158 resultados para anomalous Eu3 5D0->F-7(0) transition

em Université de Lausanne, Switzerland


Relevância:

100.00% 100.00%

Publicador:

Resumo:

OBJECTIVE: To identify specific major congenital malformations associated with use of carbamazepine in the first trimester of pregnancy. DESIGN: A review of all published cohort studies to identify key indications and a population based case-control study to test these indications. SETTING: Review of PubMed, Web of Science, and Embase for papers about carbamazepine exposure in the first trimester of pregnancy and specific malformations, and the EUROCAT Antiepileptic Study Database, including data from 19 European population based congenital anomaly registries, 1995-2005. PARTICIPANTS: The literature review covered eight cohort studies of 2680 pregnancies with carbamazepine monotherapy exposure, and the EUROCAT dataset included 98 075 registrations of malformations covering over 3.8 million births. MAIN OUTCOME MEASURES: Overall prevalence for a major congenital malformation after exposure to carbamazepine monotherapy in the first trimester. Odds ratios for malformations with exposure to carbamazepine among cases (five types of malformation identified in the literature review) compared with two groups of controls: other non-chromosomal registrations of malformations and chromosomal syndromes. RESULTS: The literature review yielded an overall prevalence for a major congenital malformation of 3.3% (95% confidence interval 2.7 to 4.2) after exposure to carbamazepine monotherapy in the first trimester. In 131 registrations of malformations, the fetus had been exposed to carbamazepine monotherapy. Spina bifida was the only specific major congenital malformation significantly associated with exposure to carbamazepine monotherapy (odds ratio 2.6 (95% confidence interval 1.2 to 5.3) compared with no antiepileptic drug), but the risk was smaller for carbamazepine than for valproic acid (0.2, 0.1 to 0.6). There was no evidence for an association with total anomalous pulmonary venous return (no cases with carbamazepine exposure), cleft lip (with or without palate) (0.2, 0.0 to 1.3), diaphragmatic hernia (0.9, 0.1 to 6.6), or hypospadias (0.7, 0.3 to 1.6) compared with no exposure to antiepileptic drugs. Further exploratory analysis suggested a higher risk of single ventricle and atrioventricular septal defect. CONCLUSION: Carbamazepine teratogenicity is relatively specific to spina bifida, though the risk is less than with valproic acid. Despite the large dataset, there was not enough power to detect moderate risks for some rare major congenital malformations.

Relevância:

100.00% 100.00%

Publicador:

Resumo:

OBJECTIVES Little is known about the stent deformability required for optimal stented heart valve bioprosthesis design. Therefore, two bioprosthetic valves with known good long-term clinical results were tested. The strain in the radial direction of the stent posts of these valves was compared with contemporary bioprosthetic valves and a native porcine aortic root. METHODS Medtronic Intact and Carpentier-Edwards Standard (CES), and four contemporary bioprostheses, including one self-expanding prosthesis, were tested with three sonomicrometry probes per valve fixed at commissure attachment points. The mean values from 2400 data points from three measurements of the interprobe distances were used to calculate the radius of the circle circumscribed around the three probes. Changes in the radius of the aortic root at pressures 70-90 and 120-140 mmHg (pressure during diastole and systole) and that of the stent posts at 70-90 and 0-10 mmHg (transvalvular pressure gradient during diastole and systole) were compared. RESULTS An increase in radius by 7.3 ± 2.6, 8.7 ± 0.0 and 3.9 ± 0.0% for the porcine aortic root, CES and Intact valves, respectively, was observed during transition from diastolic to systolic pressure and less for contemporary bioprostheses-mean 2.5 ± 0.9%, lowest 1.2 ± 0.0. CONCLUSIONS The results indicate that the radial deformability of bioprosthetic valve stent posts can be as low as 1.2% for xenoaortic and 3.0% for xenopericardial prostheses with no compromise of valve durability. Although these results suggest that valve stent post-deformability might not be of critical importance, a concrete answer to the question of the significance of stent deformability for valve durability can be obtained only by acquiring long-term follow-up results for valve prostheses with rigid stents.

