Stratification and Prognostic Relevance of Jass's Molecular Classification of Colorectal Cancer

Background: The current proposed model of colorectal tumorigenesis is based primarily on CpG island methylator phenotype (CIMP), microsatellite instability (MSI), KRAS, BRAF, and methylation status of 0-6-Methylguanine DNA Methyltransferase (MGMT) and classifies tumors into five subgroups. The aim of this study is to validate this molecular classification and test its prognostic relevance. Methods: Three hundred two patients were included in this study. Molecular analysis was performed for five CIMP-related promoters (CRABP1, MLH1, p16INK4a, CACNA1G, NEUROG1), MGMT, MSI, KRAS, and BRAF. Methylation in at least 4 promoters or in one to three promoters was considered CIMP-high and CIMP-low (CIMP-H/L), respectively. Results: CIMP-H, CIMP-L, and CIMP-negative were found in 7.1, 43, and 49.9% cases, respectively. One hundred twenty-three tumors (41%) could not be classified into any one of the proposed molecular subgroups, including 107 CIMP-L, 14 CIMP-H, and two CIMP-negative cases. The 10 year survival rate for CIMP-high patients [22.6% (95%CI: 7-43)] was significantly lower than for CIMP-L or CIMP-negative (p = 0.0295). Only the combined analysis of BRAF and CIMP (negative versus L/H) led to distinct prognostic subgroups. Conclusion: Although CIMP status has an effect on outcome, our results underline the need for standardized definitions of low- and high-level CIMP, which clearly hinders an effective prognostic and molecular classification of colorectal cancer.

Eosinophilic esophagitis in adults--no clinical relevance of wheat and rye sensitizations

BACKGROUND: Eosinophilic esophagitis (EE) is often associated with concomitant atopic diseases. In children with EE in whom food allergens have been identified as causative factors, elemental and elimination diets result in an improvement or resolution of symptoms. Most adult EE patients are sensitized to aeroallergens, which cross-react with plant-derived food allergens, most commonly to grass pollen and cereals. AIMS OF THE STUDY: To investigate the clinical relevance of the sensitization to wheat and rye, and the efficacy of an allergen-specific elimination diet in adult EE patients. METHODS: Six patients (five men, one women) with permanently active EE sensitized to grass pollen and the cereals wheat and rye underwent a double-blind placebo-controlled food challenge and were kept on an elimination diet avoiding wheat and rye for 6 weeks. RESULTS: The challenge tests with wheat and rye did not provoke any EE symptoms in all patients. The elimination diet failed in reducing disease activity. Although one patient noticed an improvement of symptoms, endoscopic and histopathologic findings remained unchanged. CONCLUSIONS: In adult EE patients, sensitization to wheat and rye does not seem causative for EE. Elimination diet is not a reliable and efficient therapeutic measure in EE patients sensitized to wheat and rye. Low specific immunoglobulin-E levels to wheat and rye may be a consequence of the underlying grass pollen allergy.

Clinical relevance of coronary angiography at the time of percutaneous closure of a patent foramen ovale

BACKGROUND: The value of incidental coronary angiography during percutaneous shunt closure to screen for asymptomatic coronary artery disease (CAD) is unknown. METHODS: On the occasion of percutaneous closure of patent foramen ovale (PFO), incidental coronary angiography routinely offered to men >40 and women >50 years, or younger patients with particular risk patterns, was performed in 575 patients (64% men, mean age 55 +/- 10 years, mean 1.5 +/- 1.1 cardiovascular risk factors) without overt history, signs, or symptoms of CAD. RESULTS: CAD was found in 164 patients (29%); 53 (9%) had >or=50% diameter stenoses. Thirty patients (5%) had one-vessel, 13 (2%) two-vessel, and 10 (2%) three-vessel disease. Patients with CAD (n = 164) were older (60 +/- 9 vs. 53 +/- 10 years; P < 0.0001), more frequently male (76% vs. 59%; P = 0.0002), and had a higher body mass index (26.5 +/- 4.0 vs. 25.4 +/- 4.6; P = 0.006) and more cardiovascular risk factors (2.0 +/- 1.1 vs. 1.2 +/- 1.0; P < 0.0001). There were six procedural complications (1%). Two were unequivocally related to coronary angiography: one minor stroke (diplopia), and one iatrogenic dissection of the right coronary ostium requiring stenting. Furthermore, four arteriovenous fistulae at the puncture site requiring elective surgical closure were possibly related to coronary angiography. Forty-five patients (8% of total) underwent percutaneous (n = 43) or surgical (n = 2) revascularization. CONCLUSIONS: In selected asymptomatic patients referred for percutaneous PFO closure, incidental coronary angiography discloses a rather high prevalence of clinically unsuspected CAD. These findings are relevant not only for timely revascularization but also for maintenance of long-term antiplatelet therapy beyond the few months recommended after PFO closure.

