Inhibition of Enterococcus faecium adherence to collagen by antibodies against high-affinity binding subdomains of Acm.

Strains of Enterococcus faecium express a cell wall-anchored protein, Acm, which mediates adherence to collagen. Here, we (i) identify the minimal and high-affinity binding subsegments of Acm and (ii) show that anti-Acm immunoglobulin Gs (IgGs) purified against these subsegments reduced E. faecium TX2535 strain collagen adherence up to 73 and 50%, respectively, significantly more than the total IgGs against the full-length Acm A domain (28%) (P < 0.0001). Blocking Acm adherence with functional subsegment-specific antibodies raises the possibility of their use as therapeutic or prophylactic agents.

LDOC1, A NOVEL BIOMARKER OF PROGNOSIS IN CHRONIC LYMPHOCYTIC LEUKEMIA

In chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL), one of the best predictors of outcome is the somatic mutation status of the immunoglobulin heavy chain variable region (IGHV) genes. Patients whose CLL cells have unmutated IGHV genes have a median survival of 8 years; those with mutated IGHV genes have a median survival of 25 years. To identify new prognostic biomarkers and molecular targets for therapy in untreated CLL patients, we reanalyzed the raw data from four published gene expression profiling microarray studies. Of 88 candidate biomarkers associated with IGHV somatic mutation status, we identified LDOC1 (Leucine Zipper, Down-regulated in Cancer 1), as one of the most significantly differentially expressed genes that distinguished mutated from unmutated CLL cases. LDOC1 is a putative transcription factor of unknown function in B-cell development and CLL pathophysiology. Using a highly sensitive quantitative RT-PCR (QRT-PCR) assay, we confirmed that LDOC1 mRNA was dramatically down-regulated in mutated compared to unmutated CLL cases. Expression of LDOC1 mRNA was also vii strongly associated with other markers of poor prognosis, including ZAP70 protein and cytogenetic abnormalities of poor prognosis (deletions of chromosomes 6q21, 11q23, and 17p13.1, and trisomy 12). CLL cases positive for LDOC1 mRNA had significantly shorter overall survival than negative cases. Moreover, in a multivariate model, LDOC1 mRNA expression predicted overall survival better than IGHV mutation status or ZAP70 protein, among the best markers of prognosis in CLL. We also discovered LDOC1S, a new LDOC1 splice variant. Using isoform-specific QRT-PCR assays that we developed, we found that both isoforms were expressed in normal B cells (naïve > memory), unmutated CLL cells, and in B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphomas with unmutated IGHV genes. To investigate pathways in which LDOC1 is involved, we knocked down LDOC1 in HeLa cells and performed global gene expression profiling. GFI1 (Growth Factor-Independent 1) emerged as a significantly up-regulated gene in both HeLa cells and CLL cells that expressed high levels of LDOC1. GFI1 oncoprotein is implicated in hematopoietic stem cell maintenance, lymphocyte development, and lymphomagenesis. Our findings indicate that LDOC1 mRNA is an excellent biomarker of overall survival in CLL, and may contribute to B-cell differentiation and malignant transformation.

Suppression by {\it Trypanosoma brucei\/} of anaphylaxis-mediated ion transport in the small intestine of rats

