40 resultados para MAJOR DIAGNOSTIC ANTIGEN

em BORIS: Bern Open Repository and Information System - Berna - Suiça


Relevância:

90.00% 90.00%

Publicador:

Resumo:

Folliculo-stellate cells are a nonendocrine, sustentacular-like complementary population of the anterior pituitary. They currently are considered as functionally and phenotypically heterogeneous, with one subpopulation of folliculo-stellate cells possibly representing resident adenohypophyseal macrophages. We took advantage of a limited T-cell mediated inflammatory reaction selectively involving tumor tissue in three cases of pituitary adenoma (2 prolactin cell adenomas, and 1 null cell adenoma) to test the hypothesis whether some folliculo-stellate cells within inflammatory foci would also assume monocytic/dendritic properties. Immunohistochemical double labeling for S-100 protein and the class II major histocompatibility antigen HLA-DR indeed showed several arborized cells to coexpress both epitopes. These were distributed both amidst adenomatous acini and along intratumoral vessels, and were morphologically undistinguishable from conventional folliculo-stellate cells. On the other hand, markers of follicular dendritic cells (CD21) and Langerhans' cells (CD1a) tested negative. Furthermore, no S-100/HLA-DR coexpressing folliculo-stellate cells were seen in either peritumoral parenchyma of the cases in point nor in control pituitary adenomas lacking inflammatory reaction. These findings suggest that a subset of folliculo-stellate cells may be induced by an appropriate local inflammatory microenvironment to assume a dendritic cell-like immunophenotype recognizable by their coexpression of S-100 protein and HLA-DR. By analogy with HLA-DR expressing cells in well-established extrapituitary inflammatory constellations, we speculate that folliculo-stellate cells with such immunophenotype may actually perform professional antigen presentation. A distinctly uncommon finding in pituitary adenomas, lymphocytic infiltrates may therefore be read as a manifestation of tumoral immunosurveillance.

Relevância:

80.00% 80.00%

Publicador:

Resumo:

Adult-onset urticaria pigmentosa/mastocytosis in the skin almost always persists throughout life. The prevalence of systemic mastocytosis in such patients is not precisely known. Bone marrow biopsies from 59 patients with mastocytosis in the skin and all available skin biopsies (n=27) were subjected to a meticulous cytological, histological, immunohistochemical, and molecular analysis for the presence of WHO-defined diagnostic criteria for systemic mastocytosis: compact mast cell infiltrates (major criterion); atypical mast cell morphology, KIT D816V, abnormal expression of CD25 by mast cells, and serum tryptase levels >20 ng/ml (minor criteria). Systemic mastocytosis is diagnosed when the major diagnostic criterion plus one minor criterion or at least three minor criteria are fulfilled. Systemic mastocytosis was confirmed in 57 patients (97%) by the diagnosis of compact mast cell infiltrates plus at least one minor diagnostic criterion (n=42, 71%) or at least three minor diagnostic criteria (n=15, 25%). In two patients, only two minor diagnostic criteria were detectable, insufficient for the diagnosis of systemic mastocytosis. By the use of highly sensitive molecular methods, including the analysis of microdissected mast cells, KIT D816V was found in all 58 bone marrow biopsies investigated for it but only in 74% (20/27) of the skin biopsies. It is important to state that even in cases with insufficient diagnostic criteria for systemic mastocytosis, KIT D816V-positive mast cells were detected in the bone marrow. This study demonstrates, for the first time, that almost all patients with adult-onset mastocytosis in the skin, in fact, have systemic mastocytosis with cutaneous involvement.

