145 resultados para diagnosis of insomnia


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PRINCIPLES: Cardiogoniometry is a non-invasive technique for quantitative three-dimensional vectorial analysis of myocardial depolarization and repolarization. We describe a method of surface electrophysiological cardiac assessment using cardiogoniometry performed at rest to detect variables helpful in identifying coronary artery disease. METHODS: Cardiogoniometry was performed in 793 patients prior to diagnostic coronary angiography. Using 13 variables in men and 10 in women, values from 461 patients were retrospectively analyzed to obtain a diagnostic score that would identify patients having coronary artery disease. This score was then prospectively validated on 332 patients. RESULTS: Cardiogoniometry showed a prospective diagnostic sensitivity of 64%, and a specificity of 82%. ECG diagnostic sensitivity was significantly lower, with 53% and a similar specificity of 75%. CONCLUSIONS: Cardiogoniometry is a new, noninvasive, quantitative electrodiagnostic technique which is helpful in identifying patients with coronary artery disease. It can easily be performed at rest and delivers an accurate, automated diagnostic score.

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We describe the case of a 55-year-old man who presented with parasternal swelling. The chest CT scan showed a large tumor of the chest wall infiltrating the subcutaneous tissue. To assume histologic diagnosis an open biopsy was performed. Between the myofibrils a coarse, white tumor with infiltrative growth was noted. Histopathologic examination revealed expanded atrophic skeletal muscle that was infiltrated by histiocytic cells. Numerous eosinophilic granulocytes and lymphocytes CD20 and CD3 positive could be detected and immunohistochemical staining was also positive for S-100 proteins and CD1a. Histologic findings were characteristic of Langerhans cell histiocytosis (LCH). To the best of our knowledge a LCH originating from the mediastinum in an adult as presented has not been previously described.

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Serum-based diagnosis offers the prospect of early lung carcinoma detection and of differentiation between benign and malignant nodules identified by CT. One major challenge toward a future blood-based diagnostic consists in showing that seroreactivity patterns allow for discriminating lung cancer patients not only from normal controls but also from patients with non-tumor lung pathologies. We addressed this question for squamous cell lung cancer, one of the most common lung tumor types. Using a panel of 82 phage-peptide clones, which express potential autoantigens, we performed serological spot assay. We screened 108 sera, including 39 sera from squamous cell lung cancer patients, 29 sera from patients with other non-tumor lung pathologies, and 40 sera from volunteers without known disease. To classify the serum groups, we employed the standard Naïve Bayesian method combined with a subset selection approach. We were able to separate squamous cell lung carcinoma and normal sera with an accuracy of 93%. Low-grade squamous cell lung carcinoma were separated from normal sera with an accuracy of 92.9%. We were able to distinguish squamous cell lung carcinoma from non-tumor lung pathologies with an accuracy of 83%. Three phage-peptide clones with sequence homology to ROCK1, PRKCB1 and KIAA0376 reacted with more than 15% of the cancer sera, but neither with normal nor with non-tumor lung pathology sera. Our study demonstrates that seroreactivity profiles combined with statistical classification methods have great potential for discriminating patients with squamous cell lung carcinoma not only from normal controls but also from patients with non-tumor lung pathologies.

