75 resultados para Reactions of (Anthracen-9-yl)methylsulphanes with DMAD


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OBJECTIVE: The purpose of this study is to evaluate the impact of transeophageal echocardiography on management of patients at low-risk for cardiogenic embolism to prevent new potential cardiovascular sources of emboli. METHODS: We studied 69 patients with ischemic stroke at low-risk for cardiogenic embolism. Transeophageal echocardiography was performed to access: left atrium enlargement; communication or aneurysm of the interatrial septum; patent foramen ovale; spontaneous echo contrast or intracavitary thrombi; the presence of intraaortic atherosclerotic plaques or thrombi; significant valvar morphologic alteration or dysfunction; left ventricle enlargement, hypertrophy, or contractile abnormality. Transesophageal echocardiography altered clinical management, and we adopted anticoagulant therapy or another procedure apart from the use of acetylsalicylic acid. RESULTS: Transeophageal echocardiography detected at least one abnormality in 40 cases (58%). Clinical conduct was adjusted after the performance of transesophageal echocardiography in 11 patients (15.9%); anticoagulation was added in 10 cases and surgical correction in one patient. CONCLUSION: Transeophageal echocardiography was a very useful tool in the secondary prevention for stroke in patients at low risk for cardiogenic embolism.

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Background:The QRS-T angle correlates with prognosis in patients with heart failure and coronary artery disease, reflected by an increase in mortality proportional to an increase in the difference between the axes of the QRS complex and T wave in the frontal plane. The value of this correlation in patients with Chagas heart disease is currently unknown.Objective:Determine the correlation of the QRS-T angle and the risk of induction of ventricular tachycardia / ventricular fibrillation (VT / VF) during electrophysiological study (EPS) in patients with Chagas disease.Methods:Case-control study at a tertiary center. Patients without induction of VT / VF on EPS were used as controls. The QRS-T angle was categorized as normal (0-105º), borderline (105-135º) or abnormal (135-180º). Differences between groups for continuous variables were analyzed with the t test or Mann-Whitney test, and for categorical variables with Fisher's exact test. P values < 0.05 were considered significant.Results:Of 116 patients undergoing EPS, 37.9% were excluded due to incomplete information / inactive records or due to the impossibility to correctly calculate the QRS-T angle (presence of left bundle branch block and atrial fibrillation). Of 72 patients included in the study, 31 induced VT / VF on EPS. Of these, the QRS-T angle was normal in 41.9%, borderline in 12.9% and abnormal in 45.2%. Among patients without induction of VT / VF on EPS, the QRS-T angle was normal in 63.4%, borderline in 14.6% and abnormal in 17.1% (p = 0.04). When compared with patients with normal QRS-T angle, those with abnormal angle had a fourfold higher risk of inducing ventricular tachycardia / ventricular fibrillation on EPS [odds ratio (OR) 4; confidence interval (CI) 1.298-12.325; p = 0.028]. After adjustment for other variables such as age, ejection fraction (EF) and QRS size, there was a trend for the abnormal QRS-T angle to identify patients with increased risk of inducing VT / VF during EPS (OR 3.95; CI 0.99-15.82; p = 0.052). The EF also emerged as a predictor of induction of VT / VF: for each point increase in EF, there was a 4% reduction in the rate of sustained ventricular arrhythmia on EPS.Conclusions:Changes in the QRS-T angle and decreases in EF were associated with an increased risk of induction of VT / VF on EPS.

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Susceptibility experiments with 1582 specimens of Biomphalaria occidentalis, 3-6 mm in shell diameter, from 10 localities of the states of Mato Groso, Mato Grosso do Sul, Paraná and São Paulo, exposed individually to 5 miracidia of Schistosoma mansoni (SJ2 strain), gave negative results. B. tenagophila from Joinville (Santa Catarina) and Taubaté (São Paulo), used as controls, showed infection rates of 17.9% and 14.8%, respectively. Experiments with other strains of S. mansoni are in progress. If the present results are confirmed, expansion of schistosomiasis toward far-western Brazil through the agency of B. occidentalis becomes less probable.