Most tissue-invasive parasitic helminths prime for type 1 hypersensitivity or anaphylaxis during some phase of their life cycles. A prototype in this regard is the nematode Trichinella spiralis. Blood protozoa capable of tissue invasion, such as Trypanosoma brucei, might also be expected to prime for the expression of anaphylaxis. However, this response is usually absent in protozoal infections. The hypothesis tested was that failure of hosts infected with T.brucei to express anaphylaxis is related to this parasite's ability to selectively down-regulate immunoglobulin E (IgE) production, and not to an innate lack of allergenicity on the part of T.brucei-derived antigens. This hypothesis was tested by studying in the intestine of rats, antigen-induced Cl$\sp-$ secretion, which results from a local anaphylactic response mediated by IgE and mucosal mast cells. The Cl$\sp-$ secretory response can be primed either by infection with T.spiralis or by the parenteral administration of antigen. Anaphylaxis-induced Cl$\sp-$ secretion is expressed in vitro, and can be quantified electrophysiologically, as a change in transmural short-circuit current when sensitized intestine is mounted in Ussing chambers and challenged with the sensitizing antigen.^ Rats injected parenterally with trypanosome antigen elicited intestinal anaphylaxis in response to antigenic challenge. In contrast, the intestine of rats infected with T.brucei failed to respond to challenge with trypanosome antigen. Infection with T.brucei also suppressed antigen-induced Cl$\sp-$ secretion in rats sensitized and challenged with various antigens, including T.spiralis antigen. However, T.brucei infection did not inhibit the anaphylactic response in rats concomitantly infected with T.spiralis. Relative to the anaphylactic mediators, T.brucei infection blocked production of IgE in rats parenterally injected with antigen but not in T.spiralis-infected hosts. Also, the mucosal mastocytosis normally associated with trichinosis was unaffected by the trypanosome infection. These results support the conclusion that the failure to express anaphylaxis-mediated Cl$\sp-$ secretion in T.brucei infected rats, is due to this protozoan's ability to inhibit IgE production and not to the lack of allergenicity of trypanosome antigens. ^

A prospective cohort study evaluating the state of medical readiness in the United States Air Force and risk factors to improve the medical readiness posture

A cohort of 418 United States Air Force (USAF) personnel from over 15 different bases deployed to Morocco in 1994. This was the first study of its kind and was designed with two primary goals: to determine if the USAF was medically prepared to deploy with its changing mission in the new world order, and to evaluate factors that might improve or degrade USAF medical readiness. The mean length of deployment was 21 days. The cohort was 95% male, 86% enlisted, 65% married, and 78% white.^ This study shows major deficiencies indicating the USAF medical readiness posture has not fully responded to meet its new mission requirements. Lack of required logistical items (e.g., mosquito nets, rainboots, DEET insecticide cream, etc.) revealed a low state of preparedness. The most notable deficiency was that 82.5% (95% CI = 78.4, 85.9) did not have permethrin pretreated mosquito nets and 81.0% (95% CI = 76.8, 84.6) lacked mosquito net poles. Additionally, 18% were deficient on vaccinations and 36% had not received a tuberculin skin test. Excluding injections, the overall compliance for preventive medicine requirements had a mean frequency of only 50.6% (95% CI = 45.36, 55.90).^ Several factors had a positive impact on compliance with logistical requirements. The most prominent was "receiving a medical intelligence briefing" from the USAF Public Health. After adjustment for mobility and age, individuals who underwent a briefing were 17.2 (95% CI = 4.37, 67.99) times more likely to have received an immunoglobulin shot and 4.2 (95% CI = 1.84, 9.45) times more likely to start their antimalarial prophylaxsis at the proper time. "Personnel on mobility" had the second strongest positive effect on medical readiness. When mobility and briefing were included in models, "personnel on mobility" were 2.6 (95% CI = 1.19, 5.53) times as likely to have DEET insecticide and 2.2 (95% CI = 1.16, 4.16) times as likely to have had a TB skin test.^ Five recommendations to improve the medical readiness of the USAF were outlined: upgrade base level logistical support, improve medical intelligence messages, include medical requirements on travel orders, place more personnel on mobility or only deploy personnel on mobility, and conduct research dedicated to capitalize on the powerful effect from predeployment briefings.^ Since this is the first study of its kind, more studies should be performed in different geographic theaters to assess medical readiness and establish acceptable compliance levels for the USAF. ^

