Is thermochemotherapy with the Synergo system a viable treatment option in patients with recurrent non-muscle-invasive bladder cancer?

OBJECTIVES To prospectively evaluate the outcome of combined microwave-induced bladder wall hyperthermia and intravesical mitomycin C instillation (thermochemotherapy) in patients with recurrent non-muscle-invasive bladder cancer. METHODS Between 2003 and 2009, 21 patients (median age 70 years, range 35-95 years) with recurrent non-muscle-invasive bladder cancer (pTaG1-2 n = 9; pTaG3 n = 3; pT1 n = 9; concurrent pTis n = 8) were prospectively enrolled. Of 21 patients, 15 (71%) had received previous intravesical instillations with bacillus Calmette-Guérin, mitomycin C and/or farmorubicin. Thermochemotherapy using the Synergo system was carried out in 11 of 21 patients (52%) with curative intent, and in 10 of 21 patients (48%) as prophylaxis against recurrence. RESULTS The median number of thermochemotherapy cycles per patient was six (range 1-12). Adverse effects were frequent and severe: urinary urgency/frequency in 11 of 21 patients (52%), pain in eight of 21 patients (38%) and gross hematuria in five of 21 patients (24%). In eight of 21 patients (38%), thermochemotherapy had to be abandoned because of the severity of the adverse effects (pain in 3/8, severe bladder spasms in 2/8, allergic reaction in 2/8, urethral perforation in 1/8). Overall, six of 21 patients (29%) remained free of tumor after a median follow up of 50 months (range 1-120), six of 21 patients (29%) had to undergo cystectomy because of multifocal recurrences or cancer progression and seven of 21 patients (33%) died (2/7 of metastatic disease, 5/7 of non-cancer related causes). CONCLUSIONS Given the high rate of severe side-effects leading to treatment discontinuation, as well as the limited tumor response, thermochemotherapy should be offered only in highly selected cases of recurrent non-muscle-invasive bladder cancer.

Extending resection and preserving function: modern concepts of glioma surgery

Recent studies have demonstrated that the improved prognosis derived from resection of gliomas largely depends on the extent and quality of the resection, making maximum but safe resection the ultimate goal. Simultaneously, technical innovations and refined neurosurgical methods have rapidly improved efficacy and safety. Because gliomas derive from intrinsic brain cells, they often cannot be visually distinguished from the surrounding brain tissue during surgery. In order to appreciate the full extent of their solid compartment, various technologies have recently been introduced. However, radical resection of infiltrative glioma puts neurological function at risk, with potential detrimental consequences for patients' survival and quality of life. The allocation of various neurological functions within the brain varies in each patient and may undergo additional changes in the presence of a tumour (brain plasticity), making intra-operative localisation of eloquent areas mandatory for preservation of essential brain functions. Combining methods that visually distinguish tumour tissue and detect tissues responsible for critical functions now enables resection of tumours in brain regions that were previously considered off-limits, and benefits patients by enabling a more radical resection, while simultaneously lowering the risk of neurological deficits. Here we review recent and expected developments in microsurgery for glioma and their respective benefits.

Can in-vitro chemoresponse assays help find new treatment regimens for malignant gliomas?

Various in-vitro chemosensitivity and resistance assays (CSRAs) have been demonstrated to be helpful decision aids for non-neurological tumors. Here, we evaluated the performance characteristics of two CSRAs for glioblastoma (GB) cells. The chemoresponse of fresh GB cells from 30 patients was studied in vitro using the ATP tumor chemoresponse assay and the chemotherapy resistance assay (CTR-Test). Both assay platforms provided comparable results. Of seven different chemotherapeutic drugs and drug combinations tested in vitro, treosulfan plus cytarabine (TARA) was the most effective, followed by nimustine (ACNU) plus teniposide (VM26) and temozolomide (TMZ). Whereas ACNU/VM26 and TMZ have proven their clinical value for malignant gliomas in large randomized studies, TARA has not been successful in newly diagnosed gliomas. This seeming discrepancy between in vitro and clinical result might be explained by the pharmacological behavior of treosulfan. Our results show reasonable agreement between two cell-based CSRAs. They appear to confirm the clinical effectiveness of drugs used in GB treatment as long as pharmacological preconditions such as overcoming the blood-brain barrier are properly considered.

