BVD eradication in Switzerland - a new approach

Diverse concepts for BVD eradication or control have been applied in several countries with varying success. Results of previous studies conducted in Switzerland have shown that the prevalence of antibody-positive animals is high and that BVDV is widespread in the country causing serious economic losses. A new approach to eradicate BVD in the cattle population in Switzerland was chosen. It consists in testing the whole Swiss cattle population for virus detection in a short period of time, without initial antibody screening. Identified persistently infected (PI) animals have to be slaughtered, and new herd infections should be avoided by movement restrictions. Ear-notches are collected using special tags for labeling the animals, and are analyzed using ELISA or rtRT-PCR methods. Confirmatory tests if needed are performed on blood samples using rtRT-PCR. The eradication program is divided into four phases: (1) Pre-pasturing phase: all young bovines going to transhumance in summer have to be negative tested before. (2) Initial phase: all non-tested bovines have to be tested. Movement restrictions are effective at the same time. (3) Calves phase: all newborn calves have to be tested. (4) Surveillance phase: several strategies will be compared using a modeling approach. After the pre-pasture phase already 595,230 animals (37% of the livestock) have been tested within four months. A prevalence of 1.1% of PIs was observed. The average age of infected animals is 403 days compared to 794 days for non-infected animals, with the oldest PI-animal being over 11 years old. On average PI-animals are slaughtered within 18 days after the last positive result. The pre-pasture phase has shown that sampling and testing a high number of animals in a short time is challenging but possible. The next phase will deal with double the number of animals in a similar time frame. The coordination between all partners as well as the collaboration of farmers is the key factor for ensuring the success of the program.

Identification of SNPs in the cystic fibrosis interactome influencing pulmonary progression in cystic fibrosis

There is growing evidence that the great phenotypic variability in patients with cystic fibrosis (CF) not only depends on the genotype, but apart from a combination of environmental and stochastic factors predominantly also on modifier gene effects. It has been proposed that genes interacting with CF transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) and epithelial sodium channel (ENaC) are potential modifiers. Therefore, we assessed the impact of single-nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) of several of these interacters on CF disease outcome. SNPs that potentially alter gene function were genotyped in 95 well-characterized p.Phe508del homozygous CF patients. Linear mixed-effect model analysis was used to assess the relationship between sequence variants and the repeated measurements of lung function parameters. In total, we genotyped 72 SNPs in 10 genes. Twenty-five SNPs were used for statistical analysis, where we found strong associations for one SNP in PPP2R4 with the lung clearance index (P ≤ 0.01), the specific effective airway resistance (P ≤ 0.005) and the forced expiratory volume in 1 s (P ≤ 0.005). In addition, we identified one SNP in SNAP23 to be significantly associated with three lung function parameters as well as one SNP in PPP2R1A and three in KRT19 to show a significant influence on one lung function parameter each. Our findings indicate that direct interacters with CFTR, such as SNAP23, PPP2R4 and PPP2R1A, may modify the residual function of p.Phe508del-CFTR while variants in KRT19 may modulate the amount of p.Phe508del-CFTR at the apical membrane and consequently modify CF disease.

The structural architecture of adult mammalian articular cartilage evolves by a synchronized process of tissue resorption and neoformation during postnatal development

