Ectodysplasin A (EDA)-EDA receptor signalling and its pharmacological modulation

L'ectodysplasine Al (EDA1 ou EDA), un ligand de la famille du TNF, et son récepteur EDAR favorisent le développement des poils, des dents et de plusieurs types de glandes. Chez l'humain, une déficience en EDA cause une dysplasie ectodermique liée à l'X, caractérisée par la genèse défectueuse des phanères. Les souris Tabby, déficientes en Eda, présentent des symptômes similaires. Nous démontrons que les souris Tabby sont en moyenne 7% plus légères que les contrôles au moment du sevrage. Ce phénotype ne dépend pas du génotype des petits, mais exclusivement de celui de la mère, suggérant que l'absence d'EDA perturbe la fonction mammaire. La glande mammaire se développe en plusieurs étapes, principalement à la puberté et pendant la grossesse. Nous avons généré des anticorps pour activer ou inhiber la signalisation d'EDAR. Les anticorps agonistes corrigent le développement de souris ou de chiens déficients en EDA, alors que les antagonistes provoquent une dysplasie ectodermique chez les souris saines. L'exposition répétée de souris Tabby aux anticorps agonistes après le sevrage accroît la taille et la fonction des glandes sébacées, démonstration pharmacologique qu'EDA contrôle l'homéostasie de la glande sébacée adulte. Ces outils seront utiles pour étudier la fonction d'EDA aux diverses étapes du développement de la glande mammaire. Fc-EDAl, un stimulateur d'EDAR, est en phase d'évaluation clinique. Nous avons montré que les structures dépendantes d'EDA qui se forment à différentes étapes du développement répondent à l'action du Fc-EDAl dans des fenêtres temporelles étroites ou larges. De plus, certaines structures peuvent être induites plusieurs jours après le début naturel de leur formation. Alors que la plupart des structures se forment suite à un seul jour d'activation d'EDAR, d'autre demandent un temps de stimulation plus long. La formation des dents est régulée par des signaux activateurs et inhibiteurs. Une forte stimulation d'EDAR spécifiquement appliquée aux deux premières molaires induit des signaux négatifs qui avortent la formation de la troisième molaire, alors qu'une forte stimulation donnée à la troisième molaire la rend hypertrophique tout en induisant parfois une quatrième molaire jamais observée chez les souris de type sauvage ou Tabby. EDA est donc un activateur important de la formation dentaire. Pris dans leur ensemble, ces résultats ont des implications pour la thérapie des dysplasies ectodermiques. - The TNF family ligand Ectodysplasin Al (EDA1 or EDA) and its receptor ED AR regulate embryonic development of hair, teeth and several types of glands. In humans, EDA mutations cause X-linked hypohidrotic ectodermal dysplasia (XLHED), a condition characterized by defective development of skin appendages. £da-deficient (Tabby) mice suffer from similar defects. We observed that Tabby pups at weaning were on average 7% smaller than WT controls, a phenotype that was curiously not linked to the genotype of pups, but to that of mothers, suggesting decreased mammary gland function in the absence of EDA. Mammary glands develop in several steps, most of which are post-natal. We generated monoclonal antibodies to block or activate EDAR signaling. Agonist antibodies rescued developmental defects when administered timely in £cfo-deficient mice and dogs, whereas blocking antibodies induced ectodermal dysplasia in WT mice. Agonist antibodies administered after weaning in £da-deficient mice for several months markedly increased both size and function of sebaceous glands, providing the first demonstration that pharmacological activation of the EDAR pathway in adults can correct important aspects of the dry skin phenotype. This also highlights a role for EDA1 in the homeostasis of adult sebaceous glands. These tools will be useful to study the function of EDA 1 at different stages of mammary gland development. Another EDAR agonist, Fc-EDAl, is currently evaluated in clinical trials. We found that EDA 1-dependent structures forming at different time points during development can respond to Fc-EDAl during time response windows that are narrow or wide. Also, some structures can be triggered up to several days after their normal time of induction. While most structures could be rescued by a single day of EDAR signaling, others required longer exposure times to form. Tooth formation is regulated by activating and inhibitory signals that impact one on the other. When strong EDAR signals were specifically given to the first two molars, overwhelming inhibitory signals completely inhibited formation of the third molar. In contrast, strong signals specifically given to the third molar induced hypertrophy of the later with occasional appearance of a fourth molar never observed in WT or £da-deficient mice. This clearly positions EDA as an important activating signal in tooth formation. Taken together, these results have implications for the therapy of ectodermal dysplasias.