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The aim of the present study was to evaluate the potential of diagnostic tests based on interferon-gamma inducible protein (IP)-10 and monocyte chemotactic protein (MCP)-2, and compare the performance with the QuantiFERON TB Gold In-Tube (QFT-IT; Cellestis, Carnagie, Australia) test. IP-10 and MCP-2 were determined in supernatants from whole blood stimulated with Mycobacterium tuberculosis-specific antigens. Samples were obtained from 80 patients with culture- and/or PCR-proven tuberculosis (TB), and 124 unexposed healthy controls: 86 high school students and 38 high school staff. IP-10 and MCP-2 test cut-offs were established based on receiver operating characteristic curve analysis. TB patients produced significantly higher levels (median) of IP-10 (2158 pg x mL(-1)) and MCP-2 (379 pg x mL(-1)) compared with interferon (IFN)-gamma (215 pg x mL(-1)). The QFT-IT, IP-10 and MCP-2 tests detected 81, 83 and 71% of the TB patients; 0, 3 and 0% of the high school students and 0, 16 and 3% of the staff, respectively. Agreement between tests was high (>89%). By combining IP-10 and IFN-gamma tests, the detection rate increased among TB patients to 90% without a significant increase in positive responders among the students. In conclusion, interferon-gamma inducible protein-10 and monocyte chemotactic protein-2 responses to Mycobacterium tuberculosis-specific antigens could be used to diagnose infection. Combining interferon-gamma inducible protein-10 and interferon-gamma may be a simple approach to increase the detection rate of the Mycobacterium tuberculosis-specific in vitro tests.

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OBJECTIVES: To investigate delayed HIV diagnosis and late initiation of antiretroviral therapy (ART) in the Swiss HIV Cohort Study. METHODS: Two sub-populations were included: 1915 patients with HIV diagnosis from 1998 to 2007 and within 3 months of cohort registration (group A), and 1730 treatment-naïve patients with CD4>or=200 cells/microL before their second cohort visit (group B). In group A, predictors for low initial CD4 cell counts were examined with a median regression. In group B, we studied predictors for CD4<200 cells/microL without ART despite cohort follow-up. RESULTS: Median initial CD4 cell count in group A was 331 cells/microL; 31% and 10% were <200 and <50 cells/microL, respectively. Risk factors for low CD4 count were age and non-White race. Homosexual transmission, intravenous drug use and living alone were protective. In group B, 30% initiated ART with CD4>or=200 cells/microL; 18% and 2% dropped to CD4 <200 and <50 cells/microL without ART, respectively. Sub-Saharan origin was associated with lower probability of CD4 <200 cells/microL without ART during follow-up. Median CD4 count at ART initiation was 207 and 253 cells/microL in groups A and B, respectively. CONCLUSIONS: CD4<200 cells/microL and, particularly, CD4<50 cells/microL before starting ART are predominantly caused by late presentation. Earlier HIV diagnosis is paramount.

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Femoroacetabular impingements (FAI) are due to an anatomical disproportion between the proximal femur and the acetabulum which causes premature wear of the joint surfaces. An operation is often necessary in order to relieve symptoms such as limited movement and pain as well as to prevent or slow down the degenerative process. The result is dependent on the preoperative status of the joint with poor results for advanced arthritis of the hip joint. This explains the necessity for an accurate diagnosis in order to recognize early stages of damage to the joint. The diagnosis of FAI includes clinical examination, X-ray examination and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). The standard X-radiological examination for FAI is carried out using two X-ray images, an anterior-posterior view of the pelvis and a lateral view of the proximal femur, such as the cross-table lateral or Lauenstein projections. It is necessary that positioning criteria are adhered to in order to avoid distortion artifacts. MRI permits an examination of the pelvis on three levels and should also include radial planned sequences for improved representation of peripheral structures, such as the labrum and peripheral cartilage. The use of contrast medium for a direct MR arthrogram has proved to be advantageous particularly for representation of labrum damage. The data with respect to cartilage imaging are still unclear. Further developments in technology, such as biochemical-sensitive MRI applications, will be able to improve the diagnosis of the pelvis in the near future.