OBJECTIVE: During postnatal development, mammalian articular cartilage acts as a surface growth plate for the underlying epiphyseal bone. Concomitantly, it undergoes a fundamental process of structural reorganization from an immature isotropic to a mature (adult) anisotropic architecture. However, the mechanism underlying this structural transformation is unknown. It could involve either an internal remodelling process, or complete resorption followed by tissue neoformation. The aim of this study was to establish which of these two alternative tissue reorganization mechanisms is physiologically operative. We also wished to pinpoint the articular cartilage source of the stem cells for clonal expansion and the zonal location of the chondrocyte pool with high proliferative activity. METHODS: The New Zealand white rabbit served as our animal model. The analysis was confined to the high-weight-bearing (central) areas of the medial and lateral femoral condyles. After birth, the articular cartilage layer was evaluated morphologically at monthly intervals from the first to the eighth postnatal month, when this species attains skeletal maturity. The overall height of the articular cartilage layer at each juncture was measured. The growth performance of the articular cartilage layer was assessed by calcein labelling, which permitted an estimation of the daily growth rate of the epiphyseal bone and its monthly length-gain. The slowly proliferating stem-cell pool was identified immunohistochemically (after labelling with bromodeoxyuridine), and the rapidly proliferating chondrocyte population by autoradiography (after labelling with (3)H-thymidine). RESULTS: The growth activity of the articular cartilage layer was highest 1 month after birth. It declined precipitously between the first and third months, and ceased between the third and fourth months, when the animal enters puberty. The structural maturation of the articular cartilage layer followed a corresponding temporal trend. During the first 3 months, when the articular cartilage layer is undergoing structural reorganization, the net length-gain in the epiphyseal bone exceeded the height of the articular cartilage layer. This finding indicates that the postnatal reorganization of articular cartilage from an immature isotropic to a mature anisotropic structure is not achieved by a process of internal remodelling, but by the resorption and neoformation of all zones except the most superficial (stem-cell) one. The superficial zone was found to consist of slowly dividing stem cells with bidirectional mitotic activity. In the horizontal direction, this zone furnishes new stem cells that replenish the pool and effect a lateral expansion of the articular cartilage layer. In the vertical direction, the superficial zone supplies the rapidly dividing, transit-amplifying daughter-cell pool that feeds the transitional and upper radial zones during the postnatal growth phase of the articular cartilage layer. CONCLUSIONS: During postnatal development, mammalian articular cartilage fulfils a dual function, viz., it acts not only as an articulating layer but also as a surface growth plate. In the lapine model, this growth activity ceases at puberty (3-4 months of age), whereas that of the true (metaphyseal) growth plate continues until the time of skeletal maturity (8 months). Hence, the two structures are regulated independently. The structural maturation of the articular cartilage layer coincides temporally with the cessation of its growth activity - for the radial expansion and remodelling of the epiphyseal bone - and with sexual maturation. That articular cartilage is physiologically reorganized by a process of tissue resorption and neoformation, rather than by one of internal remodelling, has important implications for the functional engineering and repair of articular cartilage tissue.

The effect of increased lipid intake on hormonal responses during aerobic exercise in endurance-trained men

In view of the growing health problem associated with obesity, clarification of the regulation of energy homeostasis is important. Peripheral signals, such as ghrelin and leptin, have been shown to influence energy homeostasis. Nutrients and physical exercise, in turn, influence hormone levels. Data on the hormonal response to physical exercise (standardized negative energy balance) after high-fat (HF) or low-fat (LF) diet with identical carbohydrate intake are currently not available. The aim of the study was to investigate whether a short-term dietary intervention with HF and LF affects ghrelin and leptin levels and their modulators, GH, insulin and cortisol, before and during aerobic exercise. Eleven healthy, endurance-trained male athletes (W(max) 365 +/- 29 W) were investigated twice in a randomized crossover design following two types of diet: 1. LF - 0.5 g fat/kg body weight (BW) per day for 2.5 days; 2. HF - 0.5 g fat/kg BW per day for 1 day followed by 3.5 g fat/kg BW per day for 1.5 days. After a standardized carbohydrate snack in the morning, metabolites and hormones (GH, ghrelin, leptin, insulin and cortisol) were measured before and at regular intervals throughout a 3-h aerobic exercise test on a cycloergometer at 50% of W(max). Diet did not significantly affect GH and cortisol concentrations during exercise but resulted in a significant increase in ghrelin and decrease in leptin concentrations after LF compared with HF diet (area under the curve (AUC) ghrelin LF vs HF: P < 0.03; AUC leptin LF vs HF: P < 0.02, Wilcoxon rank test). These data suggest that acute negative energy balance induced by exercise elicits a hormonal response with opposite changes of ghrelin and leptin. In addition, the hormonal response is modulated by the preceding intake of fat.

Platelet chemokines and their receptors: what is their relevance to platelet storage and transfusion practice?

