87 resultados para Schwerin, Sophie Dönhoff, Gräfin von, 1785-1862 or 3.


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Background Good adherence to antiretroviral therapy (ART) is critical for successful HIV treatment. However, some patients remain virologically suppressed despite suboptimal adherence. We hypothesized that this could result from host genetic factors influencing drug levels. Methods Eligible individuals were Caucasians treated with efavirenz (EFV) and/or boosted lopinavir (LPV/r) with self-reported poor adherence, defined as missing doses of ART at least weekly for more than 6 months. Participants were genotyped for single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) in candidate genes previously reported to decrease EFV (rs3745274, rs35303484, rs35979566 in CYP2B6) and LPV/r clearance (rs4149056 in SLCO1B1, rs6945984 in CYP3A, rs717620 in ABCC2). Viral suppression was defined as having HIV-1 RNA <400 copies/ml throughout the study period. Results From January 2003 until May 2009, 37 individuals on EFV (28 suppressed and 9 not suppressed) and 69 on LPV/r (38 suppressed and 31 not suppressed) were eligible. The poor adherence period was a median of 32 weeks with 18.9% of EFV and 20.3% of LPV/r patients reporting missed doses on a daily basis. The tested SNPs were not determinant for viral suppression. Reporting missing >1 dose/week was associated with a lower probability of viral suppression compared to missing 1 dose/week (EFV: odds ratio (OR) 0.11, 95% confidence interval (CI): 0.01–0.99; LPV/r: OR 0.29, 95% CI: 0.09–0.94). In both groups, the probability of remaining suppressed increased with the duration of continuous suppression prior to the poor adherence period (EFV: OR 3.40, 95% CI: 0.62–18.75; LPV/r: OR 5.65, 95% CI: 1.82–17.56). Conclusions The investigated genetic variants did not play a significant role in the sustained viral suppression of individuals with suboptimal adherence. Risk of failure decreased with longer duration of viral suppression in this population.

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Background Interferon-gamma release assays (IGRA) are more specific than the tuberculin skin test (TST) for the diagnosis of Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection. Data on sensitivity are controversial in HIV infection. Methods IGRA (T-SPOT.TB) was performed using lymphocytes stored within 6 months before culture-confirmed tuberculosis was diagnosed in HIV-infected individuals in the Swiss HIV Cohort Study. Results 64 individuals (69% males, 45% of non-white ethnicity, median age 35 years (interquartile range [IQR] 31-42), 28% with prior AIDS) were analysed. Median CD4 cell count was 223 cells/μl (IQR 103-339), HIV-RNA was 4.7 log10 copies/mL (IQR 4.3-5.2). T-SPOT.TB resulted positive in 25 patients (39%), negative in 18 (28%) and indeterminate in 21 (33%), corresponding to a sensitivity of 39% (95% CI 27-51%) if all test results were considered, and 58% (95% CI 43-74%) if indeterminate results were excluded. Sensitivity of IGRA was independent of CD4 cell count (p = 0.698). Among 44 individuals with available TST, 22 (50%) had a positive TST. Agreement between TST and IGRA was 57% (kappa = 0.14, p = 0.177), and in 34% (10/29) both tests were positive. Combining TST and IGRA (at least one test positive) resulted in an improved sensitivity of 67% (95% CI 52-81%). In multivariate analysis, older age was associated with negative results of TST and T-SPOT.TB (OR 3.07, 95% CI 1,22-7.74, p = 0.017, per 10 years older). Conclusions T-SPOT.TB and TST have similar sensitivity to detect latent TB in HIV-infected individuals. Combining TST and IGRA may help clinicians to better select HIV-infected individuals with latent tuberculosis who qualify for preventive treatment.