IMMUNOGLOBULINS IN PERIODONTAL DISEASE

Periodontal disease is the major cause of tooth loss in man. The initial histological picture of the inflamed gingiva is characteristic of local inflammatory reaction involving polymorphonuclear leukocytes, vasculitis and localized tissue loss. Subsequent clinical stages of periodontal disease (mild gingivitis) show histological evidence of the involvement of the immune response with initial accumulation of macrophages, and lymphocytes devoid of surface staining immunoglobulins (presumably T cells). As the disease progresses, a predominance of surface and cytoplasmic staining lymphocytes and plasma cells are seen (severe gingivitis and periodontitis). Whether the occurrence of the immunoglobulin positive lymphocytes and the concurrent loss of collagen and resorption of alveolar bone seen in periodontitis is indicative of a direct cause and effect relationship has been a controversy.^ The majority of investigations in the periodontal field have involved the use of peripheral blood lymphocytes or serum. Blastogenic responses of peripheral blood lymphocytes and serum antibody titers from periodontal patients to a variety of oral bacteria have not shown any correlation between response and the severity of disease. The need to study the local immune response in inflamed gingiva is apparent. Since there are no baseline studies on the functional capabilities of the lymphoid cells present in gingiva from periodontitis patients, an in depth study involving the role of the immunoglobulin positive lymphocytes was investigated.^ Inflamed gingiva from four clinically defined periodontal disease states (mild gingivitis, severe gingivitis, periodontitis and severe periodontitis) were placed in gingival organ cultures. Class specific immunoglobulins were quantitated in gingival organ culture supernatants using an indirect sandwich technique. A significant difference in mean levels of IgA and IgG was seen between mild gingivitis and periodontitis (P < .00l, P = .001), as well as in IgG levels between periodontitis and severe periodontitis (P = .001). The predominance of IgG in gingival organ culture supernatants and the statistically significant findings that the overall mean levels of IgG between mild gingivitis and periodontitis (P = .014) and between severe periodontitis and periodontitis (P = .001) suggested a possible indicator of periodontal disease. The presence of IgG in gingival organ culture supernatants was shown to be a product of actively secreting plasma cells. The incorporation of radiolabelled amino acids into IgG was noted over a seven-day period with a peak response at day 4-5. The inhibition of IgG synthesis by cyclohexamide confirmed the contention that IgG was a product of de novo synthesis and not serum derived.^ The specificity of immunoglobulins derived from gingival organ cultures were studied using a whole bacterial agglutination test. Oral bacteria frequently cultured from periodontal patients were assessed for their ability to be agglutinated by gingival organ culture supernatants. A positive correlation of antibody titer and severity of disease was seen with five strains of Actinomyces viscosus, two of Actinomyces naeslundii and one Actinomyces israelii. The agglutination of bacteria was shown to be due to the specific interaction of immunoglobulin and cell-wall antigen. ^

THE ROLE OF B CELLS IN THE T CELL DEPENDENT RELEASE OF HUMAN B CELL GROWTH FACTOR

Quiescent human B cells are postulated to go through activation and proliferation phases before undergoing differentiative phase for immunoglobulin secretion. The present studies address some of the aspects of activation and proliferation phase of normal human B cells. The definitions of signals responsible for B cell activation and proliferation resulted in the development of a highly specific, reproducible B cell growth factor (BCGF) assay. This BCGF bioassay utilizes activation by rabbit anti-human IgM-antibody. The functional specificity of this assay for measuring BCGF activity was demonstrated by the finding that target B cells proliferated but did not differentiate. The factor specificity was determined by specific absorption of BCGF by anti-IgM activated B cells. This assay was utilized for the studies of T-B cell collaboration and the essential function of monocytes in the production and/or release of B cell growth factor in a syngeneic in vitro system. It is apparent that highly purified T cells are poor producers of BCGF by themselves and require monocytes to secrete significant quantities of BCGF upon PHA stimulation. Macrophage soluble factor, Interleukin 1, is capable of replacing monocyte function for the release of BCGF by activated T cells. In our studies, B cells are incapable to function as accessory cells to replace monocyte function. Normal B cells are also not capable of producing BCGF under our experimental observations. However, the addition of these B cells at an optimum cell density (T:B ratio 1:1) doubles the monocyte dependent release of BCGF by syngeneic T cells. The augmentative role of B cells is expanded to understand the mechanism of BCGF release by T cells. It is observed from our studies that DR antigen of B cell surface is involved in the release of BCGF. The functional difference between DR of B cells and monocytes is observed as IL-1 could replace DR-treated monocytes whereas failed to replace DR-treated B cells for the release of BCGF by T cells. This functional difference may be attributed to the reported microheterogeneity in DR of B cells and monocytes. The addition of irradiated B cells increased the monocyte dependent T cell proliferation, suggesting the increase of T cell pool for BCGF release. In summary, the development of a biological assay specific for B cell growth factor led to the delineation of an interesting role of B cells in the release of its own growth factor by T cells. . . . (Author's abstract exceeds stipulated maximum length. Discontinued here with permission of author.) UMI ^