Relevância:

100.00% 100.00%

Publicador:

Resumo:

BACKGROUND: We assessed the prevalence of risk factors for cardiovascular disease (CVD) in a middle-income country in rapid epidemiological transition and estimated direct costs for treating all individuals at increased cardiovascular risk, i.e. following the so-called "high risk strategy". METHODS: Survey of risk factors using an age- and sex-stratified random sample of the population of Seychelles aged 25-64 in 2004. Assessment of CVD risk and treatment modalities were in line with international guidelines. Costs are expressed as USD per capita per year. RESULTS: 1255 persons took part in the survey (participation rate of 80.2%). Prevalence of main risk factors was: 39.6% for high blood pressure (> or =140/90 mmHg or treatment) of which 59% were under treatment; 24.2% for high cholesterol (> or =6.2 mmol/l); 20.8% for low HDL-cholesterol (<1.0 mmol/l); 9.3% for diabetes (fasting glucose > or =7.0 mmol/l); 17.5% for smoking; 25.1% for obesity (body mass index > or =30 kg/m2) and 22.1% for the metabolic syndrome. Overall, 43% had HBP, high cholesterol or diabetes and substantially increased CVD risk. The cost for medications needed to treat all high-risk individuals amounted to USD 45.6, i.e. 11.2 dollars for high blood pressure, 3.8 dollars for diabetes, and 30.6 dollars for dyslipidemia (using generic drugs except for hypercholesterolemia). Cost for minimal follow-up medical care and laboratory tests amounted to 22.6 dollars. CONCLUSION: High prevalence of major risk factors was found in a rapidly developing country and costs for treatment needed to reduce risk factors in all high-risk individuals exceeded resources generally available in low or middle income countries. Our findings emphasize the need for affordable cost-effective treatment strategies and the critical importance of population strategies aimed at reducing risk factors in the entire population.

Relevância:

100.00% 100.00%

Publicador:

Resumo:

Introduction La dystrophie musculaire de Duchenne (DMD) est une myopathie progressive liée au chromosome X qui atteint environ un garçon sur 3500. Des troubles du sommeil (TDS) sont fréquemment rapportés par ces patients Les études effectuées à ce jour se sont essentiellement concentrées sur les troubles respiratoires liés au sommeil. Les TDS débutent toutefois fréquemment avant l'installation d'un trouble ventilatoire nocturne et de nombreux autres facteurs peuvent en être la cause. Objectif L'objectif de cette étude est d'évaluer la fréquence des TDS chez les garçons avec une DMD et d'en identifier les facteurs de risque. Méthode II s'agit d'une étude transversale effectuée par questionnaire postal adressé aux parents de tout garçon âgé de 4-18 ans avec une DMD, suivi dans deux centres tertiaires de réhabilitation pédiatrique (Lausanne et Dublin). Les TDS sont évalués à l'aide de la 'Sleep Disturbance Scale for Children' (SDSC), validée sur 1157 enfants sains. Elle permet d'obtenir un score total et des scores pour six facteurs représentant les TDS les plus fréquents (troubles de l'endormissement et du maintien du sommeil (TEMS), éveil nocturne-cauchemars, transition veille-sommeil, somnolence diurne excessive, troubles respiratoires associés au sommeil (TRS), hyperhidrose du sommeil). Un T- score supérieur à 70 (>2DS) est considéré comme pathologique. Les associations potentielles entre des scores pathologiques et des facteurs individuels (âge, mobilité diurne et nocturne, douleur), thérapeutiques (orthèses nocturnes, ventilation non-invasive, médication) et environnementaux (facteurs socio-familiaux) sont évaluées à l'aide d'analyses univariées (χ2) et de régressions logistiques ascendantes. Résultats Seize garçons sur 63, soit 25.4%, présentent un score total pathologique en comparaison au 3% attendus dans la population générale. Les TEMS (29.7%), les TRS (15.6%) et l'hyperhidrose du sommeil (14.3%) sont les TDS les plus prévalent. Le besoin d'être mobilisé la nuit par un tiers (OR=9.4; 95%CI: 2.2-40.7; p=0.003) et être l'enfant d'une famille monoparentale (OR=7.2; 95%CI: 1.5-35.1; p=0.015) sont des facteurs de risque indépendants pour un score total pathologique. Le besoin d'être mobilisé la nuit par un tiers (OR=18.0; 95%CI: 2.9¬110.6; p=0.002), le traitement par corticostéroïdes (OR=7.7; 95%CI: 1.4-44.0; p-0.021) et être l'enfant d'une famille monoparentale (OR=7.0; 95%CI: 1.3-38.4; p=0.025) sont des facteurs de risque indépendants pour un TEMS. Discussion Cette étude montre une prévalence élevée des TDS chez les garçons avec une DMD (25% contre 3% attendus dans la population générale). Le besoin d'être mobilisé la nuit par un tiers est identifié comme un facteur de risque important pour un score total pathologique et un TEMS. Il reflète vraisemblablement un degré d'atteinte motrice tel qu'il limite les mouvements spontanés et les adaptations posturales du sommeil, ayant pour conséquence une diminution importante de la qualité du sommeil. Les enfants vivant dans un foyer monoparental présentent plus fréquemment un score total pathologique et des TEMS, possiblement en lien avec un stress psychologique plus important dans ces familles. Le traitement par corticostéroïdes est identifié comme facteur de risque pour un TEMS. Une adaptation du schéma ou du dosage permet généralement de limiter cet effet secondaire. Si nécessaire, un traitement par Mélatonine peut être instauré. Aucune association n'a pu être mise en évidence entre les facteurs analysés et les TRS, possiblement en raison du petit nombre de garçons ayant rapporté de tels symptômes et du fait que certains symptômes d'hypoventilation nocturne ne sont pas évalués par la SDSC. Par ailleurs, la valeur prédictive de l'anamnèse, comme celle des fonctions pulmonaires diurnes, est connue pour être limitée, raison pour laquelle une oxy-capnométrie est effectuée de routine en dessous d'une capacité vitale forcée de 50%. Elle permet, si nécessaire, l'instauration précoce d'une ventilation non-invasive, limitant ainsi vraisemblablement l'impact de ('hypoventilation nocturne sur la qualité du sommeil dans notre population. Plusieurs limitations sont à évoquer. Le petit nombre de patients ne permet pas d'exclure d'autres associations potentielles. La nature transversale de l'étude augmente le risque de causalité inverse. Cette étude n'inclut pas de mesure quantitative du sommeil. Les questionnaires adressés aux parents ont toutefois pu être démontrés comme fiables hormis pour les TRS. Un biais de non-réponse ne peut pas être totalement exclu, bien que le taux de réponse soit élevé (86,5%) et qu'il n'y ait pas de différence significative entre les populations de répondeurs et non-répondeurs. Conclusion La prévalence des TDS est élevée chez les garçons avec une DMD et leurs causes sont multiples. Les facteurs de risques sont physiques (immobilité nocturne), pharmacologiques (corticothérapie) et environnementaux (famille monoparentale). Compte tenu de son impact sur la qualité de vie, l'évaluation du sommeil doit être systématique en consultation et ne pas se limiter aux seuls troubles ventilatoires nocturnes.