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OBJECTIVES: To histologically assess the effectiveness of a porcine-derived collagen matrix (CM) and a subepithelial connective tissue graft (CTG) for the coverage of single mucosal recessions at osseointegrated dental implants. MATERIALS AND METHODS: Chronic-type mucosal Miller Class I-like recessions (mean clinical defect height: 0.67 ± 0.33-1.16 ± 0.19 mm) were established at the buccal aspect of titanium implants with platform switch in six beagle dogs. The defects were randomly allocated to either (1) coronally advanced flap surgery (CAF) + CM, (2) CAF + CTG or (3) CAF alone. At 12 weeks, histomorphometrical measurements were made (e.g.) between the implant shoulder (IS) and the mucosal margin (PM) and IS and the outer contour of the adjacent soft tissue (mucosal thickness [MT]). RESULTS: All treatment procedures investigated were associated with an almost complete soft tissue coverage of the defect area (i.e. coronal positioning of PM relative to IS). Mean IS-PM and MT values tended to be increased in both CAF + CM (1.04 ± 0.74 mm/0.71 ± 0.55 mm) and CAF + CTG (0.88 ± 1.2 mm/0.62 ± 0.66 mm) groups when compared with CAF (0.16 ± 0.28 mm/0.34 ± 0.2 mm) alone. These differences, however, did not reach statistical significance. CONCLUSIONS: Within the limits of this pilot study, it was concluded that all treatment procedures investigated were effective in covering soft tissue recessions at titanium implants.

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Degree III furcation involvements were surgically created at four first molars in each of three monkeys. Following 6 weeks of healing, full-thickness flaps were elevated. Following 24% EDTA gel conditioning, the defects were treated with one of the following: (1) enamel matrix proteins (EMD), (2) guided tissue regeneration (GTR) or (3) a combination EMD and GTR. The control defects did not receive any treatment. After 5 months of healing, the animals were sacrificed. Three 8 μm thick histological central sections, 100 μm apart, were used for histomorphometric analysis in six zones of each tooth either within the furcation area or on the pristine external surface of the root. In all specimens, new cementum with inserting collagen fibres was formed. Following GTR or GTR + EMD, cementum was formed up to and including the furcation fornix indicating complete regeneration on the defect periphery. Periodontal ligament fibres were less in all four modalities compared to pristine tissues. In the teeth treated with GTR and GTR + EMD a higher volume of bone and periodontal ligament tissues was observed compared to EMD. After 5 months of healing, regenerated tissues presented quantitative differences from the pristine tissues. In the two modalities where GTR alone or combined with EMD was used, the regenerated tissues differed in quantity from the EMD-treated sites.

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Hyperkalemia is a concern in heart failure (HF), especially in older patients with co-morbidities. Previous studies addressing this issue have focused mainly on younger patients. This study was aimed at determining the frequency and predictors of hyperkalemia in older patients with HF undergoing intense medical therapy. Frequency and predictors of hyperkalemia were defined in patients (n = 566) participating in the Trial of Intensified versus Standard Medical Therapy in Elderly Patients with Congestive Heart Failure, in which patients ≥60 years of age were randomized to a standard versus an intensified N-terminal brain natriuretic peptide-guided HF therapy. During an 18-month follow-up 76 patients (13.4%) had hyperkalemia (≥5.5 mmol/L) and 28 (4.9%) had severe hyperkalemia (≥6.0 mmol/L). Higher baseline serum potassium (odds ratio [OR] 2.92 per mmol/L), baseline creatinine (OR 1.11 per 10 μmol/L), gout (OR 2.56), New York Heart Association (NYHA) class (compared to NYHA class II, IV OR 3.08), higher dosage of spironolactone at baseline (OR 1.20 per 12.5 mg/day), and higher dose changes of spironolactone (compared to no dose change: 12.5 mg, OR 1.45; 25 mg, OR 2.52; >25 mg, OR 3.24) were independent predictors for development of hyperkalemia (p <0.05 for all comparisons). In conclusion, hyperkalemia is common in patients ≥60 years of age with HF undergoing intense medical therapy. Risk is increased in patients treated with spironolactone, in addition to patient-specific risk factors such as chronic kidney disease, higher serum potassium, advanced NYHA class, and gout. Careful surveillance of serum potassium and cautious use of spironolactone in patients at risk may help to decrease the incidence of potentially hazardous complications caused by hyperkalemia.

