31 resultados para tracheal


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BACKGROUND: In contrast to hypnosis, there is no surrogate parameter for analgesia in anesthetized patients. Opioids are titrated to suppress blood pressure response to noxious stimulation. The authors evaluated a novel model predictive controller for closed-loop administration of alfentanil using mean arterial blood pressure and predicted plasma alfentanil concentration (Cp Alf) as input parameters. METHODS: The authors studied 13 healthy patients scheduled to undergo minor lumbar and cervical spine surgery. After induction with propofol, alfentanil, and mivacurium and tracheal intubation, isoflurane was titrated to maintain the Bispectral Index at 55 (+/- 5), and the alfentanil administration was switched from manual to closed-loop control. The controller adjusted the alfentanil infusion rate to maintain the mean arterial blood pressure near the set-point (70 mmHg) while minimizing the Cp Alf toward the set-point plasma alfentanil concentration (Cp Alfref) (100 ng/ml). RESULTS: Two patients were excluded because of loss of arterial pressure signal and protocol violation. The alfentanil infusion was closed-loop controlled for a mean (SD) of 98.9 (1.5)% of presurgery time and 95.5 (4.3)% of surgery time. The mean (SD) end-tidal isoflurane concentrations were 0.78 (0.1) and 0.86 (0.1) vol%, the Cp Alf values were 122 (35) and 181 (58) ng/ml, and the Bispectral Index values were 51 (9) and 52 (4) before surgery and during surgery, respectively. The mean (SD) absolute deviations of mean arterial blood pressure were 7.6 (2.6) and 10.0 (4.2) mmHg (P = 0.262), and the median performance error, median absolute performance error, and wobble were 4.2 (6.2) and 8.8 (9.4)% (P = 0.002), 7.9 (3.8) and 11.8 (6.3)% (P = 0.129), and 14.5 (8.4) and 5.7 (1.2)% (P = 0.002) before surgery and during surgery, respectively. A post hoc simulation showed that the Cp Alfref decreased the predicted Cp Alf compared with mean arterial blood pressure alone. CONCLUSION: The authors' controller has a similar set-point precision as previous hypnotic controllers and provides adequate alfentanil dosing during surgery. It may help to standardize opioid dosing in research and may be a further step toward a multiple input-multiple output controller.

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BACKGROUND: Hypnotic depth but not haemodynamic response to painful stimulation can be measured with various EEG-based anaesthesia monitors. We evaluated the variation of pulse plethysmography amplitude induced by an electrical tetanic stimulus (PPG variation) as a potential measure for analgesia and predictor of haemodynamic responsiveness during general anaesthesia. METHODS: Ninety-five patients, ASA I or II, were randomly assigned to five groups [Group 1: bispectral index (BIS) (range) 40-50, effect site remifentanil concentration 1 ng ml(-1);Group 2: BIS 40-50, remifentanil 2 ng ml(-1); Group 3: BIS 40-50, remifentanil 4 ng ml(-1); Group 4: BIS 25-35, remifentanil 2 ng ml(-1); Group 5: BIS 55-65, remifentanil 2 ng ml(-1)]. A 60 mA tetanic stimulus was applied for 5 s on the ulnar nerve. From the digitized pulse oximeter wave recorded on a laptop computer, linear and non-linear parameters of PPG variation during the 60 s period after stimulation were computed. The haemodynamic response to subsequent orotracheal intubation was recorded. The PPG variation was compared between groups and between responders and non-responders to intubation (anova). Variables independently predicting the response were determined by logistic regression. RESULTS: The probability of a response to tracheal intubation was 0.77, 0.47, 0.05, 0.18 and 0.52 in Groups 1-5, respectively (P<0.03). The PPG variability was significantly higher in responders than in non-responders but it did not improve the prediction of the response to tracheal intubation based on BIS level and effect site remifentanil concentration. CONCLUSION: Tetanic stimulation induced PPG variation does not reflect the analgesic state in a wide clinical range of surgical anaesthesia.

