89 resultados para multiplex reverse transcription-polymerase
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Staphylococcus aureus is a major mastitis-causing pathogen in dairy cows. The latex agglutination-based Staphaurex test allows bovine S. aureus strains to be grouped into Staphaurex latex agglutination test (SLAT)-negative [SLAT(-)] and SLAT-positive [SLAT(+)] isolates. Virulence and resistance gene profiles within SLAT(-) isolates are highly similar, but differ largely from those of SLAT(+) isolates. Notably, specific genetic changes in important virulence factors were detected in SLAT(-) isolates. Based on the molecular data, it is assumed that SLAT(+) strains are more virulent than SLAT(-) strains. The objective of this study was to investigate if SLAT(-) and SLAT(+) strains can differentially induce an immune response with regard to their adhesive capacity to epithelial cells in the mammary gland and in turn, could play a role in the course of mastitis. Primary bovine mammary epithelial cells (bMEC) were challenged with suspensions of heat inactivated SLAT(+) (n = 3) and SLAT(-) (n = 3) strains isolated from clinical bovine mastitis cases. After 1, 6, and 24 h, cells were harvested and mRNA expression of inflammatory mediators (TNF-α, IL-1β, IL-8, RANTES, SAA, lactoferrin, GM-CSF, COX-2, and TLR-2) was evaluated by reverse transcription and quantitative PCR. Transcription (ΔΔCT) of most measured factors was induced in challenged bMEC for 6 and 24 h. Interestingly, relative mRNA levels were higher (P<0.05) in response to SLAT(+) compared to SLAT(-) strains. In addition, adhesion assays on bMEC also showed significant differences between SLAT(+) and SLAT(-) strains. The present study clearly shows that these two S. aureus strain types cause a differential immune response of bMEC and exhibit differences in their adhesion capacity in vitro. This could reflect differences in the severity of mastitis that the different strain types may induce.
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PURPOSE Deep molecular response (MR(4.5)) defines a subgroup of patients with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) who may stay in unmaintained remission after treatment discontinuation. It is unclear how many patients achieve MR(4.5) under different treatment modalities and whether MR(4.5) predicts survival. PATIENTS AND METHODS Patients from the randomized CML-Study IV were analyzed for confirmed MR(4.5) which was defined as ≥ 4.5 log reduction of BCR-ABL on the international scale (IS) and determined by reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction in two consecutive analyses. Landmark analyses were performed to assess the impact of MR(4.5) on survival. RESULTS Of 1,551 randomly assigned patients, 1,524 were assessable. After a median observation time of 67.5 months, 5-year overall survival (OS) was 90%, 5-year progression-free-survival was 87.5%, and 8-year OS was 86%. The cumulative incidence of MR(4.5) after 9 years was 70% (median, 4.9 years); confirmed MR(4.5) was 54%. MR(4.5) was reached more quickly with optimized high-dose imatinib than with imatinib 400 mg/day (P = .016). Independent of treatment approach, confirmed MR(4.5) at 4 years predicted significantly higher survival probabilities than 0.1% to 1% IS, which corresponds to complete cytogenetic remission (8-year OS, 92% v 83%; P = .047). High-dose imatinib and early major molecular remission predicted MR(4.5). No patient with confirmed MR(4.5) has experienced progression. CONCLUSION MR(4.5) is a new molecular predictor of long-term outcome, is reached by a majority of patients treated with imatinib, and is achieved more quickly with optimized high-dose imatinib, which may provide an improved therapeutic basis for treatment discontinuation in CML.
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PURPOSE Autologous bone is used for augmentation in the course of oral implant placement. Bone grafts release paracrine signals that can modulate mesenchymal cell differentiation in vitro. The detailed genetic response of the bone-derived fibroblasts to these paracrine signals has remained elusive. Paracrine signals accumulate in bone-conditioned medium (BCM) prepared from porcine cortical bone chips. MATERIALS AND METHODS In this study, bone-derived fibroblasts were exposed to BCM followed by a whole genome expression profiling and downstream quantitative reverse transciptase polymerase chain reaction of the most strongly regulated genes. RESULTS The data show that ADM, IL11, IL33, NOX4, PRG4, and PTX3 were differentially expressed in response to BCM in bone-derived fibroblasts. The transforming growth factor beta (TGF-β) receptor 1 antagonist SB431542 blocked the effect of BCM on the expression of the gene panel, except for IL33. CONCLUSION These in vitro results extend existing evidence that cortical bone chips release paracrine signals that provoke a robust genetic response in mesenchymal cells that is not exclusively mediated via the TGF-β receptor. The present data provide further insights into the process of graft consolidation.