The role of AT1 receptor autoantibodies in the pathophysiology of preeclampsia

Preeclampsia is a disease that affects 3–5% of all pregnancies. The cause is unknown and there is currently no treatment. The disease poses significant health risks to both the mother and the fetus. To date, research on the topic has not produced a convincing cause for the development of the hallmark symptoms of preeclampsia. The hypothesis of an agonistic autoimmune response to the AT1 receptor is presented. Immunoglobulin fractions from normotensive and preeclampsia patients were prepared for experimental tests. Model systems were tested in three categories to determine if AT 1 receptor specific activation and receptor-ligand interaction was caused by a suspected autoantibody. Activation was found in rat neonatal cardiornyocytes that caused an increased contraction rate. This activity was found in preeclampsia patients, absent in normotensive patients. The activation was antagonized by losartan, an AT1 receptor antagonist, and by epitope peptide competition of the receptor-ligand type interaction. This epitope was the 7 amino acid peptide fragment, AFHYESQ, a sequence present in the second extracellular loop of the AT1 receptor. The patterns of AT1 receptor activation were also found in a human trophoblast cell line, HTR8, with an effect on Pai-1 secretion, a factor that plays a role in preventing hypercoagulation. In human mesangial cells, the AT1 receptor autoantibody present in the immunoglobulin fraction from preeclampsia patients was found to stimulate the secretion of Pai-1, and IL-6, a factor that plays a role in the activation of an inflammatory response. This activity was found in samples from preeclampsia patients, but absent in normotensive patients. Tests including losartan, AFHYESQ, and a non-competitive peptide demonstrated that the secretion of Pai-1 and IL-6 met the criteria for AT1 receptor activation by the suspected agonistic autoantibody. These three model systems address relevant pathophysiology for preeclampsia patients, including increased cardiac output, abnormal placentation, and renal damage. The AT1 receptor agonistic autoantibody is potentially a key player in the development of the pathology and symptoms of preeclampsia. ^

Catalytic antibody response to the Staphylococcus aureus virulence factor Efb

Staphylococcus aureus is a globally prevalent pathogen that can cause a wide variety of acute and chronic diseases in both adults and children, in both immune susceptible populations and healthy individuals. Its ability to cause persistent infections has been linked to multiple immune evasion strategies, including Efb-mediated complement inhibition. As new multi-drug-resistant strains emerge, therapeutic alternatives to traditional antibiotics must be developed. These experiments assessed the ability of healthy patient immunoglobulin to cleave Efb and disable the complement-inhibitory properties of Efb in vitro. Levels of immunoglobulin-mediated Efb catalysis varied both between immunoglobulin isoform/isotype and between individuals. Serum IgG showed the strongest catalytic activity of the immunoglobulin isotypes tested. Additionally, IgG hydrolyzed the virulence factor in a way that enabled only minimal binding to the complement component C3b, effectively blocking Efb-mediated inhibition of complement lysis. Salivary IgA and serum IgM did not block Efb-mediated inhibition of complement. Catalytic IgG selectively cleaved Efb and showed no cleavage of a variety of other proteins tested. Catalytic activity of IgG was inhibited by serine protease inhibitors, but not by other protease inhibitors, suggesting a serine-protease mechanism of catalysis. It is proposed that varying concentrations and activity levels of catalytic IgG between healthy individuals and those with current or recurrent S. aureus infections in both adult and pediatric populations be studied in order to assess the potential effectiveness of passive immunization therapy with catalytic monoclonal IgG. ^