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BACKGROUND: The arterial switch operation (ASO) is currently the treatment of choice in neonates with transposition of the great arteries (TGA). The outcome in childhood is encouraging but only limited data for long-term outcome into adulthood exist. METHODS AND RESULTS: We studied 145 adult patients (age>16, median 25years) with ASO followed at our institution. Three patients died in adulthood (mortality 2.4/1000-patient-years). Most patients were asymptomatic and had normal left ventricular function. Coronary lesions requiring interventions were rare (3 patients) and in most patients related to previous surgery. There were no acute coronary syndromes. Aortic root dilatation was frequent (56% patients) but rarely significant (>45mm in 3 patients, maximal-diameter 49mm) and appeared not to be progressive. There were no acute aortic events and no patient required elective aortic root surgery. Progressive neo-aortic-valve dysfunction was not observed in our cohort and only 1 patient required neo-aortic-valve replacement. Many patients (42.1%), however, had significant residual lesions or required reintervention in adulthood. Right ventricular outflow tract lesions or dysfunction of the neo-pulmonary-valve were frequent and 8 patients (6%) required neo-pulmonary-valve replacement. Cardiac interventions during childhood (OR 3.0, 95% CI 1.7-5.4, P<0.0001) were strong predictors of outcome (cardiac intervention/significant residual lesion/death) in adulthood. CONCLUSIONS: Adult patients with previous ASO remain free of acute coronary or aortic complications and have low mortality. However, a large proportion of patients require re-interventions or present with significant right sided lesions. Life-long cardiac follow-up is, therefore, warranted. Periodic noninvasive surveillance for coronary complications appears to be safe in adult ASO patients.

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β-Arrestin2 (ARRB2) is a component of the G-protein-coupled receptor complex and is involved in μ-opioid and dopamine D(2) receptor signaling, two central processes in methadone signal transduction. We analyzed 238 patients in methadone maintenance treatment (MMT) and identified a haplotype block (rs34230287, rs3786047, rs1045280 and rs2036657) spanning almost the entire ARRB2 locus. Although none of these single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) leads to a change in amino-acid sequence, we found that for all the SNPs analyzed, with exception of rs34230287, homozygosity for the variant allele confers a nonresponding phenotype (n=73; rs1045280C and rs2036657G: OR=3.1, 95% CI=1.5-6.3, P=0.004; rs3786047A: OR=2.5, 95% CI=1.2-5.1, P=0.02) also illustrated by a 12-fold shorter period of negative urine screening (P=0.01). The ARRB2 genotype may thus contribute to the interindividual variability in the response to MMT and help to predict response to treatment.

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The management of patients with small, often asymptomatic meningiomas is controversial and includes observation, microsurgery (MS) and stereotactic radiosurgery (SRS). The purpose of this retrospective study was to analyze the morbidity and the extent of removal after MS for small (< or =3 cm) intracranial meningiomas and compare these results to those of SRS reported in the literature.

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Having determined in a phase I study the maximum tolerated dose of high-dose ifosfamide combined with high-dose doxorubicin, we now report the long-term results of a phase II trial in advanced soft-tissue sarcomas. Forty-six patients with locally advanced or metastatic soft-tissue sarcomas were included, with age <60 years and all except one in good performance status (0 or 1). The chemotherapy treatment consisted of ifosfamide 10 g m(-2) (continuous infusion for 5 days), doxorubicin 30 mg m(-2) day(-1) x 3 (total dose 90 mg m(-2)), mesna and granulocyte-colony stimulating factor. Cycles were repeated every 21 days. A median of 4 (1-6) cycles per patient was administered. Twenty-two patients responded to therapy, including three complete responders and 19 partial responders for an overall response rate of 48% (95% CI: 33-63%). The response rate was not different between localised and metastatic diseases or between histological types, but was higher in grade 3 tumours. Median overall survival was 19 months. Salvage therapies (surgery and/or radiotherapy) were performed in 43% of patients and found to be the most significant predictor for favourable survival (exploratory multivariate analysis). Haematological toxicity was severe, including grade > or =3 neutropenia in 59%, thrombopenia in 39% and anaemia in 27% of cycles. Three patients experienced grade 3 neurotoxicity and one patient died of septic shock. This high-dose regimen is toxic but nonetheless feasible in multicentre settings in non elderly patients with good performance status. A high response rate was obtained. Prolonged survival was mainly a function of salvage therapies.

