32 resultados para Adverse Events


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Background:Recent studies have suggested that B-type Natriuretic Peptide (BNP) is an important predictor of ischemia and death in patients with suspected acute coronary syndrome. Increased levels of BNP are seen after episodes of myocardial ischemia and may be related to future adverse events.Objectives:To determine the prognostic value of BNP for major cardiac events and to evaluate its association with ischemic myocardial perfusion scintigraphy (MPS).Methods:This study included retrospectively 125 patients admitted to the chest pain unit between 2002 and 2006, who had their BNP levels measured on admission and underwent CPM for risk stratification. BNP values were compared with the results of the MPS. The chi-square test was used for qualitative variables and the Student t test, for quantitative variables. Survival curves were adjusted using the Kaplan-Meier method and analyzed by using Cox regression. The significance level was 5%.Results:The mean age was 63.9 ± 13.8 years, and the male sex represented 51.2% of the sample. Ischemia was found in 44% of the MPS. The mean BNP level was higher in patients with ischemia compared to patients with non-ischemic MPS (188.3 ± 208.7 versus 131.8 ± 88.6; p = 0.003). A BNP level greater than 80 pg/mL was the strongest predictor of ischemia on MPS (sensitivity = 60%, specificity = 70%, accuracy = 66%, PPV = 61%, NPV = 70%), and could predict medium-term mortality (RR = 7.29, 95% CI: 0.90-58.6; p = 0.045) independently of the presence of ischemia.Conclusions:BNP levels are associated with ischemic MPS findings and adverse prognosis in patients presenting with acute chest pain to the emergency room, thus, providing important prognostic information for an unfavorable clinical outcome.

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Background: Clinical in-stent restenosis (CISR) is the main limitation of coronary angioplasty with stent implantation. Objective: Describe the clinical and angiographic characteristics of CISR and the outcomes over a minimum follow-up of 12 months after its diagnosis and treatment. Methods: We analyzed in 110 consecutive patients with CISR the clinical presentation, angiographic characteristics, treatment and combined primary outcomes (cardiovascular death, nonfatal acute myocardial infarction [AMI]) and combined secondary (unstable angina with hospitalization, target vessel revascularization and target lesion revascularization) during a minimal follow-up of one year. Results: Mean age was 61 ± 11 years (68.2% males). Clinical presentations included acute coronary syndrome (ACS) in 62.7% and proliferative ISR in 34.5%. CISR was treated with implantation of drug-eluting stents (DES) in 36.4%, Bare Metal Stent (BMS) in 23.6%, myocardial revascularization surgery in 18.2%, balloon angioplasty in 15.5% and clinical treatment in 6.4%. During a median follow-up of 19.7 months, the primary outcome occurred in 18 patients, including 6 (5.5%) deaths and 13 (11.8%) AMI events. Twenty-four patients presented a secondary outcome. Predictors of the primary outcome were CISR with DES (HR = 4.36 [1.44–12.85]; p = 0.009) and clinical treatment for CISR (HR = 10.66 [2.53–44.87]; p = 0.001). Treatment of CISR with BMS (HR = 4.08 [1.75–9.48]; p = 0.001) and clinical therapy (HR = 6.29 [1.35–29.38]; p = 0.019) emerged as predictors of a secondary outcome. Conclusion: Patients with CISR present in most cases with ACS and with a high frequency of adverse events during a medium-term follow-up.

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AbstractBackground:Patients undergoing arterial vascular surgery are considered at increased risk for post-operative complications.Objective:To assess the incidence and predictors of complications and death, as well as the performance of two models of risk stratification, in vascular surgery.Methods:This study determined the incidence of cardiovascular complications and deaths within 30 days from surgery in adults. Univariate comparison and logistic regression assessed the risk factors associated with the outcomes, and the receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curve assessed the discriminatory capacity of the revised cardiac risk index (RCRI) and vascular study group of New England cardiac risk index (VSG-CRI).Results:141 patients (mean age, 66 years; 65% men) underwent the following surgeries: carotid (15); lower limbs (65); abdominal aorta (56); and others (5). Cardiovascular complications and death occurred within 30 days in 28 (19.9%) and 20 (14.2%) patients, respectively. The risk predictors were: age, obesity, stroke, poor functional capacity, altered scintigraphy, surgery of the aorta, and troponin change. The scores RCRI and VSG-CRI had area under the curve of 0.635 and 0.639 for early cardiovascular complications, and 0.562 and 0.610 for death in 30 days.Conclusion:In this small and selected group of patients undergoing arterial vascular surgery, the incidence of adverse events was elevated. The risk assessment indices RCRI and VSG-CRI did not perform well for complications within 30 days.