Emerging roles for the double strand break repair protein 53BP1 in transcriptional regulation

Disruption of the mechanisms that regulate cell-cycle checkpoints, DNA repair, and apoptosis results in genomic instability and often leads to the development of cancer. In response to double stranded breaks (DSBs) as induced by ionizing radiation (IR), generated during DNA replication, or through immunoglobulin heavy chain (IgH) rearrangements in T and B cells of lymphoid origin, the protein kinases ATM and ATR are central players that activate signaling pathways leading to DSB repair. p53 binding protein 1 (53BP1) participates in the repair of DNA double stranded breaks (DSBs) where it is recruited to or near sites of DNA damage. In addition to its well established role in DSB repair, multiple lines of evidence implicate 53BP1 in transcription which stem from its initial discovery as a p53 binding protein in a yeast two-hybrid screen. However, the mechanisms behind the role of 53BP1 in these processes are not well understood. ^ 53BP1 possesses several motifs that are likely important for its role in DSB repair including two BRCA1 C-terminal repeats, tandem Tudor domains, and a variety of phosphorylation sites. In addition to these motifs, we identified a glycine and arginine rich region (GAR) upstream of the Tudor domains, a sequence that is oftentimes serves as a site for protein arginine methylation. The focus of this project was to characterize the methylation of 53BP1 and to evaluate how methylation influenced the role of 53BP1 as a tumor suppressor. ^ Using a variety of biochemical techniques, we demonstrated that 53BP1 is methylated by the PRMT1 methyltransferase in vivo. Moreover, GAR methylation occurs on arginine residues in an asymmetric manner. We further show that sequences upstream of the Tudor domains that do not include the GAR stretch are sufficient for 53BP1 oligomerization in vivo. While investigating the role of arginine methylation in 53BP1 function, we discovered that 53BP1 associates with proteins of the general transcription apparatus as well as to other factors implicated in coordinating transcription with chromatin function. Collectively, these data support a role for 53BP1 in regulating transcription and provide insight into the possible mechanisms by which this occurs. ^

Antibody response to Panton-Valentine Leukocidin, a Staphylococcus aureus virulence factor, in pediatric patients from Texas Children's Hospital in Houston, Texas

Staphylococcus aureus is an important human pathogen of global health significance, whose frequency is increasing and whose persistence and versatility allow it to remain established in communities worldwide. An observed significant increase in infections, particularly in children with no predisposing risk factors or medical conditions, led to an investigation into pediatric humoral immune response to Panton-Valentine Leukocidin (PVL) and to other antigens expressed by S. aureus that represent the important classes of virulence activities. Patients who were diagnosed with staphylococcal infections were enrolled (n=60), and serum samples collected at the time of admission were analyzed using ELISA and Western blot to screen for immune response to the panel of recombinant proteins. The dominant circulating immunoglobulin titers in this pediatric population were primarily IgG, were specific, and were directed against LukF and LukS, while suppression of other important virulence factors in the presence of PVL was suggested. Patients with invasive infections (osteomyelitis, pneumonia or myositis) had higher titers against LukF and LukS compared to patients with non-invasive infections (abscesses, cellulitis or lymphadenitis). In patients with osteomyelitis, antibody responses to LukF and LukS were higher than antibody responses to any other virulence factor examined. This description of immune response to selected virulence factors of S. aureus caused by isolates of the USA300 lineage in children is novel. Antibody titers also correlated with markers of inflammation. The significance of these correlations remains to be understood.^

Secondary analysis of effectivness of tinidazole-containing-quadruple eradication therapy in asymptomatic H. pylori infected children in El Paso