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In yeasts, the ABC-type transporters are involved in vacuolar sequestration of cadmium. In plants, transport experiments with isolated vacuoles indicate that this is also true. In order to know more about the response of AtMRPs, a subclass of Arabidopsis ABC transporters, to cadmium, their expression pattern was analysed using the microchip technology and semi-quantitative reverse transcriptase-polymerase chain reaction. From 15 putative sequences coding for AtMRPs, transcript levels were detected for 14. All were expressed in the roots as well as in the shoots, although at a different level. In 4-week-old Arabidopsis, transcript levels of four AtMRPs were up-regulated after cadmium treatment. In all cases up-regulation was exclusively observed in the roots. The increase of transcript levels was most pronounced for AtMRP3. A more detailed analysis revealed that induction of AtMRP3 could also be observed in the shoot when leaves were cut and cadmium allowed to be taken up in the shoot. In young plantlets, a far higher portion of Cd2+ was translocated in the aerial part compared with adult plants. Consequently, AtMRP3 transcript levels increased in both root and shoot of young plants. This suggests that 7-day-old seedlings do not exhibit such a strict root–shoot barrier as 4-week-old plants. Expression analysis with mutant plants for glutathione and phytochelatin synthesis as well as with compounds producing oxidative stress indicate that induction of AtMRP3 is likely due to the heavy metal itself.
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OBJECTIVE To describe all patients admitted to children's hospitals in Switzerland with a diagnosis of influenza A/H1N1/09 virus infection during the 2009 influenza pandemic, and to analyse their characteristics, predictors of complications, and outcome. METHODS All patients ≤18-years-old hospitalised in eleven children's hospitals in Switzerland between June 2009 and January 2010 with a positive influenza A/H1N1/09 reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) from a nasopharyngeal specimen were included. RESULTS There were 326 PCR-confirmed patients of whom 189 (58%) were younger than 5 years of age, and 126 (38.7%) had one or more pre-existing medical condition. Fever (median 39.1 °C) was the most common sign (85.6% of all patients), while feeding problems (p = 0.003) and febrile seizures (p = 0.016) were significantly more frequent in children under 5 years. In 142 (43.6%) patients there was clinical suspicion of a concomitant bacterial infection, which was confirmed in 36 patients (11%). However, severe bacterial infection was observed in 4% of patients. One third (n = 108, 33.1%) of the patients were treated with oseltamivir, 64 (59.3%, or 20% overall) within 48 hours of onset of symptoms. Almost half of the patients (45.1%) received antibiotics for a median of 7 days. Twenty patients (6.1%) required intensive care, mostly for complicated pneumonia (50%) without an underlying medical condition. The median duration of hospitalisation was 2 days (range 0-39) for 304 patients. Two children (<15 months of age with underlying disease) died. CONCLUSIONS Although pandemic influenza A/H1N1/09 virus infection in children is mostly mild, it can be severe, regardless of past history or underlying disease.
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Multiple osteochondromas (also called hereditary multiple exostoses) is an autosomal dominant disorder characterized by multiple cartilaginous tumors, which are caused by mutations in the genes for exostosin-1 (EXT1) and exostosin-2 (EXT2). The goal of this study was to elucidate the genetic alterations in a family with three affected members. Isolation of RNA from the patients' blood followed by reverse transcription and PCR amplification of selected fragments showed that the three patients lack a specific region of 90 bp from their EXT1 mRNA. This region corresponds to the sequence of exon 8 from the EXT1 gene. No splice site mutation was found around exon 8. However, long-range PCR amplification of the region from intron 7 to intron 8 indicated that the three patients contain a deletion of 4318 bp, which includes exon 8 and part of the flanking introns. There is evidence that the deletion was caused by non-homologous end joining because the breakpoints are not located within a repetitive element, but contain multiple copies of the deletion hotspot sequence TGRRKM. Exon 8 encodes part of the active site of the EXT1 enzyme, including the DXD signature of all UDP-sugar glycosyltransferases. It is conceivable that the mutant protein exerts a dominant negative effect on the activity of the EXT glycosyltransferase since it might interact with normal copies of the enzyme to form an inactive hetero-oligomeric complex. We suggest that sequencing of RNA might be superior to exome sequencing to detect short deletions of a single exon.