Combination of MRI and dynamic FET PET for initial glioma grading

AIM MRI and PET with 18F-fluoro-ethyl-tyrosine (FET) have been increasingly used to evaluate patients with gliomas. Our purpose was to assess the additive value of MR spectroscopy (MRS), diffusion imaging and dynamic FET-PET for glioma grading. PATIENTS, METHODS 38 patients (42 ± 15 aged, F/M: 0.46) with untreated histologically proven brain gliomas were included. All underwent conventional MRI, MRS, diffusion sequences, and FET-PET within 3±4 weeks. Performances of tumour FET time-activity-curve, early-to-middle SUVmax ratio, choline / creatine ratio and ADC histogram distribution pattern for gliomas grading were assessed, as compared to histology. Combination of these parameters and respective odds were also evaluated. RESULTS Tumour time-activity-curve reached the best accuracy (67%) when taken alone to distinguish between low and high-grade gliomas, followed by ADC histogram analysis (65%). Combination of time-activity-curve and ADC histogram analysis improved the sensitivity from 67% to 86% and the specificity from 63-67% to 100% (p < 0.008). On multivariate logistic regression analysis, negative slope of the tumour FET time-activity-curve however remains the best predictor of high-grade glioma (odds 7.6, SE 6.8, p = 0.022). CONCLUSION Combination of dynamic FET-PET and diffusion MRI reached good performance for gliomas grading. The use of FET-PET/MR may be highly relevant in the initial assessment of primary brain tumours.

The splenic autoimmune response to ADAMTS13 in thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura contains recurrent antigen-binding CDR3 motifs.

Acquired thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is the consequence of a severe ADAMTS13 deficiency resulting from autoantibodies inhibiting ADAMTS13 or accelerating its clearance. Despite the success of plasma exchange the risk of relapse is high. From 2 patients (A and B), splenectomized for recurrent episodes of acquired TTP, the splenic B-cell response against ADAMTS13 was characterized through generation of human monoclonal anti-ADAMTS13 autoantibodies (mAbs) by cloning an immunoglobulin G (IgG)4κ- and IgG4λ-Fab library using phage display technology and by Epstein-Barr virus transformation of switched memory B cells (CD19+/CD27+/IgG+). Sequence analysis of the anti-ADAMTS13 IgGs of both patients revealed that the VH gene use was limited in our patients to VH1-3 (55%), VH1-69 (17%), VH3-30 (7%), and VH4-28 (21%) and contained 8 unique and thus far not reported heavy-chain complementarity determining region 3 motifs, of which 4 were shared by the 2 patients. The discovery of several highly similar anti-ADAMTS13 autoantibodies in 2 unrelated TTP patients suggests that the autoimmune response is antigen driven, because the probability that such similar immunoglobulin rearrangements happen by chance is very low (< 10(-9)).

Cisplatin-resistant cells in malignant pleural mesothelioma cell lines show ALDH(high)CD44(+) phenotype and sphere-forming capacity

BACKGROUND Conventional chemotherapy in malignant pleural mesothelioma (MPM) has minimal impact on patient survival due to the supposed chemoresistance of cancer stem cells (CSCs). We sought to identify a sub-population of chemoresistant cells by using putative CSC markers, aldehyde dehydrogenase (ALDH) and CD44 in three MPM cell lines; H28, H2052 and Meso4. METHODS The Aldefluor assay was used to measure ALDH activity and sort ALDH(high) and ALDH(low) cells. Drug-resistance was evaluated by cell viability, anchorage-independent sphere formation, flow-cytometry and qRT-PCR analyses. RESULTS The ALDH(high) - and ALDH(low) -sorted fractions were able to demonstrate phenotypic heterogeneity and generate spheres, the latter being less efficient, and both showed an association with CD44. Cis- diamminedichloroplatinum (II) (cisplatin) treatment failed to reduce ALDH activity and conferred only a short-term inhibition of sphere generation in both ALDH(high) and ALDH(low) fractions of the three MPM cell lines. Induction of drug sensitivity by an ALDH inhibitor, diethylaminobenzaldehyde (DEAB) resulted in significant reductions in cell viability but not a complete elimination of the sphere-forming cells, suggestive of the presence of a drug-resistant subpopulation. At the transcript level, the cisplatin + DEAB-resistant cells showed upregulated mRNA expression levels for ALDH1A2, ALDH1A3 isozymes and CD44 indicating the involvement of these markers in conferring chemoresistance in both ALDH(high) and ALDH(low) fractions of the three MPM cell lines. CONCLUSIONS Our study shows that ALDH(high) CD44(+) cells are implicated in conveying tolerance to cisplatin in the three MPM cell lines. The combined use of CD44 and ALDH widens the window for identification and targeting of a drug-resistant population which may improve the current treatment modalities in mesothelioma.

Pulmonary aspergilloma: A rare differential diagnosis to lung cancer after positive FDG PET scan

Early diagnosis and treatment of lung cancer, one of the leading causes of cancer-related death, is important to improve morbidity and mortality. Therefore any suspect solitary pulmonary nodule should prompt the pursuit for a definitive histological diagnosis. We describe the case of a 55-years-old male ex-smoker, who was admitted to our hospital due to recurrent hemoptysis and dry cough. A CT scan showed an irregular nodule of increasing size (28 mm in diameter) in the left lower lobe (LLL). A whole body PET-CT scan (643 MBq F-18 FDG i.v.) was performed and confirmed an avid FDG uptake of the nodule in the LLL, highly suspicious of lung cancer, without any evidence of lymphogenic or hematogenic metastasis. Bronchoscopy was not diagnostic and due to severe adhesions after prior chest trauma and the central location of the nodule, a lobectomy of the LLL was performed. Surprisingly, histology showed a simple aspergilloma located in a circumscribed bronchiectasis with no evidence of malignancy. This is a report of an informative example of an aspergilloma, which presented with symptoms and radiological features of malignant lung cancer.