Relevância:

100.00% 100.00%

Publicador:

Resumo:

Background: Cerebral cholinergic transmission plays a key role in cognitive function and anticholinergic drugs are associated with impaired cognitive functions [1]. In the perioperative phase many substances with anticholinergic effects are administered and disturbed cholinergic transmission is a hypothetical cause of postoperative cognitive dysfunction (POCD). Serum anticholinergic activity (SAA; pmol/ml) may be measured as a summary marker of anticholinergic activity in an individual patient's blood. We hypothesised that an increase in SAA from preoperatively to one week postoperatively is associated with POCD in elderly patients. Methods: Thirty-two patients aged >65 yrs undergoing elective major surgery under standardized general anaesthesia (thiopental, sevoflurane, fentanyl) were investigated. Cognitive functions were measured preoperatively and 7 days postoperatively using the extended version of the Consortium to Establish a Registry for Alzheimer's Disease - Neuropsychological Assessment Battery. POCD was defined as a postoperative decline >1 z-score in at least 2 cognitive domains. SAA was measured preoperatively and 7 days postoperatively at the time of cognitive testing. Results: 50% of the investigated patients developed POCD. There were no statistically significant differences between patients with and without POCD regarding age, education, baseline cognitive function, duration of anaesthesia, SAA preoperatively (median (range) 1.0 (0.3 to 5.0) vs 1.5 (0.4 to 5.0), SAA 7 days postoperatively (median (range) 1.3 (0.1 to 7.0) vs 1.4 (0.6 to 5.5) or changes in SAA (median (range) 0.1 (-1.6 to 2.2) vs 0.2 (-1.4 to 2.8). The variability of SAA in individual patients was considerable and marked changes in SAA between the two examinations were observed in some patients. However, there was no significant relationship between changes in SAA and changes in cognitive function. Conclusion: In this preliminary analysis of a small group of patients, changes in SAA in the perioperative phase were highly variable. SAA was not associated with POCD suggesting that POCD is not simply caused by anticholinergic medications administered in the perioperative phase. A further analysis of a larger group of patients is in progress.

Relevância:

100.00% 100.00%

Publicador:

Resumo:

The mechanism of CD8 cooperation with the TCR in antigen recognition was studied on live T cells. Fluorescence correlation measurements yielded evidence of the presence of two TCR and CD8 subpopulations with different lateral diffusion rate constants. Independently, evidence for two subpopulations was derived from the experimentally observed two distinct association phases of cognate peptide bound to class I MHC (pMHC) tetramers and the T cells. The fast phase rate constant ((1.7 +/- 0.2) x 10(5) M(-1) s(-1)) was independent of examined cell type or MHC-bound peptides' structure. Its value was much faster than that of the association of soluble pMHC and TCR ((7.0 +/- 0.3) x 10(3) M(-1) s(-1)), and close to that of the association of soluble pMHC with CD8 ((1-2) x 10(5) M(-1) s(-1)). The fast binding phase disappeared when CD8-pMHC interaction was blocked by a CD8-specific mAb. The latter rate constant was slowed down approximately 10-fold after cells treatment with methyl-beta-cyclodextrin. These results suggest that the most efficient pMHC-cell association route corresponds to a fast tetramer binding to a colocalized CD8-TCR subpopulation, which apparently resides within membrane rafts: the reaction starts by pMHC association with the CD8. This markedly faster step significantly increases the probability of pMHC-TCR encounters and thereby promotes pMHC association with CD8-proximal TCR. The slow binding phase is assigned to pMHC association with a noncolocalized CD8-TCR subpopulation. Taken together with results of cytotoxicity assays, our data suggest that the colocalized, raft-associated CD8-TCR subpopulation is the one capable of inducing T-cell activation.

Relevância:

100.00% 100.00%

Publicador:

Resumo:

Aim:  Determine the frequency and predictors of sleep disorders in boys with Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (DMD). Method:  Cross-sectional study by postal questionnaire. Sleep disturbances were assessed using the Sleep Disturbance Scale for Children (validated on 1157 healthy children). A total sleep score and six sleep disturbance factors representing the most common sleep disorders were computed. Potential associations between pathological scores and personal, medical and environmental factors were assessed. Results:  Sixteen of 63 boys (25.4%) had a pathological total sleep score compared with 3% in the general population. The most prevalent sleep disorders were disorders of initiating and maintaining sleep (DIMS) 29.7%, sleep-related breathing disorders 15.6% and sleep hyperhydrosis 14.3%. On multivariate analysis, pathological total sleep scores were associated with the need to be moved by a carer (OR = 9.4; 95%CI: 2.2-40.7; p = 0.003) and being the child of a single-parent family (OR = 7.2; 95%CI: 1.5-35.1; p = 0.015) and DIMS with the need to be moved by a carer (OR = 18.0; 95%CI: 2.9-110.6; p = 0.002), steroid treatment (OR = 7.7; 95%CI: 1.4-44.0; p = 0.021) and being the child of a single-parent family (OR = 7.0; 95%CI: 1.3-38.4; p = 0.025). Conclusion:  Sleep disturbances are frequent in boys with DMD and are strongly associated with immobility. Sleep should be systematically assessed in DMD to implement appropriate interventions.

Relevância:

100.00% 100.00%

Publicador:

Resumo:

OBJECTIVES: To evaluate the current effectiveness of routine prenatal ultrasound screening in detecting gastroschisis and omphalocele in Europe. DESIGN: Data were collected by 19 congenital malformation registries from 11 European countries. The registries used the same epidemiological methodology and registration system. The study period was 30 months (July 1st 1996-December 31st 1998) and the total number of monitored pregnancies was 690,123. RESULTS: The sensitivity of antenatal ultrasound examination in detecting omphalocele was 75% (103/137). The mean gestational age at the first detection of an anomaly was 18 +/- 6.0 gestational weeks. The overall prenatal detection rate for gastroschisis was 83% (88/106) and the mean gestational age at diagnosis was 20 +/- 7.0 gestational weeks. Detection rates varied between registries from 25 to 100% for omphalocele and from 18 to 100% for gastroschisis. Of the 137 cases of omphalocele less than half of the cases were live births (n = 56; 41%). A high number of cases resulted in fetal deaths (n = 30; 22%) and termination of pregnancy (n = 51; 37%). Of the 106 cases of gastroschisis there were 62 (59%) live births, 13 (12%) ended with intrauterine fetal death and 31 (29%) had the pregnancies terminated. CONCLUSIONS: There is significant regional variation in detection rates in Europe reflecting different policies, equipment and the operators' experience. A high proportion of abdominal wall defects is associated with concurrent malformations, syndromes or chromosomal abnormalities, stressing the need for the introduction of repeated detailed ultrasound examination as a standard procedure. There is still a relatively high rate of elective termination of pregnancies for both defects, even in isolated cases which generally have a good prognosis after surgical repair.

Relevância:

100.00% 100.00%

Publicador:

Resumo:

Background: Low to moderate alcohol consumption has been associated with lower coronary heart disease (CHD) risk, an effect mainly mediated by an increase in HDL-cholesterol levels. However, data on the CHD risk associated with high alcohol consumption are conflicting. Methods: In a population-based study of 5,769 men and women, aged 35-75 years, without cardiovascular disease in Switzerland, last week alcohol consumption was categorized into 0, 1-6, 7-13, 14-20, 21-27, 28-34, 035 drinks/week and into nondrinkers (0 drink/week), moderate (1-13), high (14-34) and very high drinkers (035). Blood pressure, lipids and high sensitivity C-reactive protein (hs-CRP) were measured, and the 10-year CHD risk was calculated according to the Framingham risk score. Results: 73% (n = 4,214) of the participants consumed alcohol; 16% (n = 909) were considered as high drinkers and 2% (n = 119) as very high drinkers. In multivariate analysis, increasing alcohol consumption was associated with higher HDL-cholesterol (from 1.57 ± 0.01 [adjusted mean ± SE] in nondrinkers to 1.88 ± 0.03 mmol/L in very high drinkers); triglycerides (1.17 ± 1.01 to 1.32 ± 1.05 mmol/L), and systolic and diastolic blood pressure rose significantly (127.4 ± 0.4 to 132.2 ± 1.4 and 78.7 ± 0.3 to 81.7 ± 0.9 mm Hg, respectively, all p for trend <0.001). Predicted 10-year CHD risk increased from 4.31 ± 0.10 to 4.90 ± 0.37 (p = 0.03) with increasing alcohol use, with a J-shaped relationship. Conclusion: As measured by the 10-year CHD risk, the protective effect of alcohol consumption disappears in very high drinkers, namely because the beneficial increase in HDL-cholesterol may be blunt by a rise in blood pressure levels.