The use of mannan antigen and anti-mannan antibodies in the diagnosis of invasive candidiasis: recommendations from the Third European Conference on Infections in Leukemia.

INTRODUCTION: Timely diagnosis of invasive candidiasis (IC) remains difficult as the clinical presentation is not specific and blood cultures lack sensitivity and need a long incubation time. Thus, non-culture-based methods for diagnosing IC have been developed. Mannan antigen (Mn) and anti-mannan antibodies (A-Mn) are present in patients with IC. On behalf of the Third European Conference on Infections in Leukemia, the performance of these tests was analysed and reviewed. METHODS: The literature was searched for studies using the commercially available sandwich enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (Platelia™, Bio-Rad Laboratories, Marnes-la-Coquette, France) for detecting Mn and A-Mn in serum. The target condition of this review was IC defined according to 2008 European Organization for Research and Treatment of Cancer/Mycoses Study Group criteria. Sensitivity, specificity and diagnostic odds ratios (DOR) were calculated for Mn, A-Mn and combined Mn/A-Mn testing. RESULTS: Overall, 14 studies that comprised 453 patients and 767 controls were reviewed. The patient populations included in the studies were mainly haematological and cancer cases in seven studies and mainly intensive care unit and surgery cases in the other seven studies. All studies but one were retrospective in design. Mn sensitivity was 58% (95% confidence interval [CI], 53-62); specificity, 93% (95% CI, 91-94) and DOR, 18 (95% CI 12-28). A-Mn sensitivity was 59% (95% CI, 54-65); specificity, 83% (95% CI, 79-97) and DOR, 12 (95% CI 7-21). Combined Mn/A-Mn sensitivity was 83% (95% CI, 79-87); specificity, 86% (95% CI, 82-90) and DOR, 58 (95% CI 27-122). Significant heterogeneity of the studies was detected. The sensitivity of both Mn and A-Mn varied for different Candida species, and it was the highest for C. albicans, followed by C. glabrata and C. tropicalis. In 73% of 45 patients with candidemia, at least one of the serological tests was positive before the culture results, with mean time advantage being 6 days for Mn and 7 days for A-Mn. In 21 patients with hepatosplenic IC, 18 (86%) had Mn or A-Mn positive test results at a median of 16 days before radiological detection of liver or spleen lesions. CONCLUSIONS: Mn and A-Mn are useful for diagnosis of IC. The performance of combined Mn/A-Mn testing is superior to either Mn or A-Mn testing.

β-Glucan antigenemia assay for the diagnosis of invasive fungal infections in patients with hematological malignancies: a systematic review and meta-analysis of cohort studies from the Third European Conference on Infections in Leukemia (ECIL-3).

BACKGROUND: Invasive fungal infections (IFIs) are life-threatening complications in patients with hemato-oncological malignancies, and early diagnosis is crucial for outcome. The compound 1,3-β-D-glucan (BG), a cell wall component of most fungal species, can be detected in blood during IFI. Four commercial BG antigenemia assays are available (Fungitell, Fungitec-G, Wako, and Maruha). This meta-analysis from the Third European Conference on Infections in Leukemia (ECIL-3) assessed the performance of BG assays for the diagnosis of IFI in hemato-oncological patients. METHODS: Studies reporting the performance of BG antigenemia assays for the diagnosis of IFI (European Organization for Research and Treatment of Cancer and Mycoses Study Group criteria) in hemato-oncological patients were identified. The analysis was focused on high-quality cohort studies with exclusion of case-control studies. Meta-analysis was performed by conventional meta-analytical pooling and bivariate analysis. RESULTS: Six cohort studies were included (1771 adult patients with 414 IFIs of which 215 were proven or probable). Similar performance was observed among the different BG assays. For the cutoff recommended by the manufacturer, the diagnostic performance of the BG assay in proven or probable IFI was better with 2 consecutive positive test results (diagnostic odds ratio for 2 consecutive vs one single positive results, 111.8 [95% confidence interval {CI}, 38.6-324.1] vs 16.3 [95% CI, 6.5-40.8], respectively; heterogeneity index for 2 consecutive vs one single positive results, 0% vs 72.6%, respectively). For 2 consecutive tests, sensitivity and specificity were 49.6% (95% CI, 34.0%-65.3%) and 98.9% (95% CI, 97.4%-99.5%), respectively. Estimated positive and negative predictive values for an IFI prevalence of 10% were 83.5% and 94.6%, respectively. CONCLUSIONS: Different BG assays have similar accuracy for the diagnosis of IFI in hemato-oncological patients. Two consecutive positive antigenemia assays have very high specificity, positive predictive value, and negative predictive value. Because sensitivity is low, the test needs to be combined with clinical, radiological, and microbiological findings.