Helicobacter pylori infection is frequently acquired during childhood. This microorganism is known to cause gastritis, and duodenal ulcer in pediatric patients, however most children remain completely asymptomatic to the infection. Currently there is no consensus in favor of treatment of H. pylori infection in asymptomatic children. The firstline of treatment for this population is triple medication therapy including two antibacterial agents and one proton pump inhibitor for a 2 week duration course. Decreased eradication rate of less than 75% has been documented with the use of this first-line therapy but novel tinidazole-containing quadruple sequential therapies seem worth investigating. None of the previous studies on such therapy has been done in the United States of America. As part of an iron deficiency anemia study in asymptomatic H. pylori infected children of El Paso, Texas, we conducted a secondary data analysis of study data collected in this trial to assess the effectiveness of this tinidazole-containing sequential quadruple therapy compared to placebo on clearing the infection. Subjects were selected from a group of asymptomatic children identified through household visits to 11,365 randomly selected dwelling units. After obtaining parental consent and child assent a total of 1,821 children 3-10 years of age were screened and 235 were positive to a novel urine immunoglobulin class G antibodies test for H. pylori infection and confirmed as infected using a 13C urea breath test, using a hydrolysis urea rate >10 μg/min as cut-off value. Out of those, 119 study subjects had a complete physical exam and baseline blood work and were randomly allocated to four groups, two of which received active H. pylori eradication medication alone or in combination with iron, while the other two received iron only or placebo only. Follow up visits to their houses were done to assess compliance and occurrence of adverse events and at 45+ days post-treatment, a second urea breath test was performed to assess their infection status. The effectiveness was primarily assessed on intent to treat basis (i.e., according to their treatment allocation), and the proportion of those who cleared their infection using a cut-off value >10 μg/min of for urea hydrolysis rate, was the primary outcome. Also we conducted analysis on a per-protocol basis and according to the cytotoxin associated gene A product of the H. pylori infection status. Also we compared the rate of adverse events across the two arms. On intent-to-treat and per-protocol analyses, 44.3% and 52.9%, respectively, of the children receiving the novel quadruple sequential eradication cleared their infection compared to 12.2% and 15.4% in the arms receiving iron or placebo only, respectively. Such differences were statistically significant (p<0.001). The study medications were well accepted and safe. In conclusion, we found in this study population, of mostly asymptomatically H. pylori infected children, living in the US along the border with Mexico, that the quadruple sequential eradication therapy cleared the infection in only half of the children receiving this treatment. Research is needed to assess the antimicrobial susceptibility of the strains of H. pylori infecting this population to formulate more effective therapies. ^

Respiratory syncytial virus infection in hematopoietic stem cell transplant patients

Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) is a major cause of respiratory tract infections in immunocompromised patients such as children less than 2 years, premature infants with congenital heart disease and chronic lung disease, elderly patients and patients who have undergone hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT). HSCT patients are at high risk of RSV infection, at increased risk of developing pneumonia, and RSV-related mortality. Immunodeficiency can be a major risk factor for severe infection & mortality. Therapy of RSV infection with Ribavirin, Palivizumab and Immunoglobulin has shown to reduce the risk of progression to LRI and mortality, especially if initiated early in the disease. Data on RSV infection in HSCT patients is limited, especially at various levels of immunodeficiency. 323 RSV infections in HSCT patients have been identified between 1/1995 and 8/2009 at University of Texas M D Anderson Cancer Center (UTMDACC). In this proposed study, we attempted to analyze a de-identified database of these cases and describe the epidemiologic characteristics of RSV infection in HSCT patients, the course of the infection, rate of development of pneumonia and RSV-related mortality in HSCT patients at UTMDACC.^ Key words: RSV infections, HSCT patients ^

Disease risk factors and humoral antibody response to periodontal-associated pathogens: A model to evaluate periodontal disease in older adults