Characteristics, determinants, and clinical relevance of CD4 T cell recovery to <500 cells/microL in HIV type 1-infected individuals receiving potent antiretroviral therapy

BACKGROUND: The CD4 T cell count recovery in human immunodeficiency virus type 1 (HIV-1)-infected individuals receiving potent antiretroviral therapy (ART) shows high variability. We studied the determinants and the clinical relevance of incomplete CD4 T cell restoration. METHODS: Longitudinal CD4 T cell count was analyzed in 293 participants of the Swiss HIV Cohort Study who had had a plasma HIV-1 RNA load <1000 copies/mL for > or =5 years. CD4 T cell recovery was stratified by CD4 T cell count 5 years after initiation of ART (> or =500 cells/microL was defined as a complete response, and <500 cells/microL was defined as an incomplete response). Determinants of incomplete responses and clinical events were evaluated using logistic regression and survival analyses. RESULTS: The median CD4 T cell count increased from 180 cells/microL at baseline to 576 cells/microL 5 years after ART initiation. A total of 35.8% of patients were incomplete responders, of whom 47.6% reached a CD4 T cell plateau <500 cells/microL. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention HIV-1 disease category B and/or C events occurred in 21% of incomplete responders and in 14.4% of complete responders (P>.05). Older age (adjusted odds ratio [aOR], 1.71 per 10-year increase; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.21-2.43), lower baseline CD4 T cell count (aOR, 0.37 per 100-cell increase; 95% CI, 0.28-0.49), and longer duration of HIV infection (aOR, 2.39 per 10-year increase; 95% CI, 1.19-4.81) were significantly associated with a CD4 T cell count <500 cells/microL at 5 years. The median increases in CD4 T cell count after 3-6 months of ART were smaller in incomplete responders (P<.001) and predicted, in conjunction with baseline CD4 T cell count and age, incomplete response with 80% sensitivity and 72% specificity. CONCLUSION: Individuals with incomplete CD4 T cell recovery to <500 cells/microL had more advanced HIV-1 infection at baseline. CD4 T cell changes during the first 3-6 months of ART already reflect the capacity of the immune system to replenish depleted CD4 T lymphocytes.

Diagnostic approach to hypercalcemia: relevance of parathyroid hormone and parathyroid hormone-related protein measurements