Peroxisome proliferator-activated receptors beta/delta: emerging roles for a previously neglected third family member.

PURPOSE OF REVIEW: Peroxisome proliferator-activated receptors alpha, beta/delta and gamma are members of the nuclear receptor superfamily. They mediate the effects of fatty acids and their derivatives at the transcriptional level, and are considered to be lipid sensors that participate in the regulation of energy homeostasis. Compared with the alpha and gamma peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor isotypes, peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor beta functions have long remained an enigma. In this review, we focus on emerging knowledge about peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor beta activation and roles. RECENT FINDINGS: We review recent data that suggest key roles in basic cell functions, such as proliferation, differentiation and survival, and in embryonic development and lipid metabolism in peripheral tissues. SUMMARY: The newly unveiled roles of peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor beta in important basic cell functions certainly justify a further exploration of its potential as a therapeutic target in pathologies such as metabolic syndrome X or skin diseases.

Response evaluation in third- and fourth-line treatment of GIST: the role of PET

Background: Response evaluation in gastrointestinal stromal tumors is difficult. Computed tomography and size-based assessments have been found inadequate to draw prognostic conclusions in patients treated with tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKI). Density criteria (CHOI) have recently been shown to better define prognostic subsets of patients evaluated with CT. Still, positron emission tomography (PET) might be better at identifying responders with good outcome early, as shown for first and recently second-line treatment in GIST (Prior et al.; J Clin Oncol 2009). We wanted to evaluate the role of PET in third- and fourth-line TKI treatment of GIST. Methods: We retrospectively reviewed patients with GIST who had received third- or fourth-line treatment with TKI and had undergone PET for response evaluation. Patient needed to have a baseline and at least one subsequent PET. Results of the first "early" PET after treatment start have been used throughout this analysis and EORTC PET Study Group criteria applied. Results: Twelve treatment courses were evaluable, seven with Nilotinib in third- and five with Sorafenib in fourth-line treatment, in 8 patients, median age 60 y (range 36−78 y), who had all failed prior Imatinib and Sunitinib treatment due to disease progession. Baseline and follow-up PET were performed within a median of 34 days (range 9−84 days). Median progression-free survival (PFS) was 262 days in patients responding to PET versus 76 days in patients with stable or progressing disease (p = 0.15). Conclusions: This small series suggests that PET retains its value for outcome prediction in third- and fourth-line TKI treatment of GIST. This could be of particular clinical value in these vulnerable patients with large tumour masses. Early PET may help in stopping ineffective, but toxic therapy and help switching to a more effective therapy. PET should be evaluated further in this patient population.

Colorectal cancer and thoracic surgeons: close encounters of the third kind.

Resection of lung metastases from colorectal cancer (CRC) is increasingly performed with a curative intent. This strategy was made possible in the 1990s by the development of new chemotherapeutic approaches, improved surgical techniques and better imaging modalities. However, evidence-based data showing clinical benefits of lung metastasectomy in this setting are nonexistent, and there are no prospective randomized trials to support the routine performance of these procedures for stage IV CRC. Current evidence suggests that resection of pulmonary metastases in combination with new cytotoxic agents, such as oxaliplatin, irinotecan and bevacizumab, may result in prolonged survival for many, and cure for a small minority of CRC patients who experienced tumor spread beyond the limits of the abdomen. This review focuses on the results of surgical management of CRC patients with lung metastases: we report the outcome of published series according to the presence or the absence of liver metastasis (and hepatic resection) prior to lung resection.