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BACKGROUND: The study aimed at defining the excess morbidity or mortality caused by an additional airway malformation in children with congenital heart disease requiring surgery. METHODS: All patients requiring surgery for heart disease during an 8-year period ending in 2003 who had an associated upper airway malformation were retrospectively studied. All patients were seen in 2004 for a prospective follow-up examination. RESULTS: Eleven patients with upper airway anomalies were identified (tracheobronchial malacia in 6 patients, long-segment tracheal stenosis in 3, and bilateral vocal cord paralysis and tracheal hemangioma in 1 patient each). They accounted for 1.5% of the entire cardiac surgical load of 764 patients. In 5 infants, the airway anomaly was diagnosed before cardiac repair, in 6 patients thereafter. Diagnosis was made by bronchoscopy in all patients, by additional bronchography in 2. Failure of rapid postoperative extubation was the most common finding. Airway management was surgical in 2 and conservative in 8 patients, 1 newborn having been denied therapy because of the severity of airway hypoplasia. Compared with patients with isolated cardiac disease, those with additional airway anomalies had significantly longer duration of postoperative mechanical ventilation (median, 24 days versus 3), perioperative hospitalization (median, 72 days versus 11) and total number of days of hospitalization during the first year of life (median, 104 days versus 14). After a maximum follow-up of 8 years (median, 37 months) only 3 of 10 surviving patients remained symptomatic owing to the airway malformation. CONCLUSIONS: Upper airway anomalies accompanying heart disease in infancy resulted in a significant prolongation of perioperative intensive care and hospital stay, as well as duration of mechanical ventilation. Failure of early postoperative extubation was the leading symptom.

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BACKGROUND: Hypnotic depth but not haemodynamic responsiveness is measured with EEG-based monitors. In this study we compared heart rate variability (HRV) in unstimulated patients and stimulation-induced HRV at different levels of anaesthesia. METHODS: A total of 95 ASA I or II patients were randomly assigned to five groups (Group 1: BIS 45(5), remifentanil 1 ng ml(-1); Group 2: BIS 45(5), remifentanil 2 ng ml(-1); Group 3: BIS 45(5), remifentanil 4 ng ml(-1); Group 4: BIS 30(5), remifentanil 2 ng ml(-1); Group 5: BIS 60(5), remifentanil 2 ng ml(-1)). A time- and frequency-domain analysis of the RR interval (RRI) from the electrocardiogram was performed. HRV before induction, before and after a 5 s tetanic stimulus of the ulnar nerve, and before and after tracheal intubation was compared between groups, between stimuli, and between responders to intubation [systolic arterial pressure (SAP) increase >20 mm Hg, a maximal heart rate (HR) after intubation >90 min(-1) or both] and non-responders (anova). RESULTS: Induction of anaesthesia significantly lowered HR and HRV. Mean RRI before stimulation was higher in G3 than in G1, G2, and G4 (P < 0.001), whereas the other HRV parameters were similar. Intubation induced a greater HRV response than tetanic stimulation. The mean RRI after intubation was lower in G3 compared with the other groups and the sd of the RRI after tetanic stimulation was lower in G3 compared with G5. Otherwise, unstimulated HRV and stimulation-induced HRV were similar in responders and non-responders. CONCLUSION: HRV parameters discriminate between awake and general anaesthesia, are different after tracheal intubation and a 5 s ulnar nerve stimulation, but do not discriminate between different levels of haemodynamic responsiveness during surgical anaesthesia.