The role of platelets as inflammatory cells is demonstrated by the fact that they can release many growth factors and inflammatory mediators, including chemokines, when they are activated. The best known platelet chemokine family members are platelet factor 4 (PF4) and beta-thromboglobulin (beta-TG), which are synthesized in megakaryocytes, stored as preformed proteins in alpha-granules and released from activated platelets. However, platelets also contain many other chemokines such as interleukin-8 (IL-8), growth-regulating oncogene-alpha(GRO-alpha), epithelial neutrophil-activating protein 78 (ENA-78), regulated on activation normal T expressed and secreted (RANTES), macrophage inflammatory protein-1alpha (MIP-1alpha), and monocyte chemotactic protein-3 (MCP-3). They also express chemokine receptors such as CCR4, CXCR4, CCR1 and CCR3. Platelet activation is a feature of many inflammatory diseases such as heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, acquired immunodeficiency syndrome, and congestive heart failure. Substantial amounts of PF4, beta-TG and RANTES are released from platelets on activation, which may occur during storage. Although very few data are available on the in vivo effects of transfused chemokines, it has been suggested that the high incidence of adverse reactions often observed after platelet transfusions may be attributed to the chemokines present in the plasma of stored platelet concentrates.

Magnetic resonance imaging features of orbital inflammation with intracranial extension in four dogs

This retrospective study describes the clinical and magnetic resonance (MR) imaging features of chronic orbital inflammation with intracranial extension in four dogs (two Dachshunds, one Labrador, one Swiss Mountain). Intracranial extension was observed through the optic canal (n=1), the orbital fissure (n=4), and the alar canal (n=1). On T1-weighted images structures within the affected skull foramina could not be clearly differentiated, but were all collectively isointense to hypointense compared with the contralateral, unaffected side, or compared with gray matter. On T2-, short tau inversion recovery (STIR)-, or fluid-attenuated inversion recovery (FLAIR)-weighted images structures within the affected skull foramina appeared hyperintense compared with gray matter, and extended with increased signal into the rostral cranial fossa (n=1) and middle cranial fossa (n=4). Contrast enhancement at the level of the affected skul foramina as well as at the skull base in continuity with the orbital fissure was observed in all patients. Brain edema or definite meningeal enhancement could not be observed, but a close anatomic relationship of the abnormal tissue to the cavernous sinus was seen in two patients. Diagnosis was confirmed in three dogs (one cytology, two biopsy, one necropsy) and was presumptive in one based on clinical improvement after treatment. This study is limited by its small sample size, but provides evidence for a potential risk of intracranial extension of chronic orbital inflammation. This condition can be identified best by abnormal signal increase at the orbital fissure on transverse T2-weighted images, on dorsal STIR images, or on postcontrast transverse or dorsal images.

Functional properties of multiple isoforms of human divalent metal-ion transporter 1 (DMT1)

DMT1 (divalent metal-ion transporter 1) is a widely expressed metal-ion transporter that is vital for intestinal iron absorption and iron utilization by most cell types throughout the body, including erythroid precursors. Mutations in DMT1 cause severe microcytic anaemia in animal models. Four DMT1 isoforms that differ in their N- and C-termini arise from mRNA transcripts that vary both at their 5'-ends (starting in exon 1A or exon 1B) and at their 3'-ends giving rise to mRNAs containing (+) or lacking (-) the 3'-IRE (iron-responsive element) and resulting in altered C-terminal coding sequences. To determine whether these variations result in functional differences between isoforms, we explored the functional properties of each isoform using the voltage clamp and radiotracer assays in cRNA-injected Xenopus oocytes. 1A/IRE+-DMT1 mediated Fe2+-evoked currents that were saturable (K(0.5)(Fe) approximately 1-2 microM), temperature-dependent (Q10 approximately 2), H+-dependent (K(0.5)(H) approximately 1 muM) and voltage-dependent. 1A/IRE+-DMT1 exhibited the provisional substrate profile (ranked on currents) Cd2+, Co2+, Fe2+, Mn2+>Ni2+, V3+>>Pb2+. Zn2+ also evoked large currents; however, the zinc-evoked current was accounted for by H+ and Cl- conductances and was not associated with significant Zn2+ transport. 1B/IRE+-DMT1 exhibited the same substrate profile, Fe2+ affinity and dependence on the H+ electrochemical gradient. Each isoform mediated 55Fe2+ uptake and Fe2+-evoked currents at low extracellular pH. Whereas iron transport activity varied markedly between the four isoforms, the activity for each correlated with the density of anti-DMT1 immunostaining in the plasma membrane, and the turnover rate of the Fe2+ transport cycle did not differ between isoforms. Therefore all four isoforms of human DMT1 function as metal-ion transporters of equivalent efficiency. Our results reveal that the N- and C-terminal sequence variations among the DMT1 isoforms do not alter DMT1 functional properties. We therefore propose that these variations serve as tissue-specific signals or cues to direct DMT1 to the appropriate subcellular compartments (e.g. in erythroid cells) or the plasma membrane (e.g. in intestine).