Relevância:

80.00% 80.00%

Publicador:

Resumo:

OBJECTIVE In contrast to conventional breast imaging techniques, one major diagnostic benefit of breast magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the simultaneous acquisition of morphologic and dynamic enhancement characteristics, which are based on angiogenesis and therefore provide insights into tumor pathophysiology. The aim of this investigation was to intraindividually compare 2 macrocyclic MRI contrast agents, with low risk for nephrogenic systemic fibrosis, in the morphologic and dynamic characterization of histologically verified mass breast lesions, analyzed by blinded human evaluation and a fully automatic computer-assisted diagnosis (CAD) technique. MATERIALS AND METHODS Institutional review board approval and patient informed consent were obtained. In this prospective, single-center study, 45 women with 51 histopathologically verified (41 malignant, 10 benign) mass lesions underwent 2 identical examinations at 1.5 T (mean time interval, 2.1 days) with 0.1-mmol kg doses of gadoteric acid and gadobutrol. All magnetic resonance images were visually evaluated by 2 experienced, blinded breast radiologists in consensus and by an automatic CAD system, whereas the morphologic and dynamic characterization as well as the final human classification of lesions were performed based on the categories of the Breast imaging reporting and data system MRI atlas. Lesions were also classified by defining their probability of malignancy (morpho-dynamic index; 0%-100%) by the CAD system. Imaging results were correlated with histopathology as gold standard. RESULTS The CAD system coded 49 of 51 lesions with gadoteric acid and gadobutrol (detection rate, 96.1%); initial signal increase was significantly higher for gadobutrol than for gadoteric acid for all and the malignant coded lesions (P < 0.05). Gadoteric acid resulted in more postinitial washout curves and fewer continuous increases of all and the malignant lesions compared with gadobutrol (CAD hot spot regions, P < 0.05). Morphologically, the margins of the malignancies were different between the 2 agents, whereas gadobutrol demonstrated more spiculated and fewer smooth margins (P < 0.05). Lesion classifications by the human observers and by the morpho-dynamic index compared with the histopathologic results did not significantly differ between gadoteric acid and gadobutrol. CONCLUSIONS Macrocyclic contrast media can be reliably used for breast dynamic contrast-enhanced MRI. However, gadoteric acid and gadobutrol differed in some dynamic and morphologic characterization of histologically verified breast lesions in an intraindividual, comparison. Besides the standardization of technical parameters and imaging evaluation of breast MRI, the standardization of the applied contrast medium seems to be important to receive best comparable MRI interpretation.

Relevância:

80.00% 80.00%

Publicador:

Resumo:

OBJECTIVE To evaluate whether magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is effective as computed tomography (CT) in determining morphologic and functional pulmonary changes in patients with cystic fibrosis (CF) in association with multiple clinical parameters. MATERIALS AND METHODS Institutional review board approval and patient written informed consent were obtained. In this prospective study, 30 patients with CF (17 men and 13 women; mean (SD) age, 30.2 (9.2) years; range, 19-52 years) were included. Chest CT was acquired by unenhanced low-dose technique for clinical purposes. Lung MRI (1.5 T) comprised T2- and T1-weighted sequences before and after the application of 0.1-mmol·kg gadobutrol, also considering lung perfusion imaging. All CT and MR images were visually evaluated by using 2 different scoring systems: the modified Helbich and the Eichinger scores. Signal intensity of the peribronchial walls and detected mucus on T2-weighted images as well as signal enhancement of the peribronchial walls on contrast-enhanced T1-weighted sequences were additionally assessed on MRI. For the clinical evaluation, the pulmonary exacerbation rate, laboratory, and pulmonary functional parameters were determined. RESULTS The overall modified Helbich CT score had a mean (SD) of 15.3 (4.8) (range, 3-21) and median of 16.0 (interquartile range [IQR], 6.3). The overall modified Helbich MR score showed slightly, not significantly, lower values (Wilcoxon rank sum test and Student t test; P > 0.05): mean (SD) of 14.3 (4.7) (range, 3-20) and median of 15.0 (IQR, 7.3). Without assessment of perfusion, the overall Eichinger score resulted in the following values for CT vs MR examinations: mean (SD), 20.3 (7.2) (range, 4-31); and median, 21.0 (IQR, 9.5) vs mean (SD), 19.5 (7.1) (range, 4-33); and median, 20.0 (IQR, 9.0). All differences between CT and MR examinations were not significant (Wilcoxon rank sum tests and Student t tests; P > 0.05). In general, the correlations of the CT scores (overall and different imaging parameters) to the clinical parameters were slightly higher compared to the MRI scores. However, if all additional MRI parameters were integrated into the scoring systems, the correlations reached the values of the CT scores. The overall image quality was significantly higher for the CT examinations compared to the MRI sequences. CONCLUSIONS One major diagnostic benefit of lung MRI in CF is the possible acquisition of several different morphologic and functional imaging features without the use of any radiation exposure. Lung MRI shows reliable associations with CT and clinical parameters, which suggests its implementation in CF for routine diagnosis, which would be particularly important in follow-up imaging over the long term.