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INTRODUCTION: Sedative and analgesic drugs are frequently used in critically ill patients. Their overuse may prolong mechanical ventilation and length of stay in the intensive care unit. Guidelines recommend use of sedation protocols that include sedation scores and trials of sedation cessation to minimize drug use. We evaluated processed electroencephalography (response and state entropy and bispectral index) as an adjunct to monitoring effects of commonly used sedative and analgesic drugs and intratracheal suctioning. METHODS: Electrodes for monitoring bispectral index and entropy were placed on the foreheads of 44 critically ill patients requiring mechanical ventilation and who previously had no brain dysfunction. Sedation was targeted individually using the Ramsay Sedation Scale, recorded every 2 hours or more frequently. Use of and indications for sedative and analgesic drugs and intratracheal suctioning were recorded manually and using a camera. At the end of the study, processed electroencephalographical and haemodynamic variables collected before and after each drug application and tracheal suctioning were analyzed. Ramsay score was used for comparison with processed electroencephalography when assessed within 15 minutes of an intervention. RESULTS: The indications for boli of sedative drugs exhibited statistically significant, albeit clinically irrelevant, differences in terms of their association with processed electroencephalographical parameters. Electroencephalographical variables decreased significantly after bolus, but a specific pattern in electroencephalographical variables before drug administration was not identified. The same was true for opiate administration. At both 30 minutes and 2 minutes before intratracheal suctioning, there was no difference in electroencephalographical or clinical signs in patients who had or had not received drugs 10 minutes before suctioning. Among patients who received drugs, electroencephalographical parameters returned to baseline more rapidly. In those cases in which Ramsay score was assessed before the event, processed electroencephalography exhibited high variation. CONCLUSIONS: Unpleasant or painful stimuli and sedative and analgesic drugs are associated with significant changes in processed electroencephalographical parameters. However, clinical indications for drug administration were not reflected by these electroencephalographical parameters, and barely by sedation level before drug administration or tracheal suction. This precludes incorporation of entropy and bispectral index as target variables for sedation and analgesia protocols in critically ill patients.

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We present a fluorescence-lifetime based method for monitoring cell and tissue activity in situ, during cell culturing and in the presence of a strong autofluorescence background. The miniature fiber-optic probes are easily incorporated in the tight space of a cell culture chamber or in an endoscope. As a first application we monitored the cytosolic calcium levels in porcine tracheal explant cultures using the Calcium Green-5N (CG5N) indicator. Despite the simplicity of the optical setup we are able to detect changes of calcium concentration as small as 2.5 nM, with a monitoring time resolution of less than 1 s.

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Mucus clearance is an important airway innate defense mechanism. Airway-targeted overexpression of the epithelial Na(+) channel β-subunit [encoded by sodium channel nonvoltage gated 1, beta subunit (Scnn1b)] in mice [Scnn1b-transgenic (Tg) mice] increases transepithelial Na(+) absorption and dehydrates the airway surface, which produces key features of human obstructive lung diseases, including mucus obstruction, inflammation, and air-space enlargement. Because the first Scnn1b-Tg mice were generated on a mixed background, the impact of genetic background on disease phenotype in Scnn1b-Tg mice is unknown. To explore this issue, congenic Scnn1b-Tg mice strains were generated on C57BL/6N, C3H/HeN, BALB/cJ, and FVB/NJ backgrounds. All strains exhibited a two- to threefold increase in tracheal epithelial Na(+) absorption, and all developed airway mucus obstruction, inflammation, and air-space enlargement. However, there were striking differences in neonatal survival, ranging from 5 to 80% (FVB/NJ

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OBJECTIVE To determine the potency ratio between S-ketamine and racemic ketamine as inductive agents for achieving tracheal intubation in dogs. STUDY DESIGN Prospective, randomized, 'blinded', clinical trial conducted in two consecutive phases. ANIMALS 112 client-owned dogs (ASA I or II). METHODS All animals were premedicated with intramuscular acepromazine (0.02 mg kg(-1) ) and methadone (0.2 mg kg(-1) ). In phase 1, midazolam (0.2 mg kg(-1) ) with either 3 mg kg(-1) of racemic ketamine (group K) or 1.5 mg kg(-1) of S-ketamine (group S) was administered IV, for induction of anaesthesia and intubation. Up to two additional doses of racemic (1.5 mg kg(-1) ) or S-ketamine (0.75 mg kg(-1) ) were administered if required. In phase 2, midazolam (0.2 mg kg(-1) ) with 1 mg kg(-1) of either racemic ketamine (group K) or S-ketamine (group S) was injected and followed by a continuous infusion (1 mg kg minute(-1) ) of each respective drug. Differences between groups were statistically analyzed via t-test, Fisher exact test and ANOVA for repeated measures. RESULTS Demographics and quality and duration of premedication, induction and intubation were comparable among groups. During phase 1 it was possible to achieve tracheal intubation after a single dose in more dogs in group K (n = 25) than in group S (n = 16) (p = 0.046). A dose of 3 mg kg(-1) S-ketamine allowed tracheal intubation in the same number of dogs as 4.5 mg kg(-1) of racemic ketamine. The estimated potency ratio was 1.5:1. During phase 2, the total dose (mean ± SD) of S-ketamine (4.02 ±1.56 mg kg(-1) ) and racemic ketamine (4.01 ± 1.42) required for tracheal intubation was similar. CONCLUSION AND CLINICAL RELEVANCE Racemic and S-ketamine provide a similar quality of anaesthetic induction and intubation. S-ketamine is not twice as potent as racemic ketamine and, if infused, the potency ratio is 1:1.