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BACKGROUND: Clinician-rated large-scale studies estimating the prevalence of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) related to myocardial infarction (MI) and identifying predictors of clinical PTSD are currently lacking. HYPOTHESES: We hypothesized that PTSD is prevalent in post-MI patients and that the subjective experience of the MI determines PTSD status. METHODS: We approached 951 post-MI patients with a questionnaire screening for PTSD symptoms related to their MI. Those responding and meeting a cutoff of PTSD symptom levels were invited to participate in a structured clinical interview to diagnose PTSD following Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-IV) criteria. Fear of dying, feelings of helplessness, and severity of pain perceived during the MI were also assessed by visual analog scales. RESULTS: The screening questionnaire was completed by 394 patients, whereby 77 met the cutoff for the interview (8 patients declined the interview). Forty of 394 patients (10.2%) had clinical PTSD (subsyndromal and syndromal forms combined). Younger age (OR 0.95, 95% CI 0.91-0.99), greater fear of dying (OR 2.77, 95% CI 1.28-5.97), and more intense feelings of helplessness (OR 2.97, 95% CI 1.42-6.21) were independent predictors of PTSD status. Perceived pain intensity during MI, sex, type of index MI, left ventricular ejection fraction, number of coronary occlusions, and highest level of total creatinine kinase were not significant predictors. CONCLUSIONS: Clinical PTSD is prevalent in post-MI patients. Demographic and particularly psychological variables related to the subjective experience of the event were stronger predictors of PTSD status than were objective measures of MI severity.

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OBJECTIVE: To assess the types and numbers of cases, gestational age at specific prenatal diagnosis and diagnostic accuracy of the diagnosis of skeletal dysplasias in a prenatal population from a single tertiary center. METHODS: This was a retrospective database review of type, prenatal and definitive postnatal diagnoses and gestational age at specific prenatal diagnosis of all cases of skeletal dysplasias from a mixed referral and screening population between 1985 and 2007. Prenatal diagnoses were grouped into 'correct ultrasound diagnosis' (complete concordance with postnatal pediatric or pathological findings) or 'partially correct ultrasound diagnosis' (skeletal dysplasias found postnatally to be a different one from that diagnosed prenatally). RESULTS: We included 178 fetuses in this study, of which 176 had a prenatal ultrasound diagnosis of 'skeletal dysplasia'. In 160 cases the prenatal diagnosis of a skeletal dysplasia was confirmed; two cases with skeletal dysplasias identified postnatally had not been diagnosed prenatally, giving 162 fetuses with skeletal dysplasias in total. There were 23 different classifiable types of skeletal dysplasia. The specific diagnoses based on prenatal ultrasound examination alone were correct in 110/162 (67.9%) cases and partially correct in 50/162 (30.9%) cases, (160/162 overall, 98.8%). In 16 cases, skeletal dysplasia was diagnosed prenatally, but was not confirmed postnatally (n = 12 false positives) or the case was lost to follow-up (n = 4). The following skeletal dysplasias were recorded: thanatophoric dysplasia (35 diagnosed correctly prenatally of 40 overall), osteogenesis imperfecta (lethal and non-lethal, 31/35), short-rib dysplasias (5/10), chondroectodermal dysplasia Ellis-van Creveld (4/9), achondroplasia (7/9), achondrogenesis (7/8), campomelic dysplasia (6/8), asphyxiating thoracic dysplasia Jeune (3/7), hypochondrogenesis (1/6), diastrophic dysplasia (2/5), chondrodysplasia punctata (2/2), hypophosphatasia (0/2) as well as a further 7/21 cases with rare or unclassifiable skeletal dysplasias. CONCLUSION: Prenatal diagnosis of skeletal dysplasias can present a considerable diagnostic challenge. However, a meticulous sonographic examination yields high overall detection. In the two most common disorders, thanatophoric dysplasia and osteogenesis imperfecta (25% and 22% of all cases, respectively), typical sonomorphology accounts for the high rates of completely correct prenatal diagnosis (88% and 89%, respectively) at the first diagnostic examination.