Relevância:

100.00% 100.00%

Publicador:

Resumo:

PURPOSE: To assess the safety and efficacy of treatment of macular edema secondary to central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) with intravitreal bevacizumab. PATIENTS AND METHOD: The ongoing prospective study included 8 consecutive patients (8 eyes) with macular edema secondary to CRVO (6 non ischemic and 2 ischemic), treated with intravitreal injection of 1.25 mg (0.05 mL) of bevacizumab. Main outcome was best corrected visual acuity (BCVA) and central foveal thickness (CFT) measured by optical coherence tomography monthly during one year. Retreatment criteria include decrease of BCVA, persistence of macular edema on angiograms and increase of CFT. RESULTS: Mean age of the eight patients was 68 years (range: 50-82 years). Mean duration of symptoms before injection was 98 days (range: 3-289). Mean follow-up was 3.25 months. At baseline, mean BCVA was 0.84 logMar and mean baseline CFT was 771 microm. Mean BCVA was 0.36 and mean CFT thickness was 275 microm (n = 8) at month 1, 0.41 and 411 microm at month 2 (n = 7), 0.3 and 344 microm at month 3 (n = 6), 0.3 and 397 microm at month 4 (n = 5), respectively. In 75 % of patients, a single injection was not sufficient, and retreatment needed. No serious adverse events were observed. CONCLUSIONS: Treatment of macular edema secondary to CRVO with intravitreal bevacizumab injection of 1.25 mg was well tolerated and associated with marked macular thickness reduction and BCVA improvement in all patients. A trend towards reduction of foveal thickness and improvement of visual acuity was observed in both acute and chronic CRVO.

Relevância:

100.00% 100.00%

Publicador:

Resumo:

To determine the mechanisms that prevent an increase in gluconeogenesis from increasing hepatic glucose output, six healthy women were infused with [1-13C]fructose (22 mumol.kg-1.min-1), somatostatin, insulin, and glucagon. In control experiment, non-13C-enriched fructose was infused at the same rate without somatostatin, and [U-13C]glucose was infused to measure specifically plasma glucose oxidation. Endogenous glucose production (EGP, [6,6-2H]glucose), net carbohydrate oxidation (CHOox, indirect calorimetry), and fructose oxidation (13CO2) were measured. EGP rate did not increase after fructose infusion with (13.1 +/- 1.2 vs. 12.9 +/- 0.3 mumol.kg-1.min-1) and without (10.3 +/- 0.5 vs. 9.7 +/- 0.5 mumol.kg-1.min-1) somatostatin, despite the fact that gluconeogenesis increased. Nonoxidative fructose disposal, corresponding mainly to glycogen synthesis, was threefold net glycogen deposition, the latter calculated as fructose infusion minus CHOox (14.8 +/- 1.1 and 4.3 +/- 2.0 mumol.kg-1.min-1). It is concluded that 1) the mechanism by which EGP remains constant when gluconeogenesis from fructose increases is independent of changes in insulin and 2) simultaneous breakdown and synthesis of glycogen occurred during fructose infusion.