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Abstract Background: Pulmonary hypertension is associated with poor prognosis in heart failure. However, non-invasive diagnosis is still challenging in clinical practice. Objective: We sought to assess the prognostic utility of non-invasive estimation of pulmonary vascular resistances (PVR) by cardiovascular magnetic resonance to predict adverse cardiovascular outcomes in heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF). Methods: Prospective registry of patients with left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) < 40% and recently admitted for decompensated heart failure during three years. PVRwere calculated based on right ventricular ejection fraction and average velocity of the pulmonary artery estimated during cardiac magnetic resonance. Readmission for heart failure and all-cause mortality were considered as adverse events at follow-up. Results: 105 patients (average LVEF 26.0 ±7.7%, ischemic etiology 43%) were included. Patients with adverse events at long-term follow-up had higher values of PVR (6.93 ± 1.9 vs. 4.6 ± 1.7estimated Wood Units (eWu), p < 0.001). In multivariate Cox regression analysis, PVR ≥ 5 eWu(cutoff value according to ROC curve) was independently associated with increased risk of adverse events at 9 months follow-up (HR2.98; 95% CI 1.12-7.88; p < 0.03). Conclusions: In patients with HFrEF, the presence of PVR ≥ 5.0 Wu is associated with significantly worse clinical outcome at follow-up. Non-invasive estimation of PVR by cardiac magnetic resonance might be useful for risk stratification in HFrEF, irrespective of etiology, presence of late gadolinium enhancement or LVEF.

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We analyzed data from historical controls treated with meglumine antimoniate to compare the frequency of adverse events observed in patients with cutaneous leishmaniasis treated with the same dose of meglumine antimoniate contaminated with heavy metals in an endemic area of the State of Bahia, Brazil. Group A patients were treated in 2000 with the drug produced by Eurofarma Laboratórios Ltda., São Paulo, Brazil (lot A) and group B patients were treated in 1996 with the reference drug produced by Rhodia Farma Ltda., São Paulo, Brazil (lot B). We observed an unusual higher frequency of skin reactions in group A patients. However, all type of adverse events observed in group A were also observed in group B. The physico-chemical analysis of these lots revealed that lot A had lower pH and higher concentration of total and trivalent antimony, lead, cadmium, and arsenic. Our findings suggest that the skin reactions could be attributed to heavy metal contamination of lot A.

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The immunogenicity and safety of a new recombinant hepatitis B vaccine from the Instituto Butantan (Butang®) were evaluated in a multicenter, double-blind, prospective equivalence study in three centers in Brazil. Engerix B® was the standard vaccine. A total of 3937 subjects were recruited and 2754 (70%) met all protocol criteria at the end of the study. All the subjects were considered healthy and denied having received hepatitis B vaccine before the study. Study subjects who adhered to the protocol were newborn infants (566), children 1 to 10 years old (484), adolescents from 11 to 19 years (740), adults from 20 to 30 years (568), and adults from 31 to 40 years (396). Vaccine was administered in three doses on the schedule 0, 1, and 6 months (newborn infants, adolescents, and adults) or 0, 1, and 7 months (children). Vaccine dose was intramuscular 10 µg (infants, children, and adolescents) or 20 µg (adults). Percent seroprotection (assumed when anti-HBs titers were > 10mIU/ml) and geometric mean titer (mIU/ml) were: newborn infants, 93.7% and 351.1 (Butang®) and 97.5% and 1530.6 (Engerix B®); children, 100% and 3600.0 (Butang®) and 97.7% and 2753.1 (Engerix B®); adolescents, 95.1% and 746.3 (Butang®) and 96% and 1284.3 (Engerix B®); adults 20-30 years old, 91.8% and 453.5 (Butang®) and 95.5% and 1369.0 (Engerix B®); and adults 31-40 years old, 79.8% and 122.7 (Butang®) and 92.4% and 686.2 (Engerix B®). There were no severe adverse events following either vaccine. The study concluded that Butang® was equivalent to Engerix B® in children, and less immunogenic but acceptable for use in newborn infants, adolescents, and young adults.