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Malaria treatment of children is particulary difficult because of the absence of palatable suspensions for young children. Halofantrine hydrochloride is available as a suspension which is both palatable and simple to administer, and has been studied in a number of trials in the past 5 years. Children (331) ranging from 4 months to 17 years of age (mean 4.7 years) were treated with the 5% suspension using various dose regimens and 364 children ranging from 4 months to 14 years of age (mean 5.7 years) were treated with the 2% suspension 6 hourly for 3 doses. Using the 3-dose regimen there were only 2/462 (0.4%) who failed to clear the initial parasitaemia. Recrudescence occurred in 28/367 (7.6%) children with evaluable follow up data. The mean parasite clearance time in this group was 57.1h (n = 417) and the mean fever clearance time was 50.9 h (n = 325). Symptoms related to malaria cleared rapidly following treatment generally by 24-48 h post treatment. Side effects possibly related to treatment were uncommon but were similar to those reported in adults. The frequency of diarrhoea and abdominal pain was lower than that seen in adults and was also less frequent following multiple doses and the use of the more dilute suspension. Since was evidence that the majority of recrudescences were seen in younger children or those living in areas with low or seasonal transmission it is recommended that a further course of treatment 7 days later is given to these patients to prevent recrudescence. Halofantrine suspension appears to be effective and well tolerated in children and is a useful addition to the drugs available for the treatment of paediatric malaria.

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This study evaluates whether blood collected on filter paper kept at 4 degrees C and tested at different intervals of time (1, 7, 15, 30 and 60 days after collection) would present similar results when compared to the serum samples and whether the type of filter paper influences the results. Eluates from filter paper samples were tested for Trypanosoma cruzi antibodies using indirect immunofluorescence antibody test (IFAT), indirect haemagglutination (IHA) and enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) as reference, the antibody titer in sera. Analysis of data showed that results obtained with IFAT, IHA (cut off point = 1:40) and ELISA in sera had similar sensitivity and good concordance among reactions. The use of a multiple linear regression model indicated that titer fall in eluates occurs up to the 7th day after the collection, and it is more marked for samples with lower antibodies titers. However, no significant differences were observed by IFAT, IHA (cut off point = 1:20) and ELISA in the proportion of positive reactions between sera and eluates. The results also showed that Melitta, Klabin or Whatman (reference) filter papers could be indicated for surveys, since they have shown similar capacity of maintenance of anti-T. cruzi immunoglobulins.

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Resistance and susceptibility of Biomphalaria snails to Schistosoma mansoni sporocysts occur in different degrees. Histopathology reflects these diferences. In a state of tolerance numerous sporocysts in different stages of differentiation are seen in the absence of host tissue reaction. However extensive diffuse and focal proliferation of amebocytes with sequestration and destruction of many parasitic structures appear in resistant snails. Some snails are totally resistant and when exposed to infecting miracidia may never eliminate cercarie. Sequential histopathological examination has revealed that in such cases the infected miracidia are destroyed a few minutes to 24 hr after penetration in the snail. However, B. glabrata that were exposed to S. mansoni miracidia and three moths later failed to shed cercariae, exhibited focal and diffuse proliferation of amebocytes in many organs in the absence of pasitic structures. These lesions were similar to those observed in resistant snails that were still eliminating a few cercariae, with the difference that no recognizable sporocystic structures or remmants were present. Histological investigation carried out in similarly resistant B. tenagophila and B. straminea presented essentially normal histologic structures. Only occasionally a few focal proliferative (granulomatous) amebocytic reactions were seen in ovotestis and in the tubular portion of the kidney. Probably, there are two types of reactions to miracidium presented by totally resistant snails: one would implicate the immediate destruction of the miracidium leaving no traces in the tissues; the other involving late reactions that seem to completely destroy invading sporocysts and leave histological changes.

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Hyper-IgE syndrome (HIES) is a rare multisystem disorder characterized by increased susceptibility to infections associated with heterogeneous immunologic and non-immunologic abnormalities. Most patients consistently exhibit defective antigen-induced-T cell activation, that could be partly due to altered costimulation involving accessory molecules; however, the expression of these molecules has never been documented in HIES. Therefore, we investigated the expression of CD11a, CD28, CD40, CD54, CD80, CD86, and CD154 in peripheral blood mononuclear cells from six patients and six healthy controls by flow cytometry after autologous and mixed allogeneic reactions. Only the allogeneic stimuli induced significant proliferative responses and interleukin 2 and interferon gamma production in both groups. Most accessory molecules showed similar expression between patients and controls with the exception of CD54, being expressed at lower levels in HIES patients regardless of the type of stimulus used. Decreased expression of CD54 could partly explain the deficient T cell activation to specific recall antigens in HIES patients, and might be responsible for their higher susceptibility to infections with defined types of microorganisms.