Relevância:

80.00% 80.00%

Publicador:

Resumo:

Cattle immunised with a recombinant form of p67, the major surface antigen of Theileria parva sporozoites, have been shown to be protected against parasite challenge. In an attempt to simplify the immunisation procedure live attenuated Salmonella strains expressing p67 have been constructed and used to induce anti-p67 immune responses in cattle. All animals immunised with these strains developed strong antibody responses to p67. Specific T cell responses could be detected in the majority of immunised cattle. Challenge with T. parva sporozoites revealed a significant level of protection in immunised calves compared to naive control animals or animals inoculated with non-recombinant attenuated Salmonella.

Relevância:

80.00% 80.00%

Publicador:

Resumo:

Giardia lamblia is an intestinal protozoan parasite infecting humans and various other mammalian hosts. The most important clinical signs of giardiasis are diarrhoea and malabsorption. Giardia lamblia is able to undergo continuous antigenic variation of its major surface antigen, named VSP (variant surface protein). While intestinal antibodies, and more specifically anti-VSP IgA antibodies, were proven to be involved in modulating antigenic variation of the parasite the participation of the local antibody response in control of the parasite infection is still controversial. Conversely, previous studies based on experimental infections in mice showed that cellular immune mechanisms are essential for elimination of the parasite from its intestinal habitat. Furthermore, recent data indicated that inflammatory mast cells have a potential to directly, or indirectly, interfere in duodenal growth of G. lamblia trophozoites. However, this finding was challenged by other reports, which did not find a correlation between intestinal inflammation and resistance to infection. Since intestinal infiltration of inflammatory cells and/or CD8+T-cells were demonstrated to coincide with villus-shortening and crypt hyperplasia immunological reactions were considered to be a potential factor of pathogenesis in giardiasis. The contribution of physiological factors to pathogenesis was essentially assessed in vitro by co-cultivation of G. lamblia trophozoites with epithelial cell lines. By using this in vitro model, molecular (through surface lectins) and mechanical (through ventral disk) adhesion of trophozoites to the epithelium was shown to be crucial for increased epithelial permeability. This phenomenon as well as other Giardia-induced intestinal abnormalities such as loss of intestinal brush border surface area, villus flattening, inhibition of disaccharidase activities, and eventually also overgrowth of the enteric bacterial flora seem to be involved in the pathophysiology of giardiasis. However, it remains to be elucidated whether at least part of these pathological effects are causatively linked to the clinical manifestation of the disease.