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The objective of this paper is to propose a protocol to analyze blood samples in yellow fever 17DD vaccinated which developed serious adverse events. We investigated whether or not the time between sample collection and sample processing could interfere in lymphocyte subset percentage, for it is often impossible to analyze blood samples immediately after collection due to transport delay from collection places to the flow cytometry facility. CD4+CD38+ T, CD8+CD38+ T, CD3+ T, CD19+ B lymphocyte subsets were analyzed by flow cytometry in nine healthy volunteers immediately after blood collection and after intervals of 24 and 48 h. The whole blood lysis method and gradient sedimentation by Histopaque were applied to isolate peripheral blood mononuclear cells for flow cytometry analyses. With the lysis method, there was no significant change in lymphocyte subset percentage between the two time intervals (24 and 48 h). In contrast, when blood samples were processed by Histopaque gradient sedimentation, time intervals for sample processing influenced the percentage in T lymphocyte subsets but not in B cells. From the results obtained, we could conclude that the whole blood lysis method is more appropriate than gradient sedimentation by Histopaque for immunophenotyping of blood samples collected after serious adverse events, due to less variation in the lymphocyte subset levels with respect to the time factor.

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The fungus Lentinus strigosus (Pegler 1983) (Polyporaceae, basidiomycete) was selected in a screen for inhibitory activity on Trypanosoma cruzi trypanothione reductase (TR). The crude extract of L. strigosus was able to completely inhibit TR at 20 µg/ml. Two triquinane sesquiterpenoids (dihydrohypnophilin and hypnophilin), in addition to two panepoxydol derivatives (neopanepoxydol and panepoxydone), were isolated using a bioassay-guided fractionation protocol. Hypnophilin and panepoxydone displayed IC50 values of 0.8 and 38.9 µM in the TR assay, respectively, while the other two compounds were inactive. The activity of hypnophilin was confirmed in a secondary assay with the intracellular amastigote forms of T. cruzi, in which it presented an IC50 value of 2.5 µ M. Quantitative flow cytometry experiments demonstrated that hypnophilin at 4 µM also reduced the proliferation of human peripheral blood monocluear cells (PBMC) stimulated with phytohemaglutinin, without any apparent interference on the viability of lymphocytes and monocytes. As the host immune response plays a pivotal role in the adverse events triggered by antigen release during treatment with trypanocidal drugs, the ability of hypnophilin to kill the intracellular forms of T. cruzi while modulating human PBMC proliferation suggests that this terpenoid may be a promising prototype for the development of new chemotherapeutical agents for Chagas disease.

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A randomized, double-blinded study evaluating the immunogenicity, safety and consistency of production of a combined diphtheria-tetanus-pertussis-Haemophilus influenzae type b vaccine entirely produced in Brazil by Bio-Manguinhos and Instituto Butantan (DTP/Hib-BM) was undertaken. The reference vaccine had the same DTP vaccine but the Hib component was produced using purified materials supplied by GlaxoSmithKline (DTP/Hib-GSK), which is registered and has supplied the Brazilian National Immunization Program for over more than five years. One thousand infants were recruited for the study and received vaccinations at two, four and six months of age. With respect to immunogenicity, the vaccination protocol was followed in 95.6% and 98.4% of infants in the DTP/Hib-BM and DTP/Hib-GSK groups, respectively. For the Hib component of the study, there was 100% seroprotection (>0.15 µg/mL) with all three lots of DTP/Hib-BM and DTP/Hib-GSK. The geometric mean titer (GMT) was 9.3 µg/mL, 10.3 µg/mL and 10.3 µg/mL for lots 1, 2 and 3 of DTP/Hib-BM, respectively, and the GMT was 11.3 g/mL for DTP/Hib-GSK. For diphtheria, tetanus and pertussis, seroprotection was 99.7%, 100% and 99.9%, respectively, for DTP/Hib-BM, three lots altogether and 99.2%, 100% and 100% for DTP/Hib-GSK. GMTs were similar across all lots and vaccines. Adverse events rates were comparable among the vaccine groups. The Brazilian DTP/Hib vaccine demonstrated an immunogenicity and reactogenicity profile similar to that of the reference vaccine.