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OBJECTIVES To learn upon incidence, underlying mechanisms and effectiveness of treatment strategies in patients with central airway and pulmonary parenchymal aorto-bronchial fistulation after thoracic endovascular aortic repair (TEVAR). METHODS Analysis of an international multicentre registry (European Registry of Endovascular Aortic Repair Complications) between 2001 and 2012 with a total caseload of 4680 TEVAR procedures (14 centres). RESULTS Twenty-six patients with a median age of 70 years (interquartile range: 60-77) (35% female) were identified. The incidence of either central airway (aorto-bronchial) or pulmonary parenchymal (aorto-pulmonary) fistulation (ABPF) in the entire cohort after TEVAR in the study period was 0.56% (central airway 58%, peripheral parenchymal 42%). Atherosclerotic aneurysm formation was the leading indication for TEVAR in 15 patients (58%). The incidence of primary endoleaks after initial TEVAR was n = 10 (38%), of these 80% were either type I or type III endoleaks. Fourteen patients (54%) developed central left bronchial tree lesions, 11 patients (42%) pulmonary parenchymal lesions and 1 patient (4%) developed a tracheal lesion. The recognized mechanism of ABPF was external compression of the bronchial tree in 13 patients (50%), the majority being due to endoleak formation, further ischaemia due to extensive coverage of bronchial feeding arteries in 3 patients (12%). Inflammation and graft erosion accounted for 4 patients (30%) each. Cumulative survival during the entire study period was 39%. Among deaths, 71% were attributed to ABPF. There was no difference in survival in patients having either central airway or pulmonary parenchymal ABPF (33 vs 45%, log-rank P = 0.55). Survival with a radical surgical approach was significantly better when compared with any other treatment strategy in terms of overall survival (63 vs 32% and 63 vs 21% at 1 and 2 years, respectively), as well as in terms of fistula-related survival (63 vs 43% and 63 vs 43% at 1 and 2 years, respectively). CONCLUSIONS ABPF is a rare but highly lethal complication after TEVAR. The leading mechanism behind ABPF seems to be a continuing external compression of either the bronchial tree or left upper lobe parenchyma. In this setting, persisting or newly developing endoleak formation seems to play a crucial role. Prognosis does not differ in patients with central airway or pulmonary parenchymal fistulation. Radical bronchial or pulmonary parenchymal repair in combination with stent graft removal and aortic reconstruction seems to be the most durable treatment strategy.

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Few areas of the world have western honey bee (Apis mellifera) colonies that are free of invasive parasites Nosema ceranae (fungi) and Varroa destructor (mites). Particularly detrimental is V. destructor; in addition to feeding on host haemolymph, these mites are important vectors of several viruses that are further implicated as contributors to honey bee mortality around the world. Thus, the biogeography and attendant consequences of viral communities in the absence of V. destructor are of significant interest. The island of Newfoundland, Province of Newfoundland and Labrador, Canada, is free of V. destructor; the absence of N. ceranae has not been confirmed. Of 55 Newfoundland colonies inspected visually for their strength and six signs of disease, only K-wing had prevalence above 5% (40/55 colonies = 72.7%). Similar to an earlier study, screenings again confirmed the absence of V. destructor, small hive beetles Aethina tumida (Murray), tracheal mites Acarapis woodi (Rennie), and Tropilaelaps spp. ectoparasitic mites. Of a subset of 23 colonies screened molecularly for viruses, none had Israeli acute paralysis virus, Kashmir bee virus, or sacbrood virus. Sixteen of 23 colonies (70.0%) were positive for black queen cell virus, and 21 (91.3%) had some evidence for deformed wing virus. No N. ceranae was detected in molecular screens of 55 colonies, although it is possible extremely low intensity infections exist; the more familiar N. apis was found in 53 colonies (96.4%). Under these conditions, K-wing was associated (positively) with colony strength; however, viruses and N. apis were not. Furthermore, black queen cell virus was positively and negatively associated with K-wing and deformed wing virus, respectively. Newfoundland honey bee colonies are thus free of several invasive parasites that plague operations in other parts of the world, and they provide a unique research arena to study independent pathology of the parasites that are present.