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The epidemiology of wheeze in children, when assessed by questionnaires, is dependent on parents' understanding of the term "wheeze". In a questionnaire survey of a random population sample of 4,236 children aged 6-10 yrs, parents' definition of wheeze was assessed. Predictors of a correct definition were determined and the potential impact of incorrect answers on prevalence estimates from the survey was assessed. Current wheeze was reported by 13.2% of children. Overall, 83.5% of parents correctly identified "whistling or squeaking" as the definition of wheeze; the proportion was higher for parents reporting wheezy children (90.4%). Frequent attacks of reported wheeze (adjusted odds ratio (OR) 3.0), maternal history of asthma (OR 1.5) and maternal education (OR 1.5) were significantly associated with a correct answer, while the converse was found for South Asian ethnicity (OR 0.6), first language not English (OR 0.6) and living in a deprived neighbourhood (OR 0.6). In summary, the present study showed that misunderstanding could lead to an important bias in assessing the prevalence of wheeze, resulting in an underestimation in children from South Asian and deprived family backgrounds. Prevalence estimates for the most severe categories of wheeze might be less affected by this bias and questionnaire surveys on wheeze should incorporate measures of parents' understanding of the term wheeze.

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BACKGROUND: IL-18 is a pleiotrophic cytokine involved in both, T-helper type 1 (Th1) and Th2 differentiation. Recently genetic variants in the IL-18 gene have been associated with increased risk of atopy and asthma. OBJECTIVE: To examine the relationship of a genetic, haplotype-tagging promotor variant -137G/C in the IL-18 gene with atopic asthma in a large, well-characterized and population-based study of adults. METHODS: Prospective cohort study design was used to collect interview and biological measurement data at two examination time-points 11 years apart. Multivariate logistic regression analysis was used to assess the association of genotype with asthma and atopy. RESULTS: The G-allele of the IL-18 promotor variant (-137G/C) was associated with a markedly increased risk for the prevalence of physician-diagnosed asthma with concomitant skin reactivity to common allergens. Stratification of the asthma cases by skin reactivity to common allergens revealed an exclusive association of IL-18 -137 G-allele with an increased prevalence of atopic asthma (adjusted odds ratio (OR): 3.63; 95% confidence interval: (1.64-8.02) for GC or GG carriers vs. CC carriers), and no according association with asthma and concomitant negative skin reactivity (adjusted OR: 1.13; 0.66-1.94). The interaction between IL-18 -137G/C genotype and positive skin prick test was statistically significant (P=0.029). None of 74 incident asthma cases with atopy at baseline exhibited the CC genotype. CONCLUSION: Our results strongly suggest that this variant of the IL-18 gene is an important genetic determinant involved in the development of atopic asthma.

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OBJECTIVE: To determine whether pharmacogenetic tests such as N-acetyltransferase 2 (NAT2) and cytochrome P450 2E1 (CYP2E1) genotyping are useful in identifying patients prone to antituberculosis drug-induced hepatotoxicity in a cosmopolite population. METHODS: In a prospective study we genotyped 89 patients treated with isoniazid (INH) for latent tuberculosis. INH-induced hepatitis (INH-H) or elevated liver enzymes including hepatitis (INH-ELE) was diagnosed based on the clinical diagnostic scale (CDS) designed for routine clinical practice. NAT2 genotypes were assessed by fluorescence resonance energy transfer probe after PCR analysis, and CYP2E1 genotypes were determined by PCR with restriction fragment length polymorphism analysis. RESULTS: Twenty-six patients (29%) had INH-ELE, while eight (9%) presented with INH-H leading to INH treatment interruption. We report no significant influence of NAT2 polymorphism, but we did find a significant association between the CYP2E1 *1A/*1A genotype and INH-ELE (OR: 3.4; 95% CI:1.1-12; p = 0.02) and a non significant trend for INH-H (OR: 5.9; 95% CI: 0.69-270; p = 0.13) compared with other CYP2E1 genotypes. This test for predicting INH-ELE had a positive predictive value (PPV) of 39% (95% CI: 26-54%) and a negative predictive value (NPV) of 84% (95% CI: 69-94%). CONCLUSION: The genotyping of CYP2E1 polymorphisms may be a useful predictive tool in the common setting of a highly heterogeneous population for predicting isoniazid-induced hepatic toxicity. Larger prospective randomized trials are needed to confirm these results.