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We report a nested reverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) assay for hantavirus using primers selected to match high homology regions of hantavirus genomes detected from the whole blood of hantavirus cardiopulmonary syndrome (HCPS) patients from Brazil, also including the N gene nucleotide sequence of Araraquara virus. Hantavirus genomes were detected in eight out of nine blood samples from the HCPS patients by RT-PCR (88.9% positivity) and in all 9 blood samples (100% positivity) by nested-PCR. The eight amplicons obtained by RT-PCR (P1, P3-P9), including one obtained by nested-PCR (P-2) and not obtained by RT-PCR, were sequenced and showed high homology (94.8% to 99.1%) with the N gene of Araraquara hantavirus. Although the serologic method ELISA is the most appropriate test for HCPS diagnosis, the use of nested RT-PCR for hantavirus in Brazil would contribute to the diagnosis of acute hantavirus disease detecting viral genomes in patient specimens as well as initial genomic characterization of circulating hantaviruses.

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Deaths caused by systemic mycoses such as paracoccidioidomycosis, cryptococcosis, histoplasmosis, candidiasis, aspergillosis, coccidioidomycosis and zygomycosis amounted to 3,583 between 1996-2006 in Brazil. When analysed as the underlying cause of death, paracoccidioidomycosis represented the most important cause of deaths among systemic mycoses (~ 51.2%). When considering AIDS as the underlying cause of death and the systemic mycoses as associated conditions, cryptococcosis (50.9%) appeared at the top of the list, followed by candidiasis (30.2%), histoplasmosis (10.1%) and others. This mortality analysis is useful in understanding the real situation of systemic mycoses in Brazil, since there is no mandatory notification of patients diagnosed with systemic mycoses in the official health system.

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The host immune response plays an important role in viral clearance in patients who are chronically infected with hepatitis C virus (HCV) and are treated with interferon and ribavirin. Activation of the immune system involves the release of pro and anti-inflammatory molecules that can be measured in plasma samples. The present study aimed to evaluate the association between pretreatment plasma levels of chemokines and soluble tumor necrosis factor receptors (sTNF-R) and the virological response in treated patients with chronic hepatitis C infection. Forty-one chronically-infected HCV patients that were being treated with interferon-α (IFN-α) plus ribavirin were included in the study. Socio-demographic, clinical and laboratory data were collected and pretreatment plasma levels of chemokine CCL2, CCL3, CCL11, CCL24, chemokine CXCL9, CXCL10, sTNF-R1 and sTNF-R2 were measured. The virological response was assessed at treatment week 12, at the end of treatment and 24 weeks after treatment. Pretreatment CXCL10 levels were significantly higher in patients without an early virological response (EVR) or sustained virological response (SVR) compared to responders [512.9 pg/mL vs. 179.1 pg/mL (p = 0.011) and 289.9 pg/mL vs. 142.7 pg/mL (p = 0.045), respectively]. The accuracy of CXCL10 as a predictor of the absence of EVR and SVR was 0.79 [confidence interval (CI) 95%: 0.59-0.99] and 0.69 (CI 95%: 0.51-0.87), respectively. Pretreatment plasma levels of the other soluble inflammatory markers evaluated were not associated with a treatment response. Pretreatment CXCL10 levels were predictive of both EVR and SVR to IFN-α and ribavirin and may be useful in the evaluation of candidates for therapy.

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A vaccination campaign against pandemic influenza A (H1N1)pdm09 was held in Brazil in March 2010, using two types of monovalent split virus vaccines: an AS03-adjuvanted vaccine and a non-adjuvanted vaccine. We compared the reactogenicity of the vaccines in health professionals from a Clinical Research Institute in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil and there were no serious adverse events following immunization (AEFI) among the 494 subjects evaluated. The prevalence of any AEFI was higher in the AS03-adjuvanted vaccine at 2 h and 24 h post-vaccination [preva-lence ratio (PR): 2.05, confidence interval (CI) 95%: 1.55-2.71, PR: 3.42, CI 95%: 2.62-4.48, respectively]; however, there was no difference between the vaccines in the assessments conducted at seven and 21 days post-vaccination. The group receiving the AS03 post-adjuvanted vaccine had a higher frequency of local reactions at 2 h (PR: 3.01, CI 95%: 2.12-4.29), 24 h (PR: 4.57, CI 95%: 3.29-6.37) and seven days (PR: 6.05, CI 95%: 2.98-12.28) post-vaccination. We concluded that the two types of vaccines caused no serious AEFI in the studied population and the adjuvanted vaccine was more reactogenic, particularly in the 24 h following vaccination. This behaviour must be confirmed and better characterised by longitudinal studies in the general population.