Relevância:

100.00% 100.00%

Publicador:

Resumo:

A recent study with 69 Japanese liver transplants treated with tacrolimus found that the MDR13435 C >T polymorphism, but not the MDR12677 G >T polymorphism, was associated with differences in the intestinal expression level of CYP3A4 mRNA. In the present study, over 6 h, we measured the kinetics of a 75 microg oral dose of midazolam, a CYP3A substrate, in 21 healthy subjects genotyped for the MDR13435 C >T and 2677 G >T polymorphism. No statistically significant differences were found in the calculated pharmacokinetic parameters between the three 3435 C >T genotypes (TT, CT and CC group, respectively: Cmax (mean +/- SD: 0.30 +/- 0.08 ng/ml, 0.31 +/- 0.09 ng/ml and 0.31 +/- 0.11 ng/ml; Apparent clearance: 122 +/- 29 l/h, 156 +/- 92 l/h and 111 +/- 35 l/h; t1/2: 1.9 +/- 1.1 h, 1.6 +/- 0.90 h and 1.7 +/- 0.7 h). In addition, the 30-min 1'OH midazolam to midazolam ratio, a marker of CYP3A activity, determined in 74 HIV-positive patients before the introduction of antiretroviral treatment, was not significantly different between the three 3435 C >T genotypes (mean ratio +/- SD: 3.65 +/- 2.24, 4.22 +/- 3.49 and 4.24 +/- 2.03, in the TT, CT and CC groups, respectively). Similarly, no association was found between the MDR12677 G >T polymorphism and CYP3A activity in the healthy subjects or in the HIV-positive patients. The existence of a strong association between the activity of CYP3A and MDR13435 C >T and 2677 G >T polymorphisms appears unlikely, at least in Caucasian populations and/or in the absence of specific environmental factors.

Relevância:

100.00% 100.00%

Publicador:

Resumo:

PURPOSE: This study investigated maximal cardiometabolic response while running in a lower body positive pressure treadmill (antigravity treadmill (AG)), which reduces body weight (BW) and impact. The AG is used in rehabilitation of injuries but could have potential for high-speed running, if workload is maximally elevated. METHODS: Fourteen trained (nine male) runners (age 27 ± 5 yr; 10-km personal best, 38.1 ± 1.1 min) completed a treadmill incremental test (CON) to measure aerobic capacity and heart rate (V&#729;O2max and HRmax). They completed four identical tests (48 h apart, randomized order) on the AG at BW of 100%, 95%, 90%, and 85% (AG100 to AG85). Stride length and rate were measured at peak velocities (Vpeak). RESULTS: V&#729;O2max (mL·kg·min) was similar across all conditions (men: CON = 66.6 (3.0), AG100 = 65.6 (3.8), AG95 = 65.0 (5.4), AG90 = 65.6 (4.5), and AG85 = 65.0 (4.8); women: CON = 63.0 (4.6), AG100 = 61.4 (4.3), AG95 = 60.7 (4.8), AG90 = 61.4 (3.3), and AG85 = 62.8 (3.9)). Similar results were found for HRmax, except for AG85 in men and AG100 and AG90 in women, which were lower than CON. Vpeak (km·h) in men was 19.7 (0.9) in CON, which was lower than every other condition: AG100 = 21.0 (1.9) (P < 0.05), AG95 = 21.4 (1.8) (P < 0.01), AG90 = 22.3 (2.1) (P < 0.01), and AG85 = 22.6 (1.6) (P < 0.001). In women, Vpeak (km·h) was similar between CON (17.8 (1.1) ) and AG100 (19.3 (1.0)) but higher at AG95 = 19.5 (0.4) (P < 0.05), AG90 = 19.5 (0.8) (P < 0.05), and AG85 = 21.2 (0.9) (P < 0.01). CONCLUSIONS: The AG can be used at maximal exercise intensities at BW of 85% to 95%, reaching faster running speeds than normally feasible. The AG could be used for overspeed running programs at the highest metabolic response levels.