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Antigenic variation of the intestinal protozoan parasite Giardia lamblia is caused by an exchange of the parasite's variant surface protein (VSP) coat. Many investigations on antigenic variation were performed with G. lamblia clone GS/M-83-H7 which produces surface antigen VSP H7. To generate novel information on giardial vsp gene transcription, vsp RNA levels were assessed by quantitative reverse transcription-(RT)-PCR in both axenic VSP H7-type trophozoites and subvariants obtained after negative selection of GS/M-83-H7 trophozoites by treatment with a cytotoxic, VSP H7-specific monoclonal antibody. Our investigation was not restricted to the assessment of the sense vsp transcript levels but also included an approach aimed at the detection of complementary antisense vsp transcripts within the two trophozoite populations. We found that sense vsp H7 RNA predominated in VSP H7-type trophozoites while sense RNA from only one (vsp IVg) of 8 subvariant vsp genes totally analysed predominated in subvariant-type trophozoites. Interestingly, the two trophozoite populations exhibited a similar relative distribution regarding the vsp H7 and vsp IVg antisense RNA molecules. An analogous sense versus antisense RNA pattern was also observed when the transcripts of gene cwp 1 (encoding cyst wall protein 1) were investigated. Here, both types of RNA molecules only appeared after cwp 1 had been induced through in vitro encystation of the parasite. These findings for the first time demonstrated that giardial antisense RNA production did not occur in a constitutive manner but was directly linked to complementary sense RNA production after activation of the respective gene systems.
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Transmission of the protozoan parasite Giardia lamblia from one to another host individuum occurs through peroral ingestion of cysts which, following excystation in the small intestine, release two trophozoites each. Many studies have focused on the major surface antigen, VSP (for variant surface protein), which is responsible for the antigenic variability of the parasite. By using trophozoites of G. lamblia clone GS/M-83-H7 (expressing VSP H7) and the neonatal mouse model for experimental infections, we quantitatively assessed the process of antigenic variation of the parasite on the transcriptional level. In the present study, variant-specific regions identified on different GS/M-83-H7 vsp sequences served as targets for quantitative reverse transcription-PCR to monitor alterations in vsp mRNA levels during infection. Respective results demonstrated that antigenic switching of both the duodenal trophozoite and the cecal cyst populations was associated with a massive reduction in vsp H7 mRNA levels but not with a simultaneous increase in transcripts of any of the subvariant vsp genes analyzed. Most importantly, we also explored giardial variant-type formation and vsp mRNA levels after infection of mice with cysts. This infection mode led to an antigenic reset of the parasite in that a VSP H7-negative inoculum "converted" into a population of intestinal trophozoites that essentially consisted of the original VSP H7 type. This antigenic reset appears to be associated with excystation rather than with a selective process which favors expansion of a residual population of VSP H7 types within the antigenically diversified cyst inoculum. Based on these findings, the VSP H7 type has to be regarded as a predominant variant of G. lamblia clone GS/M-83-H7 which (re-)emerges during early-stage infection and may contribute to an optimal establishment of the parasite within the intestine of the experimental murine host.
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In the present study, interleukin-6 (IL-6)-deficient mice were infected with Giardia lamblia clone GS/M-83-H7. Murine IL-6 deficiency did not affect the synthesis of parasite-specific intestinal immunoglobulin A. However, in contrast to wild-type mice, IL-6-deficient animals were not able to control the acute phase of parasite infection. Reverse transcription-PCR-based quantitation of cytokine mRNA levels in peripheral lymph node cells exhibited a short-term up-regulation of IL-4 expression in IL-6-deficient mice that seemed to be associated with failure in controlling the parasite population. This observation suggests a further elucidation of IL-4-dependent, Th2-type regulatory processes regarding their potential to influence the course of G. lamblia infection in the experimental murine host.
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BACKGROUND: Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a sensitive tool for detection of respiratory picornaviruses. However, the clinical relevance of picornavirus detection by PCR is unclear. Immunofluorescence (IF), widely used to detect other respiratory viruses, has recently been introduced as a promising detection method for respiratory picornaviruses. OBJECTIVES: To compare the clinical manifestations of respiratory picornavirus infections detected by IF with those of respiratory picornavirus infections detected by xTAG multiplex PCR in hospitalized children. STUDY DESIGN: During a 1-year period, nasopharyngeal aspirates (NPA) from all children hospitalized due to an acute respiratory infection were prospectively analyzed by IF. All respiratory picornavirus positive IF samples and 100 IF negative samples were further tested with xTAG multiplex PCR. After exclusion of children with co-morbidities and viral co-infections, monoinfections with respiratory picornaviruses were detected in 108 NPA of 108 otherwise healthy children by IF and/or PCR. We compared group 1 children (IF and PCR positive, n=84) with group 2 children (IF negative and PCR positive, n=24) with regard to clinical manifestations of the infection. RESULTS: Wheezy bronchitis was diagnosed more often in group 1 than in group 2 (71% vs. 46%, p=0.028). In contrast, group 2 patients were diagnosed more frequently with pneumonia (17% vs. 6%, p=0.014) accompanied by higher levels of C-reactive protein (46mg/l vs. 11mg/l, p=0.009). CONCLUSIONS: Picornavirus detection by IF in children with acute respiratory infection is associated with the clinical presentation of wheezy bronchitis. The finding of a more frequent diagnosis of pneumonia in picornavirus PCR positive but IF negative children warrants further investigation.