Replication and fine-mapping of a QTL for recurrent airway obstruction in European Warmblood horses.

Recurrent airway obstruction (RAO), or 'heaves', is a common performance-limiting allergic respiratory disease of mature horses. It is related to sensitization and exposure to mouldy hay and has a familial basis with a complex mode of inheritance. In a previous study, we detected a QTL for RAO on ECA 13 in a half-sib family of European Warmblood horses. In this study, we genotyped additional markers in the family and narrowed the QTL down to about 1.5 Mb (23.7-25.2 Mb). We detected the strongest association with SNP BIEC2-224511 (24,309,405 bp). We also obtained SNP genotypes in an independent cohort of 646 unrelated Warmblood horses. There was no genome-wide significant association with RAO in these unrelated horses. However, we performed a genotypic association study of the SNPs on ECA 13 in these unrelated horses, and the SNP BIEC2-224511 also showed the strongest association with RAO in the unrelated horses (p(raw) = 0.00037). The T allele at this SNP was associated with RAO both in the family and the unrelated horses. Thus, the association study in the unrelated animals provides independent support for the previously detected QTL. The association study allows further narrowing of the QTL interval to about 0.5 Mb (24.0-24.5 Mb). We sequenced the coding regions of the genes in the critical region but did not find any associated coding variants. Therefore, the causative variant underlying this QTL is likely to be a regulatory mutation.

Etiology and management of recurrent parotid pleomorphic adenoma

The objective of this review study was to encompass the relevant literature and current best practice options for this challenging, sometimes incurable problem. The source of the data was Ovid MEDLINE from 1946 to 2014. Review methods consisted of articles with clinical correlates. The most important cause of recurrence is enucleation with rupture and incomplete tumor excision at operation. Incomplete pseudocapsule, extracapsular extension, pseudopods of pleomorphic adenoma tissue, and satellite pleomorphic beyond the pseudocapsule are also likely linked to recurrent pleomorphic adenoma. Most recurrent pleomorphic adenoma are multinodular. Magnetic resonance imaging is the imaging study of choice for recurrent pleomorphic adenoma. Nerve integrity monitoring may reduce morbidity for recurrent pleomorphic adenoma. Treatment of recurrent pleomorphic adenoma must be individualized. Total parotidectomy, given the multicentricity of recurrent pleomorphic adenoma, is appropriate in many patients, but may be inadequate to control recurrent pleomorphic. There is accumulating evidence from retrospective series that postoperative radiation therapy results in significantly better local control. LEVEL OF EVIDENCE NA Laryngoscope, 2014.

Implications of Imaging Criteria for the Management and Treatment of Intraductal Papillary Mucinous Neoplasms - Benign versus Malignant Findings

OBJECTIVES Evaluation of computed tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) for differentiation of pancreatic intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm (IPMN) subtypes based on objective imaging criteria. METHODS Fifty-eight patients with 60 histologically confirmed IPMNs were included in this retrospective study. Eighty-three imaging studies (CT,n = 42; MRI,n = 41) were analysed by three independent blinded observers (O1-O3), using established imaging criteria to assess likelihood of malignancy (-5, very likely benign; 5, very likely malignant) and histological subtype (i.e., low-grade (LGD), moderate-grade (MGD), high-grade dysplasia (HGD), early invasive carcinoma (IPMC), solid carcinoma (CA) arising from IPMN). RESULTS Forty-one benign (LGD IPMN,n = 20; MGD IPMN,n = 21) and 19 malignant (HGD IPMN,n = 3; IPMC,n = 6; solid CA,n = 10) IPMNs located in the main duct (n = 6), branch duct (n = 37), or both (n = 17) were evaluated. Overall accuracy of differentiation between benign and malignant IPMNs was 86/92 % (CT/MRI). Exclusion of overtly malignant cases (solid CA) resulted in overall accuracy of 83/90 % (CT/MRI). The presence of mural nodules and ductal lesion size ≥30 mm were significant indicators of malignancy (p = 0.02 and p < 0.001, respectively). CONCLUSIONS Invasive IPMN can be identified with high confidence and sensitivity using CT and MRI. The diagnostic problem that remains is the accurate radiological differentiation of premalignant and non-invasive subtypes. KEY POINTS • CT and MRI can differentiate benign from malignant forms of IPMN. • Identifying (pre)malignant histological IPMN subtypes by CT and MRI is difficult. • Overall, diagnostic performance with MRI was slightly (not significantly) superior to CT.