[Prevalence of hereditary diseases in three-year-old Swiss Warmblood horses]

The objective of this study was to investigate clinical signs indicating hereditary diseases like equine sarcoid, osteochondrosis (OC) and the idiopathic laryngeal hemiplegia (ILH), and to demonstrate relationships between environment, feeding habits and conformation ("exterieur" evaluation) of the horses. For this purpose, we analyzed veterinary examinations of 403 stallions at the approvals since 1994 examined 493 three-year-old Swiss Warmblood horses, which were shown at the Swiss-Field-Tests in 2005.With the help of the owners a questionnaire on health, environment and feeding habits of the animals was completed. At the same time, the horses were assessed and graded for their "exterieur" (type, conformation, gaits) by judges of the Swiss Sporthorse breeding association. In 11.5% of horses sarcoids were found, 8.7% showed one and 2.8% several tumors.The prevalence of sarcoids in offspring of sires with known sarcoids was not significantly higher than in descendants from stallions without a known history of sarcoids. We found distended joints as a possible symptom of OC in 11.4% of the horses, 3.9% (n = 19) in both tarsal joints.We did not find a relationship between enlarged joints in the offspring and the presence of OC in the sires. Abnormal respiratory noise at work, as a possible sign for ILH, was heard only in 1.2% (n = 6). It is important to note that while we found a high number of sarcoid affected horses compared to other studies, presence of enlarged joints was not very frequent and very few horses showed abnormal respiratory noise. Additionally, we found no correlation between "exterieur" marks and the horse's general health.

Nutrient-responsive mTOR signalling grows on Sterile ground

The control of cell growth, that is cell size, is largely controlled by mTOR (the mammalian target of rapamycin), a large serine/threonine protein kinase that regulates ribosome biogenesis and protein translation. mTOR activity is regulated both by the availability of growth factors, such as insulin/IGF-1 (insulin-like growth factor 1), and by nutrients, notably the supply of certain key amino acids. The last few years have seen a remarkable increase in our understanding of the canonical, growth factor-regulated pathway for mTOR activation, which is mediated by the class I PI3Ks (phosphoinositide 3-kinases), PKB (protein kinase B), TSC1/2 (the tuberous sclerosis complex) and the small GTPase, Rheb. However, the nutrient-responsive input into mTOR is important in its own right and is also required for maximal activation of mTOR signalling by growth factors. Despite this, the details of the nutrient-responsive signalling pathway(s) controlling mTOR have remained elusive, although recent studies have suggested a role for the class III PI3K hVps34. In this issue of the Biochemical Journal, Findlay et al. demonstrate that the protein kinase MAP4K3 [mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase kinase kinase-3, a Ste20 family protein kinase also known as GLK (germinal centre-like kinase)] is a new component of the nutrient-responsive pathway. MAP4K3 activity is stimulated by administration of amino acids, but not growth factors, and this is insensitive to rapamycin, most likely placing MAP4K3 upstream of mTOR. Indeed, MAP4K3 is required for phosphorylation of known mTOR targets such as S6K1 (S6 kinase 1), and overexpression of MAP4K3 promotes the rapamycin-sensitive phosphorylation of these same targets. Finally, knockdown of MAP4K3 levels causes a decrease in cell size. The results suggest that MAP4K3 is a new component in the nutrient-responsive pathway for mTOR activation and reveal a completely new function for MAP4K3 in promoting cell growth. Given that mTOR activity is frequently deregulated in cancer, there is much interest in new strategies for inhibition of this pathway. In this context, MAP4K3 looks like an attractive drug target since inhibitors of this enzyme should switch off mTOR, thereby inhibiting cell growth and proliferation, and promoting apoptosis.