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BACKGROUND: Cancer initiation and progression might be driven by small populations of cells endowed with stem cell-like properties. Here we comparatively addressed the expression of genes encoding putative stemness regulators including c-Myc, Klf4, Nanog, Oct4A and Sox2 genes in benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) and prostate cancer (PCA). METHODS: Fifty-eight PCA and thirty-nine BPH tissues samples were used for gene expression analysis, as evaluated by quantitative real-time polymerase chain reaction (qRT-PCR). The expression of specific Klf4 isoforms was tested by conventional PCR. Klf4 specific antibodies were used for protein detection in a tissue microarray including 404 prostate samples. RESULTS: Nanog, Oct4A and Sox2 genes were comparably expressed in BPH and PCA samples, whereas c-Myc and Klf4 genes were expressed to significantly higher extents in PCA than in BPH specimens. Immunohistochemical studies revealed that Klf4 protein is detectable in a large majority of epithelial prostatic cells, irrespective of malignant transformation. However, in PCA, a predominantly cytoplasmic location was observed, consistent with the expression of a differentially spliced Klf4α isoform. CONCLUSION: Klf4 is highly expressed at gene and protein level in BPH and PCA tissues but a cytoplasmic location of the specific gene product is predominantly detectable in malignant cells. Klf4 location might be of critical relevance to steer its functions during oncogenesis.
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OBJECTIVES: To evaluate the potential improvement of antimicrobial treatment by utilizing a new multiplex polymerase chain reaction (PCR) assay that identifies sepsis-relevant microorganisms in blood. DESIGN: Prospective, observational international multicentered trial. SETTING: University hospitals in Germany (n = 2), Spain (n = 1), and the United States (n = 1), and one Italian tertiary general hospital. PATIENTS: 436 sepsis patients with 467 episodes of antimicrobial treatment. METHODS: Whole blood for PCR and blood culture (BC) analysis was sampled independently for each episode. The potential impact of reporting microorganisms by PCR on adequacy and timeliness of antimicrobial therapy was analyzed. The number of gainable days on early adequate antimicrobial treatment attributable to PCR findings was assessed. MEASUREMENTS AND MAIN RESULTS: Sepsis criteria, days on antimicrobial therapy, antimicrobial substances administered, and microorganisms identified by PCR and BC susceptibility tests. RESULTS: BC diagnosed 117 clinically relevant microorganisms; PCR identified 154. Ninety-nine episodes were BC positive (BC+); 131 episodes were PCR positive (PCR+). Overall, 127.8 days of clinically inadequate empirical antibiotic treatment in the 99 BC+ episodes were observed. Utilization of PCR-aided diagnostics calculates to a potential reduction of 106.5 clinically inadequate treatment days. The ratio of gainable early adequate treatment days to number of PCR tests done is 22.8 days/100 tests overall (confidence interval 15-31) and 36.4 days/100 tests in the intensive care and surgical ward populations (confidence interval 22-51). CONCLUSIONS: Rapid PCR identification of microorganisms may contribute to a reduction of early inadequate antibiotic treatment in sepsis.
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Some inducible yeast genes relocate to nuclear pores upon activation, but the general relevance of this phenomenon has remained largely unexplored. Here we show that the bidirectional hsp-16.2/41 promoter interacts with the nuclear pore complex upon activation by heat shock in the nematode Caenorhabditis elegans. Direct pore association was confirmed by both super-resolution microscopy and chromatin immunoprecipitation. The hsp-16.2 promoter was sufficient to mediate perinuclear positioning under basal level conditions of expression, both in integrated transgenes carrying from 1 to 74 copies of the promoter and in a single-copy genomic insertion. Perinuclear localization of the uninduced gene depended on promoter elements essential for induction and required the heat-shock transcription factor HSF-1, RNA polymerase II, and ENY-2, a factor that binds both SAGA and the THO/TREX mRNA export complex. After induction, colocalization with nuclear pores increased significantly at the promoter and along the coding sequence, dependent on the same promoter-associated factors, including active RNA polymerase II, and correlated with nascent transcripts.