Relevância:

80.00% 80.00%

Publicador:

Resumo:

Transmission of the protozoan parasite Giardia lamblia from one to another host individuum occurs through peroral ingestion of cysts which, following excystation in the small intestine, release two trophozoites each. Many studies have focused on the major surface antigen, VSP (for variant surface protein), which is responsible for the antigenic variability of the parasite. By using trophozoites of G. lamblia clone GS/M-83-H7 (expressing VSP H7) and the neonatal mouse model for experimental infections, we quantitatively assessed the process of antigenic variation of the parasite on the transcriptional level. In the present study, variant-specific regions identified on different GS/M-83-H7 vsp sequences served as targets for quantitative reverse transcription-PCR to monitor alterations in vsp mRNA levels during infection. Respective results demonstrated that antigenic switching of both the duodenal trophozoite and the cecal cyst populations was associated with a massive reduction in vsp H7 mRNA levels but not with a simultaneous increase in transcripts of any of the subvariant vsp genes analyzed. Most importantly, we also explored giardial variant-type formation and vsp mRNA levels after infection of mice with cysts. This infection mode led to an antigenic reset of the parasite in that a VSP H7-negative inoculum "converted" into a population of intestinal trophozoites that essentially consisted of the original VSP H7 type. This antigenic reset appears to be associated with excystation rather than with a selective process which favors expansion of a residual population of VSP H7 types within the antigenically diversified cyst inoculum. Based on these findings, the VSP H7 type has to be regarded as a predominant variant of G. lamblia clone GS/M-83-H7 which (re-)emerges during early-stage infection and may contribute to an optimal establishment of the parasite within the intestine of the experimental murine host.

Relevância:

80.00% 80.00%

Publicador:

Resumo:

During infection, the intestinal protozoan parasite Giardia lamblia undergoes continuous antigenic variation which is determined by diversification of the parasite's major surface antigen, named VSP (variant surface protein). One member from this protein family, VSP H7, is expressed by G. lamblia clone GS/M-83-H7. In the present study, we characterised a highly antigenic portion of VSP H7 which is positioned inside a 130 amino acid C-terminal region of the protein. This region overlaps with a cysteine-rich motif that is rather conserved within the VSP family. Detailed molecular dissection of the antigenic portion monitored a 12 amino acid peptidyl structure which constitutes a non-conformational epitope of VSP H7. In the murine host, this epitope is recognised relatively early (before day 10 p.i.) during infection and stimulates a strong intestinal immunoglobulin A response. At late infective stages (after day 10 p.i.) this immune reaction is progressively complemented by reactions against 'late' antigenic epitopes which are also located inside the 130 amino acid antigenic portion but in closer proximity to the C-terminal end of VSP H7 than the 12 amino acid epitope. Both the high antigenicity and the conserved character suggest that the 12 amino acid epitope is a key factor within the immunological interplay between G. lamblia and the experimental murine host.

Relevância:

40.00% 40.00%

Publicador:

Resumo:

Control of contagious bovine pleuropneumonia (CBPP), caused by Mycoplasma mycoides subsp. mycoides Small Colony (MmmSC), remains an important goal in Africa. Subunit vaccines triggering B and T-cell responses could represent a promising approach. To this aim, the T-cell immunogenicity of four MmmSC lipoproteins (LppA, LppB, LppC and LppQ), present in African strains and able to elicit humoral response, was evaluated. In vitro assays revealed that only LppA was recognized by lymph node lymphocytes taken from three cattle, 3 weeks after MmmSC exposure. Maintenance of the LppA-specific response, relying on CD4 T-cells and IFN gamma production, was then demonstrated 1 year after infection. LppA is thus an important target for the CD4 T-cells generated early after MmmSC infection and persisting in the lymph nodes of recovered cattle. Its role as a protective antigen and ability to in vivo trigger both arms of the host immune response remain to be evaluated.

Relevância:

40.00% 40.00%

Publicador:

Resumo:

OBJECTIVES: Fever is one of the most commonly seen symptoms in the pediatric emergency department. The objective of this study was to observe how the rapid testing for influenza virus impacts on the management of children with fever. METHODS: We performed a review of our pediatric emergency department records during the 2008/2009 annual influenza season. The BinaxNow Influenza A+B test was performed on patients with the following criteria: age 1.0 to 16.0 years, fever greater than 38.5 °C, fever of less than 96 hours' duration after the onset of clinical illness, clinical signs compatible with acute influenza, and nontoxic appearance. Additional laboratory tests were performed at the treating physician's discretion. RESULTS: The influenza rapid antigen test was performed in 192 children. One hundred nine (57%) were influenza positive, with the largest fraction (101 patients) positive for influenza A. The age distribution did not differ between children with negative and positive test results (mean, 5.3 vs. 5.1 years, not statistically significant). A larger number of diagnostic tests were performed in the group of influenza-negative patients. Twice as many complete blood counts, C-reactive protein determinations, lumbar punctures, and urinalyses were ordered in the latter group. CONCLUSIONS: Rapid diagnosis of influenza in the pediatric emergency department affects the management of febrile children as the confirmation of influenza virus infection decreases additional diagnostic tests ordered.

Relevância:

40.00% 40.00%

Publicador:

Resumo:

BACKGROUND: Anaplasma phagocytophilum (formerly known as the human granulocytic ehrlichia, Ehrlichia equi and Ehrlichia phagocytophila) is an obligate intracellular organism causing clinical disease in humans and various species of domestic animals. OBJECTIVES: The objectives of this investigation were to sequence and clone the major surface protein 5 (MSP5) of A phagocytophilum and to evaluate the suitability of this antigen in the serologic diagnosis of anaplasmosis in humans and dogs. METHODS: The msp5 gene of A phagocytophilum was sequenced, cloned, and expressed in Escherichia coli. The predicted amino acid sequence homology of the various MSP5/major antigenic protein 2 orthologs was compared among various Anaplasma and Ehrlichia species. Recombinant MSP5 of A phagocytophilum was used in an ELISA to detect antibodies in serum samples from humans and dogs infected with the organism. RESULTS: Serum samples from 104 individuals previously diagnosed with A phagocytophilum infection, as well as samples from clinically healthy humans, were tested. In addition, multiple samples from 4 dogs experimentally infected with 2 different geographic isolates of A phagocytophilum and 5 dogs naturally infected with a Swiss isolate were tested using ELISA. Using this group of immunofluorescent antibody test-positive and immunofluorescent antibody test-negative samples, we found the overall agreement between assays to be >90%. CONCLUSIONS: These results indicate that recombinant MSP5 has potential for use as a diagnostic test antigen to detect infection with A phagocytophilum in both dogs and humans. However, sequence similarities among orthologs of MSP5 in related species of anaplasma and ehrlichia suggest that cross-reactivity among these pathogens is likely if the entire peptide is used as a test antigen.

Relevância:

40.00% 40.00%

Publicador:

Resumo:

Forty Escherichia coli strains isolated primarily from neonatal meningitis, urinary tract infections and feces were screened for the presence of virulence genes with a newly developed microarray on the array tube format. A total of 32 gene probes specific for extraintestinal as well as intestinal E. coli pathotypes were included. Eighty-eight percent of the analyzed strains were positive for the K1-specific probe on the microarray and could be confirmed with a specific antiserum against the K1 capsular polysaccharide. The gene for the hemin receptor ChuA was predominantly found in 95% of strains. Other virulence genes associated with K1 and related strains were P, S, and F1C fimbriae specific for extraintestinal E. coli, the genes for aerobactin, the alpha-hemolysin and the cytotoxic necrotizing factor. In two strains, the O157-specific catalase gene and the gene for the low-molecular-weight heat-stable toxin AstA were detected, respectively. A total of 19 different virulence gene patterns were observed. No correlation was observed between specific virulence gene patterns and a clinical outcome. The data indicate that virulence genes typical of extraintestinal E. coli are predominantly present in K1 strains. Nevertheless, some of them can carry virulence genes known to be characteristic of intestinal E. coli. The distribution and combination of virulence genes show that K1 isolates constitute a heterogeneous group of E. coli.