Greenstick fractures of the middle third of the forearm. A prospective multi-centre study.

BACKGROUND: Greenstick fractures suffered during growth have a high risk for refracture and posttraumatic deformity, particularly at the forearm diaphysis. The use of a preemptive completion of the fracture by manipulation of the concave cortex is controversial and data supporting this approach are few. AIM: Aim of this study was to determine the factors which predispose to refracture and deformities, and to define therapeutic strategies. METHODS: We prospectively gathered clinical and radiographic data over a period of one year on greenstick fractures of the middle third of the forearm in children as part of a multi-centre study. Endpoint was a follow-up visit at one year. Radiographic deformity, state of consolidation at resumption of physical activities and refracture rate were analysed statistically (ANOVA, Student's t-test and Pearson's chi-square test) with regard to patient age, gender, fracture type, therapy and time in plaster. RESULTS: We collected the data of 103 patients (63 boys, 40 girls), average age 6.6 years (1.3-14.5 years), the vast majority of whom had a combined greenstick fracture of the radius and ulna. 6.7% of the patients sustained a refracture within 49 days (29-76) after plaster removal. They were significantly older (p=0.017) with a significantly higher incidence of manual completion of the fracture with radiographic signs of partial consolidation (p=0.025). Residual deformities were significantly smaller after completion of the fracture compared to reduction without completion (p=0.019) or plaster fixation alone (p<0.005). CONCLUSIONS: Completion of a greenstick fracture does not prevent refracture. Nevertheless, it diminishes the extent of secondary deformities in cases where the primary angulation exceeds the remodelling capacity. Prevention of refracture should include a routine radiographic follow-up 4-6 weeks after injury with continuation of plaster fixation in cases of partial consolidation.

Suprapineal recess: an alternate site for third ventriculostomy? Case report.

This 30-year-old woman presented with clinical symptoms and signs of intracranial hypertension and Parinaud syndrome secondary to ventriculoperitoneal shunt dysfunction. Magnetic resonance (MR) imaging revealed gross triventricular hydrocephalus with a large suprapineal recess due to aqueductal stenosis. Using an endoscopic approach, a ventriculostomy was performed within the floor of the dilated suprapineal recess. Following this procedure the patient experienced alleviation of all her neurological symptoms and signs. Postoperative MR imaging and cerebrospinal fluid flow studies demonstrated a functioning ventriculostomy. The anatomy of the suprapineal recess and its suitability for endoscopic ventriculostomy are discussed.

Patterns of extraocular muscle weakness in vasculopathic pupil-sparing, incomplete third nerve palsy.

OBJECTIVE: To determine the pattern of extraocular muscle (EOM) paresis in incomplete vasculopathic third nerve palsies (3NP) that have normal pupillary function. METHODS: A retrospective study in a private practice and academic neuro-ophthalmic practice. Patients diagnosed with vasculopathic 3NP within 4 weeks of symptom onset were identified. The chart of each patient was reviewed to determine pupillary function and the pattern and degree of EOM and levator palpebrae paresis at the time of presentation. RESULTS: Of 55 patients with vasculopathic 3NP, 42 (76%) had normal pupillary function. Of these 42, 23 (55%) demonstrated an incomplete EOM palsy, defined as partially reduced ductions affecting all third nerve-innervated EOMs and levator (diffuse pattern) or partially reduced ductions that involved only some third nerve-innervated EOMs and levator (focal pattern). Twenty (87%) of these 23 patients showed a diffuse pattern of paresis; only three (13%) showed a focal pattern of paresis, one that affected only the superior rectus and levator muscles (superior division weakness). CONCLUSIONS: Based on our series, most patients with EOM/levator involvement in pupil-sparing, incomplete 3NP of vasculopathic origin have a diffuse pattern of paresis. In contrast, our review of the literature suggests that pupil-sparing 3NP of aneurysmal origin usually have a focal pattern of paresis. We propose that distinguishing these two patterns of EOM paresis may be helpful in differentiating between vasculopathic and aneurysmal 3NP. Future studies will be needed to confirm the clinical utility of this hypothesis.