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OBJECTIVE: To determine the frequency, age distribution and clinical presentation of carotid sinus hypersensitivity (CSH) among 373 patients (age range 15-92 years) referred to two autonomic referral centres during a 10-year period. METHODS: Carotid sinus massage (CSM) was performed both supine and during 60 degree head-up tilt. Beat-to-beat blood pressure, heart rate and a three-lead electrocardiography were recorded continuously. CSH was classified as cardioinhibitory (asystole > or = 3 s), vasodepressor (systolic blood pressure fall > or = 50 mm Hg) or mixed. All patients additionally underwent autonomic screening tests for orthostatic hypotension and autonomic failure. RESULTS: CSH was observed in 13.7% of all patients. The diagnostic yield of CSM was nil in patients aged < 50 years (n = 65), 2.4% in those aged 50-59 years (n = 82), 9.1% in those aged 60-69 years (n = 77), 20.7% in those aged 70-79 years (n = 92) and reached 40.4% in those > 80 years (n = 57). Syncope was the leading clinical symptom in 62.8%. In 27.4% of patients falls without definite loss of consciousness was the main clinical symptom. Mild and mainly systolic orthostatic hypotension was recorded in 17.6%; evidence of sympathetic or parasympathetic dysfunction was found in none. CONCLUSIONS: CSH was confirmed in patients > 50 years, the incidence steeply increasing with age. The current European Society of Cardiology guidelines that recommend testing for CSH in all patients > 40 years with syncope of unknown aetiology may need reconsideration. Orthostatic hypotension was noted in some patients with CSH, but evidence of sympathetic or parasympathetic failure was not found in any of them.

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OBJECTIVE: To compare the efficacy of vaginal misoprostol versus dinoprostone for induction of labor (IOL) in patients with preeclampsia according to the WHO criteria. STUDY DESIGN: Ninety-eight patients were retrospectively analyzed. A total of 47 patients received 3 mg dinoprostone suppositories every 6 h (max. 6 mg/24 h) whereas 51 patients in the misoprostol group received either 50 mug misoprostol vaginally every 12 h, or 25 mug every 6 h (max. 100 mug/24 h). Primary outcomes were vaginal delivery within 24 and 48 h, respectively. RESULTS: The probability of delivering within 48 h was more than three-fold higher in the misoprostol than in the dinoprostone group: odds ratio (OR)=3.48; 95% confidence interval (CI) 1.24, 10.30, whereas no significant difference was observed within 24 h (P=0.34). No correlation was seen between a ripe cervix prior to IOL and delivery within 24/48 h (P=0.33 and P=1.0, respectively). More cesarean sections were performed in the dinoprostone group due to failed IOL (P=0.0009). No significant differences in adverse maternal outcome were observed between both study groups, whereas more neonates (12 vs. 6) of the dinoprostone group were admitted to the NICU (P=0.068). CONCLUSION: This study suggests that misoprostol may have some advantages compared to dinoprostone, including improved efficacy and lower cost of the drug, even in cases of preeclampsia.

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Mast fruiting is a distinctive reproductive trait in trees. This rain forest study, at a nutrient-poor site with a seasonal climate in tropical Africa, provides new insights into the causes of this mode of phenological patterning. •  At Korup, Cameroon, 150 trees of the large, ectomycorrhizal caesalp, Microberlinia bisulcata, were recorded almost monthly for leafing, flowering and fruiting during 1995–2000. The series was extended to 1988–2004 with less detailed data. Individual transitions in phenology were analysed. •  Masting occurred when the dry season before fruiting was drier, and the one before that was wetter, than average. Intervals between events were usually 2 or 3 yr. Masting was associated with early leaf exchange, followed by mass flowering, and was highly synchronous in the population. Trees at higher elevation showed more fruiting. Output declined between 1995 and 2000. •  Mast fruiting in M. bisulcata appears to be driven by climate variation and is regulated by internal tree processes. The resource-limitation hypothesis was supported. An ‘alternative bearing’ system seems to underlie masting. That ectomycorrhizal habit facilitates masting in trees is strongly implied.