Background: Parathyroid hormone (PTH) and parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTH-rP) are two potent hypercalcemic hormones that act on the same targets. Autonomous secretion of the former is involved in primary hyperparathyroidism (PHPT), whereas the latter is responsible for humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy (HHM). Methods: From 250 consecutive, hypercalcemic serum samples sent to our laboratory for assessment of intact PTH, we were able to obtain clinical information, as well as an additional plasma sample for PTH-rP measurement, in 134 patients. At the time of sampling, patients could be classified into seven groups: cancer without known bone metastases (CaNoMeta, n=36), cancer with bone metastases (CaMeta, n=9), no evidence of cancer (noEvCa, n=71), sarcoidosis (Sarc, n=3), end-stage renal disease (ESRD, n=12), vitamin D overdose (VIT-D, n=2), and hyperthyroidism (Thyr, n=1). Results: In the CaNoMeta group, 29/36 patients had elevated PTH-rP levels, 9/36 patients had inappropriately elevated PTH levels, and 5/36 had elevated levels of both hormones. In the CaMeta group, three of the nine patients had inappropriately elevated PTH levels, two of them with concomitantly elevated PTH-rP levels. In the NoEvCa group, 63/71 patients had an inappropriate elevation of PTH levels and were diagnosed as having PHPT. Four of the 71 patients had elevated levels of both PTH and PTH-rP; three of them were in poor health and died within a short period of time. All of the ESRD patients had very high PTH and normal PTH-rP levels, except for one woman with high PTH-rP and undetectable PTH levels; she died from what later turned out to be a recurrent bladder carcinoma. In the Sarc, Vit-D, and Thyr groups, both PTH and PTH-rP levels were normal. Conclusions: (1) Elevated PTH-rP levels are a common finding in cancer patients without bone metastases. Intact PTH, however, should always be measured in hypercalcemic patients with malignancy because concurrent primary hyperparathyroidism is not rare. (2) Primary hyperparathyroidism accounts for hypercalcemia in 90% of patients without evidence of cancer whose PTH-rP levels may also be found to be elevated in a few cases, even some with surgically demonstrated parathyroid adenoma.

Perception of atrial fibrillation before and after radiofrequency catheter ablation: relevance of asymptomatic arrhythmia recurrence.

BACKGROUND The objective of this study was to assess the incidence and impact of asymptomatic arrhythmia in patients with highly symptomatic atrial fibrillation (AF) who qualified for radiofrequency (RF) catheter ablation. METHODS AND RESULTS In this prospective study, 114 patients with at least 3 documented AF episodes together with corresponding symptoms and an ineffective trial of at least 1 antiarrhythmic drug were selected for RF ablation. With the use of CARTO, circumferential lesions around the pulmonary veins and linear lesions at the roof of the left atrium and along the left atrial isthmus were placed. A continuous, 7-day, Holter session was recorded before ablation, right after ablation, and after 3, 6, and 12 months of follow-up. During each 7-day Holter monitoring, the patients recorded quality and duration of any complaints by using a detailed symptom log. More than 70,000 hours of ECG recording were analyzed. In the 7-day Holter records before ablation, 92 of 114 patients (81%) had documented AF episodes. All episodes were symptomatic in 35 patients (38%). In 52 patients (57%), both symptomatic and asymptomatic episodes were recorded, whereas in 5 patients (5%), all documented AF episodes were asymptomatic. After ablation, the percentage of patients with only asymptomatic AF recurrences increased to 37% (P<0.05) at the 6-month follow-up. An analysis of patient characteristics and arrhythmia patterns failed to identify a specific subset who were at high risk for the development of asymptomatic AF. CONCLUSIONS Even in patients presenting with highly symptomatic AF, asymptomatic episodes may occur and significantly increase after catheter ablation. A symptom-only-based follow-up would substantially overestimate the success rate. Objective measures such as long-term Holter monitoring are needed to identify asymptomatic AF recurrences after ablation.

The growing galectin network in colon cancer and clinical relevance of cytoplasmic galectin-3 reactivity

BACKGROUND/AIM Human lectins translate sugar-encoded signals of cell surface glycoconjugates into biological effects, and this is what is known for the adhesion/growth-regulatory galectins. In addition, the multifunctional members of this group can be intracellular, binding to distinct proteins. The presence of galectins and galectin reactivity were exemplarily studied in the present article. MATERIALS AND METHODS We combined immuno- and lectin histochemical monitoring in colon cancer on tissue arrays. RESULTS Intracellular presence of galectins-7 and -9 in colon cancer is detected, extending the previously known set of five expressed lectins this tumor type. The assumed significance of intracellular galectin presence, e.g. for an interplay with BCL2, β-catenin, oncogenic KRAS or synexin, is underscored by respective staining with labeled galectin-3. Statistical significance was obtained for galectin-3 staining with respect to tumor differentiation (p=0.0376), lymph node metastasis (p=0.0069) and lymphatic invasion (p=0.0156). Survival was correlated to staining, galectin-3 reactivity indicating a favorable prognosis (p=0.0183), albeit not as an independent marker. No correlation to KRAS/BRAF status was detected. CONCLUSION These results encourage further testing of labeled human galectins as probes and immunohistochemical fingerprinting instead of measuring single or few activities, in colon cancer and other tumor types.