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Sharp neck injuries in suicidal intention often present as serious emergency situations with the need for an immediate diagnosis and treatment. We report our study of the clinical evolution of this emergency condition. This study investigates the cases of sharp neck injuries in suicidal intention treated at our institution between 2000 and 2010. Patient records were collected in a retrospectively reviewed and analyzed database. The current literature was compared to our findings. We found 36 cases (10 female and 26 male). The neck injuries were superficial and profound in 16 and 20 patients, respectively. Twenty-two patients were seen by the Head and Neck surgeon. A surgical neck exploration was necessary in 19 cases. Tracheal, laryngeal, pharyngeal and vascular injuries were found in one, five, three and three cases, respectively. The hospital stay ranged from 1 to 47 days. All the patients underwent emergency psychiatric assessment and were subsequently referred for psychiatric treatment. One patient died in the emergency room from an additional arterial injury to the wrist. Sharp neck injuries in suicidal intention treated with an interdisciplinary medical, surgical and psychiatric emergency assessment and treatment have low mortality and morbidity.

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The term 'inflammatory airway disease' (IAD) is often used to describe the syndrome of lower airway inflammation that frequently affects young racehorses in training around the world. In practice, this inflammation is generally diagnosed using a combination of endoscopic tracheal examination, including grading of amounts of mucus present and tracheal wash sampling. However, a recent consensus statement from the American College of Veterinary Internal Medicine concluded that bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) sampling, rather than tracheal wash (TW) sampling, is required for cytological diagnosis of IAD and that tracheal mucus is not an essential criterion. However, as BAL is a relatively invasive procedure that is not commonly used on racing yards, this definition can only be applied routinely to a biased referral population. In contrast, many practitioners continue to diagnose IAD using endoscopic tracheal examination and sampling. We argue that, rather than restricting the use of the term IAD to phenotypes diagnosed by BAL, it is important to distinguish in the literature between airway inflammation diagnosed by BAL and that identified in the field using TW sampling. We suggest the use of the term brIAD for the former and trIAD for the latter. It is essential that we continue to endeavour to improve our understanding of the aetiology, pathogenesis and clinical relevance of airway inflammation identified in racehorses in training using tracheal examination and sampling. Future studies should focus on investigations of the component signs of airway inflammation.

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BACKGROUND Paediatric supraglottic airway devices AmbuAura-i and Air-Q were designed as conduits for tracheal intubation. Although fibreoptic-guided intubation has proved successful, blind intubation as a rescue technique has never been evaluated. OBJECTIVE Evaluation of blind intubation through AmbuAura-i and Air-Q. On the basis of fibreoptic view data, we hypothesised that the success rate with the AmbuAura-i would be higher than with the Air-Q. DESIGN A prospective, randomised controlled trial with institutional review board (IRB) approval and written informed consent. SETTING University Childrens' Hospital; September 2012 to July 2014. PATIENTS Eighty children, American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) class I to III, weight 5 to 50 kg. INTERVENTIONS Tracheal intubation was performed through the randomised device with the tip of a fibrescope placed inside and proximal to the tip of the tracheal tube. This permitted sight of tube advancement, but without fibreoptic guidance (visualised blind intubation). MAIN OUTCOME MEASURES Primary outcome was successfully visualised blind intubation; secondary outcomes included supraglottic airway device success, insertion times, airway leak pressure, fibreoptic view and adverse events. RESULTS Personal data did not differ between groups. In contrast to our hypothesis, blind intubation was possible in 15% with the Air-Q and in 3% with the AmbuAura-i [95% confidence interval (95% CI) 6 to 31 vs. 0 to 13%; P = 0.057]. First attempt supraglottic airway device insertion success rates were 95% (Air-Q) and 100% (AmbuAura-i; 95% CI 83 to 99 vs. 91 to 100; P = 0.49). Median leak pressures were 18 cmH2O (Air-Q) and 17 cmH2O [AmbuAura-i; interquartile range (IQR) 14 to 18 vs. 14 to 19 cmH2O; P = 0.66]. Air-Q insertion was slower (27 vs. 19 s, P < 0.001). There was no difference in fibreoptic view, or adverse events (P > 0.05). In one child (Air-Q size 1.5, tube size 3.5), the tube dislocated during device removal. CONCLUSION Ventilation with both devices is reliable, but success of blind intubation is unacceptably low and cannot be recommended for elective or rescue purposes. If intubation through a paediatric supraglottic airway device is desired, we suggest that fibreoptic guidance is used. TRIAL REGISTRATION Clinicaltrials.gov identifier: NCT01692522.