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The clinical and epidemiological characteristics, adverse events, treatment adherence and effectiveness of isoniazid chemoprophylaxis were analyzed in a cohort of 138 tuberculosis/HIV-coinfected patients. An open, non-randomized, pragmatic prophylactic trial was conducted on adult patients with a normal chest X-ray and positive tuberculin skin test (> 5 mm) who received isoniazid chemoprophylaxis (300 mg/day) for six months. The mean of follow up was 2.8 years (SD 1.3). Adherence to chemoprophylaxis was 87.7% (121/138). Only one patient presented tuberculosis after the end of chemoprophylaxis, corresponding to 0.3 cases per 100 persons per year. The relative risk of some adverse effects was 4.6 times higher (95% CI: 1.9-11.5) in patients with positive anti-HCV serology (4/9, 44.4%) compared to those with negative serology (12/129, 9.6%) (p = 0.002). This study provides evidence regarding the effectiveness and safety of a short and self-administered isoniazid regimen. We recommend the implementation of this routine by health service practitioners.

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There is a general consensus that during chronic Trypanosoma cruzi infection, the host immune system induces complex processes to ensure the control of parasite growth while preserving the potential to mount and maintain a life-long controlled humoral and cellular immune response against the invading pathogen. This review summarises evidence in an attempt to elucidate "what must be understood" to further clarify the role of innate immunity in the development/maintenance of clinical Chagas disease and the impact of etiological treatment on host immunity, highlighting the contributions of the innate immunity and regulatory T (Treg) cells. Recently, increasing focus on innate immunity suggest that chronic T. cruzi infection may cause morbidity when innate effector functions, or the down-regulation of adaptive regulatory mechanisms are lacking. In this context, stable asymptomatic host-parasite interactions seem to be influenced by the effector/regulatory balance with the participation of macrophages, natural killer (NK) and CD8+ T cells in parallel with the establishment of regulatory mechanisms mediated by NKT and Treg cells. Moreover, a balanced innate immune activation state, apart from Treg cells, may play a role in controlling the adverse events triggered by the massive antigen release induced by trypanosomicidal agents during Chagas disease etiological treatment.

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ABSTRACT OBJECTIVE To identify knowledge produced about drug utilization by the elderly in the primary health care context from 2006 to 2014. METHOD An integrative review of the PubMed, LILACS, BDENF, and SCOPUS databases, including qualitative research papers in Portuguese, English, and Spanish. It excluded papers with insufficient information regarding the methodological description. RESULTS Search found 633 papers that, after being subjected to the inclusion and exclusion criteria, made up a corpusof 76 publications, mostly in English and produced in the United States, England, and Brazil. Results were pooled in eight thematic categories showing the current trend of drug use in the elderly, notably the use of psychotropics, polypharmacy, the prevention of adverse events, and adoption of technologies to facilitate drug management by the elderly. Studies point out the risks posed to the elderly as a consequence of changes in metabolism and simultaneous use of several drugs. CONCLUSION There is strong concern about improving communications between professionals and the elderly in order to promote an exchange of information about therapy, and in this way prevent major health complications in this population.