Clinical relevance of DPYD variants c.1679T>G, c.1236G>A/HapB3, and c.1601G>A as predictors of severe fluoropyrimidine-associated toxicity: a systematic review and meta-analysis of individual patient data

BACKGROUND The best-known cause of intolerance to fluoropyrimidines is dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPD) deficiency, which can result from deleterious polymorphisms in the gene encoding DPD (DPYD), including DPYD*2A and c.2846A>T. Three other variants-DPYD c.1679T>G, c.1236G>A/HapB3, and c.1601G>A-have been associated with DPD deficiency, but no definitive evidence for the clinical validity of these variants is available. The primary objective of this systematic review and meta-analysis was to assess the clinical validity of c.1679T>G, c.1236G>A/HapB3, and c.1601G>A as predictors of severe fluoropyrimidine-associated toxicity. METHODS We did a systematic review of the literature published before Dec 17, 2014, to identify cohort studies investigating associations between DPYD c.1679T>G, c.1236G>A/HapB3, and c.1601G>A and severe (grade ≥3) fluoropyrimidine-associated toxicity in patients treated with fluoropyrimidines (fluorouracil, capecitabine, or tegafur-uracil as single agents, in combination with other anticancer drugs, or with radiotherapy). Individual patient data were retrieved and analysed in a multivariable analysis to obtain an adjusted relative risk (RR). Effect estimates were pooled by use of a random-effects meta-analysis. The threshold for significance was set at a p value of less than 0·0167 (Bonferroni correction). FINDINGS 7365 patients from eight studies were included in the meta-analysis. DPYD c.1679T>G was significantly associated with fluoropyrimidine-associated toxicity (adjusted RR 4·40, 95% CI 2·08-9·30, p<0·0001), as was c.1236G>A/HapB3 (1·59, 1·29-1·97, p<0·0001). The association between c.1601G>A and fluoropyrimidine-associated toxicity was not significant (adjusted RR 1·52, 95% CI 0·86-2·70, p=0·15). Analysis of individual types of toxicity showed consistent associations of c.1679T>G and c.1236G>A/HapB3 with gastrointestinal toxicity (adjusted RR 5·72, 95% CI 1·40-23·33, p=0·015; and 2·04, 1·49-2·78, p<0·0001, respectively) and haematological toxicity (adjusted RR 9·76, 95% CI 3·03-31·48, p=0·00014; and 2·07, 1·17-3·68, p=0·013, respectively), but not with hand-foot syndrome. DPYD*2A and c.2846A>T were also significantly associated with severe fluoropyrimidine-associated toxicity (adjusted RR 2·85, 95% CI 1·75-4·62, p<0·0001; and 3·02, 2·22-4·10, p<0·0001, respectively). INTERPRETATION DPYD variants c.1679T>G and c.1236G>A/HapB3 are clinically relevant predictors of fluoropyrimidine-associated toxicity. Upfront screening for these variants, in addition to the established variants DPYD*2A and c.2846A>T, is recommended to improve the safety of patients with cancer treated with fluoropyrimidines. FUNDING None.

Prognostic Relevance of Palliative Primary Tumor Removal in 37,793 Metastatic Colorectal Cancer Patients: A Population-Based, Propensity Score-Adjusted Trend Analysis