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In their daily forensic casework, the authors experienced discrepancies of tracheobronchial content findings between postmortem computed tomography (PMCT) and autopsy to an extent previously unnoticed in the literature. The goal of this study was to evaluate such discrepancies in routine forensic cases. A total of 327 cases that underwent PMCT prior to routine forensic autopsy were retrospectively evaluated for tracheal and bronchial contents according to PMCT and autopsy findings. Hounsfield unit (HU) values of tracheobronchial contents, causes of death, and presence of pulmonary edema were assessed in mismatching and matching cases. Comparing contents in PMCT and autopsy in each of the separately evaluated compartments of the respiratory tract low positive predictive values were assessed (trachea, 38.2 %; main bronchi, 40 %; peripheral bronchi, 69.1 %) indicating high discrepancy rates. The majority of tracheobronchial contents were viscous stomach contents in matching cases and low radiodensity materials (i.e., HU < 30) in mismatching cases. The majority of causes of death were cardiac related in the matching cases and skull/brain trauma in the mismatching cases. In mismatching cases, frequency of pulmonary edema was significantly higher than in matching cases. It can be concluded that discrepancies in tracheobronchial contents observed between PMCT and routine forensic autopsy occur in a considerable number of cases. Discrepancies may be explained by the runoff of contents via nose and mouth during external examination and the flow back of tracheal and main bronchial contents into the lungs caused by upright movement of the respiratory tract at autopsy.

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OBJECTIVE To evaluate the role of an ultra-low-dose dual-source CT coronary angiography (CTCA) scan with high pitch for delimiting the range of the subsequent standard CTCA scan. METHODS 30 patients with an indication for CTCA were prospectively examined using a two-scan dual-source CTCA protocol (2.0 × 64.0 × 0.6 mm; pitch, 3.4; rotation time of 280 ms; 100 kV): Scan 1 was acquired with one-fifth of the tube current suggested by the automatic exposure control software [CareDose 4D™ (Siemens Healthcare, Erlangen, Germany) using 100 kV and 370 mAs as a reference] with the scan length from the tracheal bifurcation to the diaphragmatic border. Scan 2 was acquired with standard tube current extending with reduced scan length based on Scan 1. Nine central coronary artery segments were analysed qualitatively on both scans. RESULTS Scan 2 (105.1 ± 10.1 mm) was significantly shorter than Scan 1 (127.0 ± 8.7 mm). Image quality scores were significantly better for Scan 2. However, in 5 of 6 (83%) patients with stenotic coronary artery disease, a stenosis was already detected in Scan 1 and in 13 of 24 (54%) patients with non-stenotic coronary arteries, a stenosis was already excluded by Scan 1. Using Scan 2 as reference, the positive- and negative-predictive value of Scan 1 was 83% (5 of 6 patients) and 100% (13 of 13 patients), respectively. CONCLUSION An ultra-low-dose CTCA planning scan enables a reliable scan length reduction of the following standard CTCA scan and allows for correct diagnosis in a substantial proportion of patients. ADVANCES IN KNOWLEDGE Further dose reductions are possible owing to a change in the individual patient's imaging strategy as a prior ultra-low-dose CTCA scan may already rule out the presence of a stenosis or may lead to a direct transferal to an invasive catheter procedure.