Continuous thoracic epidural anesthesia improves gut mucosal microcirculation in rats with sepsis

Microcirculatory dysfunction contributes significantly to tissue hypoxia and multiple organ failure in sepsis. Ischemia of the gut and intestinal hypoxia are especially relevant for the evolution of sepsis because the mucosal barrier function may be impaired, leading to translocation of bacteria and toxins. Because sympathetic blockade enhances intestinal perfusion under physiologic conditions, we hypothesized that thoracic epidural anesthesia (TEA) may attenuate microcirculatory perturbations during sepsis. The present study was designed as a prospective and controlled laboratory experiment to assess the effects of continuous TEA on the mucosal microcirculation in a cecal ligation and perforation model of sepsis in rats. Anesthetized Sprague-Dawley rats underwent laparotomy and cecal ligation and perforation to induce sepsis. Subsequently, either bupivacaine 0.125% (n = 10) or isotonic sodium chloride solution (n = 9) was continuously infused via the thoracic epidural catheter for 24 h. In addition, a sham laparotomy was carried out in eight animals. Intravital videomicroscopy was then performed on six to ten villi of ileum mucosa. The capillary density was measured as areas encircled by perfused capillaries, that is, intercapillary areas. The TEA accomplished recruitment of microcirculatory units in the intestinal mucosa by decreasing total intercapillary areas (1,317 +/- 403 vs. 1,001 +/- 236 microm2) and continuously perfused intercapillary areas (1,937 +/- 512 vs. 1,311 +/- 678 microm2, each P < 0.05). Notably, TEA did not impair systemic hemodynamic variables beyond the changes caused by sepsis itself. Therefore, sympathetic blockade may represent a therapeutic option to treat impaired microcirculation in the gut mucosa resulting from sepsis. Additional studies are warranted to assess the microcirculatory effects of sympathetic blockade on other splanchnic organs in systemic inflammation.

Impact of a self-developed planning and self-constructed navigation system on skull base surgery: 10 years experience

CONCLUSION: Our self-developed planning and navigation system has proven its capacity for accurate surgery on the anterior and lateral skull base. With the incorporation of augmented reality, image-guided surgery will evolve into 'information-guided surgery'. OBJECTIVE: Microscopic or endoscopic skull base surgery is technically demanding and its outcome has a great impact on a patient's quality of life. The goal of the project was aimed at developing and evaluating enabling navigation surgery tools for simulation, planning, training, education, and performance. This clinically applied technological research was complemented by a series of patients (n=406) who were treated by anterior and lateral skull base procedures between 1997 and 2006. MATERIALS AND METHODS: Optical tracking technology was used for positional sensing of instruments. A newly designed dynamic reference base with specific registration techniques using fine needle pointer or ultrasound enables the surgeon to work with a target error of < 1 mm. An automatic registration assessment method, which provides the user with a color-coded fused representation of CT and MR images, indicates to the surgeon the location and extent of registration (in)accuracy. Integration of a small tracker camera mounted directly on the microscope permits an advantageous ergonomic way of working in the operating room. Additionally, guidance information (augmented reality) from multimodal datasets (CT, MRI, angiography) can be overlaid directly onto the surgical microscope view. The virtual simulator as a training tool in endonasal and otological skull base surgery provides an understanding of the anatomy as well as preoperative practice using real patient data. RESULTS: Using our navigation system, no major complications occurred in spite of the fact that the series included difficult skull base procedures. An improved quality in the surgical outcome was identified compared with our control group without navigation and compared with the literature. The surgical time consumption was reduced and more minimally invasive approaches were possible. According to the participants' questionnaires, the educational effect of the virtual simulator in our residency program received a high ranking.