OBJECTIVE To assess whether palliative primary tumor resection in colorectal cancer patients with incurable stage IV disease is associated with improved survival. BACKGROUND There is a heated debate regarding whether or not an asymptomatic primary tumor should be removed in patients with incurable stage IV colorectal disease. METHODS Stage IV colorectal cancer patients were identified in the Surveillance, Epidemiology, and End Results database between 1998 and 2009. Patients undergoing surgery to metastatic sites were excluded. Overall survival and cancer-specific survival were compared between patients with and without palliative primary tumor resection using risk-adjusted Cox proportional hazard regression models and stratified propensity score methods. RESULTS Overall, 37,793 stage IV colorectal cancer patients were identified. Of those, 23,004 (60.9%) underwent palliative primary tumor resection. The rate of patients undergoing palliative primary cancer resection decreased from 68.4% in 1998 to 50.7% in 2009 (P < 0.001). In Cox regression analysis after propensity score matching primary cancer resection was associated with a significantly improved overall survival [hazard ratio (HR) of death = 0.40, 95% confidence interval (CI) = 0.39-0.42, P < 0.001] and cancer-specific survival (HR of death = 0.39, 95% CI = 0.38-0.40, P < 0.001). The benefit of palliative primary cancer resection persisted during the time period 1998 to 2009 with HRs equal to or less than 0.47 for both overall and cancer-specific survival. CONCLUSIONS On the basis of this population-based cohort of stage IV colorectal cancer patients, palliative primary tumor resection was associated with improved overall and cancer-specific survival. Therefore, the dogma that an asymptomatic primary tumor never should be resected in patients with unresectable colorectal cancer metastases must be questioned.

Relevance of In-vitro Tests of Adhesive and Composite Dental Materials. A Review in 3 Parts. Part 2: Non-standardized tests of composite materials

Summary The first part of this review examined ISO approval requirements and in vitro testing. In the second part, non-standardized test methods for composite materials are presented and discussed. Physical tests are primarily described. Analyses of surface gloss and alterations, as well as aging simulations of dental materials are presented. Again, the importance of laboratory tests in determining clinical outcomes is evaluated. Differences in the measurement protocols of the various testing institutes and how these differences can in?uence the results are also discussed. Because there is no standardization of test protocols, the values determined by different institutes cannot be directly compared. However, the ranking of the tested materials should be the same if a valid protocol is applied by different institutes. The modulus of elasticity, the expansion after water sorption, and the polishability of the material are all clinically relevant, whereas factors measured by other test protocols may have no clinical correlation. The handling properties of the materials are highly dependent on operators' preferences. Therefore, no standard values can be given.

Relevance of in vitro tests of adhesive and composite dental materials, a review in 3 parts. Part 1: Approval requirements and standardized testing of composite materials according to ISO specifications

The first part of this three-part review on the relevance of laboratory testing of composites and adhesives deals with approval requirements for composite materials. We compare the in vivo and in vitro literature data and discuss the relevance of in vitro analyses. The standardized ISO protocols are presented, with a focus on the evaluation of physical parameters. These tests all have a standardized protocol that describes the entire test set-up. The tests analyse flexural strength, depth of cure, susceptibility to ambient light, color stability, water sorption and solubility, and radiopacity. Some tests have a clinical correlation. A high flexural strength, for instance, decreases the risk of fractures of the marginal ridge in posterior restorations and incisal edge build-ups of restored anterior teeth. Other tests do not have a clinical correlation or the threshold values are too low, which results in an approval of materials that show inferior clinical properties (e.g., radiopacity). It is advantageous to know the test set-ups and the ideal threshold values to correctly interpret the material data. Overall, however, laboratory assessment alone cannot ensure the clinical success of a product.

Prognostic relevance of Bcl-2 overexpression in surgically treated prostate cancer is not caused by increased copy number or translocation of the gene

Overexpression of anti-apoptotic Bcl-2 plays a role in prostate cancer progression, particularly in transformation to androgen-independent disease. Androgen-independent prostate cancers have been shown to harbor Bcl-2 gene copy number gains frequently suggesting that this genetic alteration might play a role in Bcl-2 overexpression. The relation of Bcl-2 overexpression and copy number gains or translocation of the BCL-2 gene in prostate cancer under hormone-naïve conditions is unknown.

Clinical relevance of cytomegalovirus viraemia(*,†)

Using new sensitive quantitative polymerase chain reaction (PCR) assays, cytomegalovirus (CMV) DNA is often detectable in the plasma of immunosuppressed patients. We investigated the prognostic value of a positive CMV DNA test for the development of CMV end-organ disease, other AIDS-defining events and mortality.