Relevância:

40.00% 40.00%

Publicador:

Resumo:

BACKGROUND Detection of HIV-1 p24 antigen permits early identification of primary HIV infection and timely intervention to limit further spread of the infection. Principally, HIV screening should equally detect all viral variants, but reagents for a standardised test evaluation are limited. Therefore, we aimed to create an inexhaustible panel of diverse HIV-1 p24 antigens. METHODS We generated a panel of 43 recombinantly expressed virus-like particles (VLPs), containing the structural Gag proteins of HIV-1 subtypes A-H and circulating recombinant forms (CRF) CRF01_AE, CRF02_AG, CRF12_BF, CRF20_BG and group O. Eleven 4th generation antigen/antibody tests and five antigen-only tests were evaluated for their ability to detect VLPs diluted in human plasma to p24 concentrations equivalent to 50, 10 and 2 IU/ml of the WHO p24 standard. Three tests were also evaluated for their ability to detect p24 after heat-denaturation for immune-complex disruption, a pre-requisite for ultrasensitive p24 detection. RESULTS Our VLP panel exhibited an average intra-clade p24 diversity of 6.7%. Among the 4th generation tests, the Abbott Architect and Siemens Enzygnost Integral 4 had the highest sensitivity of 97.7% and 93%, respectively. Alere Determine Combo and BioRad Access were least sensitive with 10.1% and 40.3%, respectively. Antigen-only tests were slightly more sensitive than combination tests. Almost all tests detected the WHO HIV-1 p24 standard at a concentration of 2 IU/ml, but their ability to detect this input for different subtypes varied greatly. Heat-treatment lowered overall detectability of HIV-1 p24 in two of the three tests, but only few VLPs had a more than 3-fold loss in p24 detection. CONCLUSIONS The HIV-1 Gag subtype panel has a broad diversity and proved useful for a standardised evaluation of the detection limit and breadth of subtype detection of p24 antigen-detecting tests. Several tests exhibited problems, particularly with non-B subtypes.

Relevância:

30.00% 30.00%

Publicador:

Resumo:

Choline positron emission tomography (PET)/computed tomography (CT) is a currently used diagnostic tool in restaging prostate cancer (PCa) patients with increasing prostate-specific antigen (PSA) after either radical prostatectomy (RP) or external-beam radiation therapy (EBRT). However, no final recommendations have been made on the use of this modality for patient management.

Relevância:

30.00% 30.00%

Publicador:

Resumo:

Diagnostic coronary balloon occlusion (CBO) is mandatory for collateral function assessment, during angioscopy and optical coherence imaging, and when using certain coronary protection devices against emboli. Thus far, the safety of diagnostic CBO regarding procedural and long-term complications in normal coronary arteries has not been studied. In 316 patients, diagnostic CBO was performed for collateral function measurement in 426 angiographically normal vessels. The angioplasty balloon was inflated for 60 to 120 seconds using inflation pressures of 1 to 3 atm, followed by control angiography during and after CBO. Patients were divided into groups with entirely normal (n = 133) and partially normal (n = 183) vessels. Primary end points were procedural and long-term complications. De novo stenosis development was assessed by quantitative coronary angiography in 35% of the patients. Secondary end points were cardiac events at 5 years of follow-up. Procedural complications occurred in 1 patient (0.2%). In 150 repeat angiographic procedures in 92 patients (follow-up duration 10 +/- 15 months), quantitative coronary angiography revealed no difference in percentage diameter narrowing between baseline and follow-up (4.1% vs 3.9%, p = 0.69). During follow-up periods of 14 and 72 months, respectively, a new stenotic lesion was detected in 1 patient in each group (1.3%). Major cardiac events and percutaneous coronary intervention for stable angina were less frequent in the group with entirely normal than with partially normal vessels (0.8% vs 5.5%, p = 0.02, and 0.8% vs 18%, p <0.0001). In conclusion, low-inflation pressure diagnostic CBO in angiographically normal coronary arteries bears a minimal risk for procedural and long-term complications and can therefore be regarded as a safe procedure.