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Objective: To evaluate the safety and tolerability of controlled-release oxycodone in the treatment of postoperative pain of head and neck oncologic resections.Methods: We conducted a prospective, observational and open study, with 83 patients with moderate to severe pain after head and neck oncological operations. All patients received general anesthesia with propofol, fentanyl and sevoflurane. Postoperatively, should they have moderate or severe pain, we began controlled-release oxycodone 20 mg 12/12 b.i.d on the first day and 10 mg b.i.d. on the second. We assessed the frequency and intensity of adverse effects, the intensity of postoperative pain by a verbal numeric scale and the use of rescue analgesia from 12 hours after administration of the drug and between 7 and 13 days after the last oxycodone dose.Results: The most common adverse events were nausea, vomiting, dizziness, pruritus, insomnia, constipation and urinary retention, most mild. No serious adverse events occurred. In less than 12 hours after the use of oxycodone, there was a significant decrease in the intensity of postoperative pain, which remained until the end of the study. The rescue medication was requested at a higher frequency when the opioid dose was reduced, or after its suspension.Conclusion: Controlled release oxycodone showed to be safe and well tolerated and caused a significant decrease in post-operative pain.

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The objective of the present randomized, open-label, naturalistic 8-week study was to compare the efficacy and safety of treatment with clonazepam (N = 63) and paroxetine (N = 57) in patients with panic disorder with or without agoraphobia. Efficacy assessment included number of panic attacks and clinician ratings of the global severity of panic disorders with the clinical global impression (CGI) improvement (CGI-I) and CGI severity (CGI-S) scales. Most patients were females (69.8 and 68.4% in the clonazepam and paroxetine groups, respectively) and age (mean ± SD) was 35.9 ± 9.6 years for the clonazepam group and 33.7 ± 8.8 years for the paroxetine group. Treatment with clonazepam versus paroxetine resulted in fewer weekly panic attacks at week 4 (0.1 vs 0.5, respectively; P < 0.01), and greater clinical improvements at week 8 (CGI-I: 1.6 vs 2.9; P = 0.04). Anxiety severity was significantly reduced with clonazepam versus paroxetine at weeks 1 and 2, with no difference in panic disorder severity. Patients treated with clonazepam had fewer adverse events than patients treated with paroxetine (73 vs 95%; P = 0.001). The most common adverse events were drowsiness/fatigue (57%), memory/concentration difficulties (24%), and sexual dysfunction (11%) in the clonazepam group and drowsiness/fatigue (81%), sexual dysfunction (70%), and nausea/vomiting (61%) in the paroxetine group. This naturalistic study confirms the efficacy and tolerability of clonazepam and paroxetine in the acute treatment of patients with panic disorder.

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The SEARCH-RIO study prospectively investigated electrocardiogram (ECG)-derived variables in chronic Chagas disease (CCD) as predictors of cardiac death and new onset ventricular tachycardia (VT). Cardiac arrhythmia is a major cause of death in CCD, and electrical markers may play a significant role in risk stratification. One hundred clinically stable outpatients with CCD were enrolled in this study. They initially underwent a 12-lead resting ECG, signal-averaged ECG, and 24-h ambulatory ECG. Abnormal Q-waves, filtered QRS duration, intraventricular electrical transients (IVET), 24-h standard deviation of normal RR intervals (SDNN), and VT were assessed. Echocardiograms assessed left ventricular ejection fraction. Predictors of cardiac death and new onset VT were identified in a Cox proportional hazard model. During a mean follow-up of 95.3 months, 36 patients had adverse events: 22 new onset VT (mean±SD, 18.4±4‰/year) and 20 deaths (26.4±1.8‰/year). In multivariate analysis, only Q-wave (hazard ratio, HR=6.7; P<0.001), VT (HR=5.3; P<0.001), SDNN<100 ms (HR=4.0; P=0.006), and IVET+ (HR=3.0; P=0.04) were independent predictors of the composite endpoint of cardiac death and new onset VT. A prognostic score was developed by weighting points proportional to beta coefficients and summing-up: Q-wave=2; VT=2; SDNN<100 ms=1; IVET+=1. Receiver operating characteristic curve analysis optimized the cutoff value at >1. In 10,000 bootstraps, the C-statistic of this novel score was non-inferior to a previously validated (Rassi) score (0.89±0.03 and 0.80±0.05, respectively; test for non-inferiority: P<0.001). In CCD, surface ECG-derived variables are predictors of cardiac death and new onset VT.