similar isotype profiles before chemotherapy, with the exception of significantly elevated IgM levels in R. Twelve months after therapy, R adults showed significantly decreased levels of IgG, IgG1, and IgG4, while NR adults showed only diminshed IgG4 levels. These results reveal different Ig isotype profiles in untreated adults and children chronically infected with S. mansoni. The results further show that the pre-treatment Ig isotype profile may be significantly modified after an effective R to chemotherapy, accounted for by down regulation of the IgG1 isotype in association with negative seroconversion of the COPT in R patients. The COPT reaction has been associated with the highly specific egg glycoprotein antigen w1, which shows a significant reduction in reactivity six months after treatment. IgG1 may thus play a main role in the response against the w1 antigen.

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A field study of the immune response to the shed acute phase antigen (SAPA) of Trypanosoma cruzi was carried out in the locality of Mizque, Cochabamba department, Bolivia. Schoolchildren (266), with an average of 8.6 ± 3.6 years, were surveyed for parasitological and serological diagnosis, as well as antibodies directed against SAPA using the corresponding recombinant protein in ELISA. The antibodies against SAPA were shown in 82% of patients presenting positive serological diagnosis (IgG specific antibodies). The positive and negative predictive values were 0.88. Antibodies anti-SAPA were shown in 80.8% of the chagasic patients in the initial stage of the infection (positive IgM serology and/or positive buffy coat (BC) test) and in 81.4% of the patients in the indeterminate stage of the infection (positive IgG serology with negative BC and IgM tests). These results show that the anti-SAPA response is not only present during the initial stage of the infection (few months) but extends some years after infection

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Alternative, non-microscopic methods for the diagnosis of malaria have recently become available. Among these, rapid dipstick methods stand out. One such test, OptiMAL®, is based on the immunochromatographic detection of Plasmodium lactate dehydrogenase (pLDH) and has the capacity to detect and distinguish infections caused by P. falciparum and Plasmodium sp. This capacity is particularly important in countries where different species of Plasmodium co-exist. In this study we evaluated the performance of OptiMAL® in an urban referral center for malaria diagnosis. Two sets of patients were included: one (n = 112) having predetermined infections with P. falciparum or P. vivax and individuals with negative blood smears; and another consisting of all eligible consecutive patients (n = 80) consulting for diagnosis at the referral center during one month. The overall diagnostic efficiency of OptiMAL® for both sets of patients was 96.9%. Efficiency was higher for P. vivax (98.1%) than for P. falciparum (94.9%). These results corroborate the diagnostic utility of OptiMAL® in settings where P. vivax and P. falciparum co-exist and support its implementation where microscopic diagnosis is unavailable and in circumstances that exceed the capacity of the local microscopic diagnosis facility.

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IgE antibody response in human strongyloidiasis was evaluated by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) and immunoblotting (IB) using Strongyloides ratti saline extract as heterologous antigen. A total of 50 serum samples of patients who were shedding S. stercoralis larvae in feces (group I, copropositive), 38 of patients with other intestinal parasites (group II), and 38 of subjects with negative results in three parasitologic assays (group III, copronegative) were analyzed. Levels of IgE anti-Strongyloides expressed in ELISA Index (EI) were significantly higher in patients of group I (1.32) than in group II (0.51) and group III (0.81), with positivity rates of 54%, 0%, and 10.5%, respectively. Fifteen S. ratti antigenic components were recognized in IB-IgE by sera of group I, with frequency ranging from 8% to 46%. In group II, only two antigenic bands (101, 81 kDa) were detected in a frequency of 10% and no reactivity was found in group III. Sera with EI values > 1.5 recognized five from 13 specific antigenic bands (70, 63, 61, 44, 7 kDa). It can be concluded that these five antigenic components recognized by IB-IgE using S. ratti antigen might be employed as an additional tool for improving the immunodiagnosis in human strongyloidiasis.

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Tuberculosis (TB) is a disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis whose interaction with the host may lead to a cell-mediated protective immune response. The presence of interferon-g (IFN-gamma) is related to this response. With the purpose of understanding the immunological mechanisms involved in this protection, the lymphoproliferative response, IFN-g and other cytokines like interleukin (IL-5, IL-10), and tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-a) were evaluated before and after the use of anti-TB drugs on 30 patients with active TB disease, 24 healthy household contacts of active TB patients, with positive purified protein derivative (PPD) skin tests (induration > 10 mm), and 34 asymptomatic individuals with negative PPD skin test results (induration < 5 mm). The positive lymphoproliferative response among peripheral blood mononuclear cells of patients showed high levels of IFN-g, TNF-a, and IL-10. No significant levels of IL-5 were detected. After treatment with rifampicina, isoniazida, and pirazinamida, only the levels of IFN-g increased significantly (p < 0.01). These results highlight the need for further evaluation of IFN-g production as a healing prognostic of patients treated.

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The aim of this study was to evaluate the sensitivity and specificity of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) in the detection of Leishmania DNA in archived Giemsa-stained bone marrow slides for diagnosis of visceral leishmaniasis (VL), and to compare PCR with conventional diagnostic techniques, like direct microscopy and parasite culture. Specimens of archived Giemsa-stained bone marrow slides from 91 patients with VL and from 79 controls with other diseases or conditions were studied. PCR showed the highest sensitivity (92.3%) and had good specificity (97.5%). Direct examination detected 79.1% and culture 59% of positive samples. In addition, PCR was able to detect VL in 16 of 19 patients (84.2%) with negative microscopy. PCR in Giemsa-stained bone marrow slides is a suitable tool for confirming diagnosis in patients with VL and may be useful in the diagnosis of difficult cases. Slide smears are easily stored, do not require special storage conditions such as low temperatures, and can be easily mailed to centers where PCR is available, making it an excellent option for diagnosis in the field.

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Molecular characterization of Paracoccidioides brasiliensis variant strains that had been preserved under mineral oil for decades was carried out by random amplified polymorphic DNA analysis (RAPD). On P. brasiliensis variants in the transitional phase and strains with typical morphology, RAPD produced reproducible polymorphic amplification products that differentiated them. A dendrogram based on the generated RAPD patterns placed the 14 P. brasiliensis strains into five groups with similarity coefficients of 72%. A high correlation between the genotypic and phenotypic characteristics of the strains was observed. A 750 bp-RAPD fragment found only in the wild-type phenotype strains was cloned and sequenced. Genetic similarity analysis using BLASTx suggested that this RAPD marker represents a putative domain of a hypothetical flavin-binding monooxygenase (FMO)-like protein of Neurospora crassa.

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The clinical and epidemiological characteristics, adverse events, treatment adherence and effectiveness of isoniazid chemoprophylaxis were analyzed in a cohort of 138 tuberculosis/HIV-coinfected patients. An open, non-randomized, pragmatic prophylactic trial was conducted on adult patients with a normal chest X-ray and positive tuberculin skin test (> 5 mm) who received isoniazid chemoprophylaxis (300 mg/day) for six months. The mean of follow up was 2.8 years (SD 1.3). Adherence to chemoprophylaxis was 87.7% (121/138). Only one patient presented tuberculosis after the end of chemoprophylaxis, corresponding to 0.3 cases per 100 persons per year. The relative risk of some adverse effects was 4.6 times higher (95% CI: 1.9-11.5) in patients with positive anti-HCV serology (4/9, 44.4%) compared to those with negative serology (12/129, 9.6%) (p = 0.002). This study provides evidence regarding the effectiveness and safety of a short and self-administered isoniazid regimen. We recommend the implementation of this routine by health service practitioners.