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The purpose was to determine the prevalence and related factors of vitamin D (VitD) insufficiency in adolescents and young adults with perinatally acquired human immunodeficiency virus. A cohort of 65 patients (17.6 ± 2 years) at the Federal University of Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, were examined for pubertal development, nutrition, serum parathormone and serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D [s25(OH)D]. s25(OH)D levels < 30 ng/mL (< 75 nmol/L) were defined as VitD insufficiency. CD4+ T-cell counts and viral load, history of worst clinical status, immunologic status as nadir, current immunologic status, and antiretroviral (ART) regimen were also evaluated as risk factors for VitD insufficiency. Mean s25(OH)D was 37.7 ± 13.9 ng/mL and 29.2% had VitD insufficiency. There was no difference between VitD status and gender, age, nutritional status, clinical and immunological classification, and type of ART. Only VitD consumption showed tendency of association with s25(OH)D (p = 0.064). Individuals analysed in summer/autumn season had a higher s25(OH)D compared to the ones analysed in winter/spring (42.6 ± 14.9 vs. 34.0 ± 11.9, p = 0.011). Although, the frequency of VitD insufficiency did not differ statistically between the groups (summer/autumn 17.9% vs. winter/spring 37.8%, p = 0.102), we suggest to monitor s25(OH)D in seropositive adolescents and young adults, especially during winter/spring months, even in sunny regions.

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We analyzed prenatal care (PN) provided at a unit of the Family Health Strategy Service in São Paulo, according to the indicators of the Program for the Humanization of Prenatal and Birth (PHPB). We compared adequacy of PN in terms of sociodemographic variables, procedures, examinations and maternal and perinatal outcomes. Cross-sectional study with data from records of 308 pregnant women enrolled in 2011. We observed early initiation of PN (82.1%), conducting of a minimum of six consultations (84.1%), puerperal consultation (89.0%); to the extent that there is a sum of the actions, there is a significant drop in the proportion of adequacy. Prenatal care was adequate for 67.9%, with a significant difference between adequacy groups in relation to gestational age and birth weight. Prenatal care deficiencies exist, especially in regards to registration of procedures, exams and immunization. The difference between adequacy groups with respect to perinatal outcomes reinforces the importance of prenatal care that adheres to the parameters of the PHPB.


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Compatibility between Eucalyptus dunnii and the ectomycorrhizal fungi Hysterangium gardneri and Pisolithus sp. - from Eucalyptus spp. -, Rhizopogon nigrescens and Suillus cothurnatus - from Pinus spp.-, was studied in vitro. Pisolithus sp., H. gardneri and S. cothurnatus colonized the roots. Pisolithus sp. mycorrhizas presented mantle and Hartig net, while H. gardneri and S. cothurnatus mycorrhizas presented only mantle. S. cothurnatus increased phenolics level on roots. Pisolithus sp. and R. nigrescens decreased the level of these substances. The isolates from Eucalyptus seem to be more compatible towards E. dunnii than those from Pinus. The mechanisms involved could be related, at least in the cases of Pisolithus and Suillus, to the concentration of phenolics in roots.

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Gas-phase SiCl3+ ions undergo sequential solvolysis type reactions with water, methanol, ammonia, methylamine and propylene. Studies carried out in a Fourier Transform mass spectrometer reveal that these reactions are facile at 10-8 Torr and give rise to substituted chlorosilyl cations. Ab initio and DFT calculations reveal that these reactions proceed by addition of the silyl cation to the oxygen or nitrogen lone pair followed by a 1,3-H migration in the transition state. These transition states are calculated to lie below the energy of the reactants. By comparison, hydrolysis of gaseous CCl3+ is calculated to involve a substantial positive energy barrier.