Relevância:

100.00% 100.00%

Publicador:

Resumo:

Nicotine has been shown to stimulate the release of vasopressin and to cause significant hemodynamic changes. The mechanisms leading to enhanced vasopressin secretion and the vascular consequences of the high plasma vasopressin levels during nicotine infusion have not yet been determined. Therefore, the purposes of the present study were 1) to examine in normal conscious rats the role of opioid peptides in the nicotine-induced increase in plasma vasopressin levels and 2) to assess the role of vasopressin in the hemodynamic effects of nicotine (20 micrograms/min for 15 min) using a specific V1 antagonist of the vascular actions of vasopressin. Plasma vasopressin levels were significantly increased in the nicotine-treated animals (39.5 +/- 10 vs. 3.7 +/- 0.6 pg/ml in the controls, P less than .01). Pretreatment with naloxone, an antagonist of opioids at their receptors, did not reduce the vasopressin levels (47.7 +/- 9 pg/ml). Nicotine also increased mean blood pressure (122.5 +/- 2.5 to 145.2 +/- 3.3 mm Hg, P less than .01) and decreased heart rate (461 +/- 6 to 386 +/- 14.5 beats/min, P less than .05). Administration of the vasopressin V1 antagonist before the nicotine infusion did not affect the systemic hemodynamics or the regional blood flow distribution, as assessed by radiolabeled microspheres. Thus, these results suggest that the nicotine-induced secretion of vasopressin is not mediated by opioid receptors and that the high plasma vasopressin levels do not exert any significant hemodynamic effect on cardiac output or blood flow distribution.

Relevância:

100.00% 100.00%

Publicador:

Resumo:

Introduction: Des unités d'attente de placement ont vu le jour pour¦répondre à la pénurie de lits d'hébergement de long séjour dans le¦Canton de Vaud et désengorger les hôpitaux aigus. Pour les patients¦qui y sont admis, la décision de placement intervient au sortir d'une¦hospitalisation aiguë, laissant peu de temps à la personne pour¦cheminer face à cette décision. Cette étude pilote vise à investiguer¦le degré de sérénité de ces patients face à l'hébergement de longue¦durée et déterminer s'il existe une relation avec la durée d'attente ou¦le décès en unité d'attente.¦Population et méthode: Personnes âgées (N = 78) admises dans¦une structure d'attente et préparation à l'hébergement de longue¦durée après un séjour hospitalier aigu. Des données démographiques,¦fonctionnelles, cognitives et affectives ont été récoltées dans les 4¦semaines après l'admission. La sérénité ressentie face à l'hébergement¦longue durée a été évaluée à l'aide d'une échelle de type Likert à¦quatre niveaux (pas du tout/plutôt pas/plutôt/tout à fait serein).¦Résultats: Les patients étaient âgés de 85.6 ans en moyenne, 74%¦(58/78) étaient des femmes, 47% (37/78) avaient des troubles cognitifs¦et 35% (27/78) des troubles dépressifs. Globalement 24% (19/78)¦des patients se déclaraient peu ou pas du tout sereins face au¦placement. Comparés aux patients sereins, ces 19 patients étaient¦significativement (p &lt;.05) moins âgés (83.2 ± 1.0 vs 86.8 ± 6.5 ans),¦plus dépendants dans les activités de la vie quotidienne (BAVQ 2.5 ±¦1.7 vs 3.5 ± 1.6), plus déprimés (GDS 15-items 7.0 ± 3.5 vs 4.4 ± 3.0),¦et avaient plus souvent des antécédents de chutes (95% vs 75%). En¦analyse multivariée, le manque de sérénité restait significativement¦associé à une dépendance plus élevée dans les BAVQ, à un score¦GDS plus élevé ainsi qu'aux antécédents de chute. Il n'y avait pas de¦différence significative en termes de durée moyenne de séjour avant le¦placement (90.0 ± 57.3j vs 87.8 ± 73.2, médianes 85 vs 57, P = .45), ni¦de mortalité dans l'unité d'attente (5% vs 5%) entre les deux groupes¦de patients.¦Conclusion: Près d'un quart des patients en unité d'attente se¦déclarent peu sereins face à la perspective du placement. Ces patients¦sont plus dépendants, ont des antécédents de chutes et sont plus¦déprimés, ce qui souligne l'importance d'une identification précoce de¦ces patients afin de leur offrir un soutien dans cette période difficile de¦transition dans leur parcours de vie.