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We encountered recently 3 cases with a histopathologic diagnosis of melanoma in situ on sun-damaged skin (male = 2, female = 1; median age: 59 years; range: 52-60 years). The diagnosis was based mainly on the finding of actinic elastosis in the dermis and increased number of melanocytes in the epidermis and was confirmed by strong positivity for Melan-A in single cells and in small nests ("pseudomelanocytic nests"), located at the dermoepidermal junction. Indeed, examination of slides stained with hematoxylin and eosin revealed the presence of marked hyperpigmentation and small nests of partially pigmented cells at the dermoepidermal junction, positive for Melan-A. The histologic and especially the immunohistochemical features were indistinguishable from those of melanoma in situ on chronic sun-damaged skin. In addition, a variably dense lichenoid inflammation was present. Clinicopathologic correlation, however, showed, in all patients, the presence of a lichenoid dermatitis (phototoxic reaction, 1 case; lichen planus pigmentosus, 1 case; and pigmented lichenoid keratosis, 1 case). Our cases clearly show the histopathologic pitfalls represented by lichenoid reactions on chronic sun-damaged skin. Immunohistochemical investigations, especially if performed with Melan-A alone, may lead to confusing and potentially disastrous results. The unexpected staining pattern of Melan-A in cases like ours raises concern about the utility of this antibody in the setting of a lichenoid tissue reaction on chronic sun-damaged skin. It should be underlined that pigmented lesions represent a paradigmatic example of how immunohistochemical results should be interpreted carefully and always in conjunction with histologic and clinical features.

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OBJECTIVES: To study the validity of both rheumatological and orthodontic examinations and ultrasound (US) as screening methods for early diagnosis of TMJ arthritis against the gold standard MRI. METHODS: Thirty consecutive juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) patients were included in this pilot study. Rheumatological and orthodontic examinations as well as US were performed within 1 month of the MRI in a blinded fashion. Joint effusion and/or increased contrast enhancement of synovium or bone were considered signs of active arthritis on MRI. RESULTS: A total of 19/30 (63%) patients and 33/60 (55%) joints had signs of TMJ involvement on MRI. This was associated with condylar deformity in 9/19 (47%) patients and 15/33 (45%) joints. Rheumatological, orthodontic and US examinations correctly diagnosed 11 (58%), 9 (47%) and 6 (33%) patients, respectively, with active TMJ arthritis, but misdiagnosed 8 (42%), 10 (53%) and 12 (67%) patients, respectively, as having no signs of inflammation. The best predictor for active arthritis on MRI was a reduced maximum mouth opening. CONCLUSION: None of the methods tested was able to reliably predict the presence or absence of MRI-proven inflammation in the TMJ in our cohort of JIA patients. US was the least useful of all methods tested to exclude active TMJ arthritis.

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CONTEXT: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) combined with magnetic resonance spectroscopy imaging (MRSI) emerged as a promising test in the diagnosis of prostate cancer and showed encouraging results. OBJECTIVE: The aim of this systematic review is to meta-analyse the diagnostic accuracy of combined MRI/MRSI in prostate cancer and to explore risk profiles with highest benefit. EVIDENCE ACQUISITION: The authors searched the MEDLINE and EMBASE databases and the Cochrane Library, and the authors screened reference lists and contacted experts. There were no language restrictions. The last search was performed in August 2008. EVIDENCE SYNTHESIS: We identified 31 test-accuracy studies (1765 patients); 16 studies (17 populations) with a total of 581 patients were suitable for meta-analysis. Nine combined MRI/MRSI studies (10 populations) examining men with pathologically confirmed prostate cancer (297 patients; 1518 specimens) had a pooled sensitivity and specificity on prostate subpart level of 68% (95% CI, 56-78%) and 85% (95% CI, 78-90%), respectively. Compared with patients at high risk for clinically relevant cancer (six studies), sensitivity was lower in low-risk patients (four studies) (58% [46-69%] vs 74% [58-85%]; p>0.05) but higher for specificity (91% [86-94%] vs 78% [70-84%]; p<0.01). Seven studies examining patients with suspected prostate cancer at combined MRI/MRSI (284 patients) had an overall pooled sensitivity and specificity on patients level of 82% (59-94%) and 88% (80-95%). In the low-risk group (five studies) these values were 75% (39-93%) and 91% (77-97%), respectively. CONCLUSIONS: A limited number of small studies suggest that MRI combined with MRSI could be a rule-in test for low-risk patients. This finding needs further confirmation in larger studies and cost-effectiveness needs to be established.