Periodontal diseases (PD) are infectious, inflammatory, and tissue destructive events which affect the periodontal ligament that surround and support the teeth. Periodontal diseases are the major cause of tooth loss after age 35, with gingivitis and periodontitis affecting 75% of the adult population. A select group of bacterial organisms are associated with periodontal pathogenesis. There is a direct association between oral hygiene and prevention of PD. The importance of genetic differences and host immune response capabilities in determining host, susceptibility or resistance to PD has not been established. This study examined the risk factors and serum (humoral) immune response to periodontal diseased-associated pathogens in a 55 to 80+ year old South Texas study sample with PD. This study sample was described by: age, sex, ethnicity, the socioeconomic factors marital status, income and occupation, IgG, IgA, IgM immunoglobulin status, and the autoimmune response markers rheumatoid factor (RF) and antinuclear antibody (ANA). These variables were used to determine the risk factors associated with development of PD. Serum IgG, IgA, IgM antibodies to bacterial antigens provided evidence for disease exposure.^ A causal model for PD was constructed from associations for risk factors (ethnicity, marital status, income, and occupation) with dental exam and periodontitis. The multiple correlation between PD and ethnicity, income and dental exam was significant. Hispanics of low income were least likely to have had a dental exam in the last year and most likely to have PD. The etiologic agents for PD, as evidenced by elevated humoral antibody responses, were the Gram negative microorganisms Bacteroides gingivalis, serotypes FDC381 and SUNYaBA7A1-28, and Wolinella recta. Recommendation for a PD prevention and control program are provided. ^

Epidemiology of allergic gastroenteritis in socio-culture perspective of rural Egypt

Diarrhea is a major public health problem in developing countries among infants and young children. Not all episodes of diarrhea are confirmed as infectious, suggesting alternate mechanisms. One such is immunoglobulin E (IgE) mediated or allergic diarrhea that can be seen in food allergy. In order to determine the relation between allergic gastroenteritis and feeding practice, a cohort of 152 infants were followed from birth to one year age in a rural community of Egypt between October, 1987 to April, 1988 were analyzed. In multivariate analysis of the data, statistically conclusive higher risk had been observed with presence of factors, like consumption of milk pudding (RR = 7.4, CI = 1.5-36.2 and p = 0.01), infant's age 3-6 months (RR = 7.7, CI = 1.3-45.9 and p = 0.02), infants whose mothers were vaccinated antenatally (RR = 3.1, CI = 1.3-7.0 and p = 1.3-7.0, p = 0.0) and wet-nursed infants (RR = 2.7, CI = 1.1-6.5 and p = 0.02). In contrast, infants who were completely breast-fed (RR = 0.13, CI = 0.02-0.6 and p = 0.01), and infants family owning a television set (RR = 0.29, CI = 0.1-0.6 and p = 0.0) were less likely to develop allergic gastroenteritis. The role of IgE on development of persistent diarrhea was also examined in a nested case-control design. Multivariate analysis revealed a significant association between detection of fecal IgE and development of persistent diarrhea compared to acute diarrhea (OR = 3.32, CI = 1.0-10.9 and p = 0.04) and health or non diarrhea (OR = 4.8, CI = 1.07-21.7 and p = 0.03) controls. ^

AVIAN ROTAVIRUSES

The prevalence of antirotavirus antibodies in chickens and turkeys in the Gonzales, Texas and Llano, Texas areas was studied. Caged layer chicken flocks were found to have a prevalence of 64% when samples were taken randomly. This compares to 45% in chicken broiler breeder flocks and 92% in turkey breeding flocks. The natural occurrence of turkey rotavirus infection in two separate field studies showed an increase in mortality varying from 9% to 45% above expected death losses. Clinically, pasted vents, lacitude, and general malaise were noted in affected poults. Lesions noted on post mortem examination were; slight ballooning of the small intestine, excessively large ceca, and mild hyperemia of the small and large intestines.^ The use of maternal antibody from simian rotavirus immunized chickens' eggs for preventing murine rotavirus infection in infant mice was investigated. There was a reduction from 91% to 15% incidence when infant mice were treated twice daily with egg yolk immunoglobulin.^ The need for a convenient, easily grown and rapidly reproducing model for avian and mammalian rotaviruses led to the use of coturnix chicks. The turkey rotavirus was adapted to the quail chicks be serial passage. Transmission and scanning electron microscopy as well as micropathological methods were used in the study of the pathogenesis of rotavirus infection in quail and infant mice. ^