Evaluation of the immune response to infection with metastatic and non-metastatic "Leishmania guyanensis" parasites

ABSTRACT : Les infections par le parasite Leishmania guyanensis se caractérisent par une dissémination depuis le site initial d'infection jusqu'aux tissus naso-pharyngés, responsable de la Leishmaniose à lésions secondaires muco-cutanées (LMC). Les lésions des patients atteints de LMC montrent une massive infiltration de cellules immunitaires, une réponse immunitaire élevée et la présence de parasites (bien qu'en très faible quantité). La LMC engendre une augmentation de l'expression de TNFa ainsi qu'un défaut dans le contrôle de la réponse immunitaire caractérisé par une absence de réponse à l'IL 10. La réponse immunitaire de l'hôte ainsi que la virulence du parasite sont deux facteurs reconnus pour le contrôle de l'infection. Le mécanisme de la pathogenèse de la LMC restent grandement incompris, surtout le mécanisme de dissémination de l'infection du site d'inoculation jusqu'aux sites secondaires d'infection (métastases) ainsi que les détails de la réponse de l'hôte contre le pathogène. Dans un modèle d'infection d' hamsters avec des parasites du Nouveau Monde, la classification des parasites Leishmania se fait en fonction de leur capacité à développer des métastases. Ce modéle d'infection a permis de caractériser différentes souches de parasites selon la classification de l'Organisation Mondiale de la Sante (OMS) tel que la souche de référence W>É-II/BR/78/M5313 qui est reconnue comme hautement métastatique alors que ces clones dérivés de M5313 montrent de grandes variations quand a leur capacité à créer des métastases. Les clones 13 et 21 sont métastatiques (M+) alors que les clones 3 et 17 sont nonmétastatiques (NI-). Les objectifs de cette thèse ont été d'étudier le rôle de la réponse immunitaire innée des macrophages après infection in vitro avec différents clones métastatiques et non-métastatiques du parasite L. guyanensis, ainsi que d'étudier la réponse immunitaire générée suite à une infection in vivo par les clones M+ et M- de L. guyanensis dans un modèle marin. L'analyse de la .réponse immunitaire des macrophages in vitro montrent qu'il y aune augmentation significative de leur statut d'activation après infection par des parasites M+ indiquée par la modulation des marqueurs d'activation de surface CD80, CD86 et CD40, ainsi que une augmentation significative de CXCL 10, CCLS, IL6 et TNFa au niveau transcription de l'ARNm et au niveau de la protéine. Cette phénomène d'activation a été observée chez les deux souches de souris C57BL/6 et BALB/c. L'utilisation d'un inhibiteur d'entrée des parasites (Cytochalsin D) ou d'un inhibiteur des fonctions endosomales (Chloroquine) diminue de manière significative la réponse des macrophages aux parasites M+. L'utilisation de macrophages déficients en TLR, MyD88, et TRIF a démontré que la réponse générée après infection par les parasites M+ était dépendante de la voie de signalisation de TRIF et TLR3. Lors d'infection in vivo par des parasites M5313, au moins 50% des souris BALB/c présentent un phénotype sensible caractérisé par des lésions non-nécrotiques qui ne guérissent pas, persistent plus de 13 semaines après infection et contiennent un nombre considérable de parasites. Ces souris développent une réponse immunitaire de type T helper 2 (Th2) avec un niveau élevé d'IL-4 et d'IL-10. Les autres souris ont un phénotype non-sensible, les souris développant peu ou pas de lésion, avec peu de parasites et une réponse immunitaire diminuée, caractérisée par un niveau faible d'IFNy, d'IL4 et d'IL10. De plus, les souris BALB/c infectées par un parasite L. guyanensis isolé à partir des lésions muco-cutanées d'un patient humain atteint de LMC ont démontrés un phénotype similaire aux souris infectées par la souche M5313 avec 50% des souris développant des lésions persistantes, alors qu'un parasite dérivé des lésions cutanées humains n'a montré qu'une faible sensibilité avec une lésion transitoire qui finit par guérir. Nous avons montré que la sensibilité de ces souris BALB/c dépend de l'IL-4 et de l'IL-10 car les souris IL-10-/sur fond génétique BALB/c ainsi que les souris BALB/c traitée avec de l'anti-IL4 étaient capables de contrôler l'infection par M5313. Les souris C57BL/6 sont résistantes à l'infection par le parasite M5313. Elles développent une lésion transitoire qui guérit 9 semaines après infection. Ces souris résistantes ont un très faible taux de parasites au site d'infection et développent une réponse immunitaire de type Thl avec un niveau élevé d'IFNr et peu d'IL4 et d'IL10. Les infections in vivo de souris déficientes en MyD88, TRIF, TLR3 ou TLR9 (sur fond génétique C57BL/6) ont indiqué que MyD88 et TLR9 étaient impliqués dans la résistance à l'infection par L. guyanensi, et que TRIF et TLR3 avaient un rôle important dans la sensibilité. Ce travail met en évidence le fait que la réponse immunitaire de l'hôte est modulée par le parasite selon leur caractérisation d'être soit M+ ou M-. Nous avons démontré également que plusieurs gènes et voies de signalisations étaient impliqués dans cette réponse favorisant le développement d'une LMC. ABSTRACT : Leishmania guyanensis parasites are able to disseminate from the initial site of cutaneous skin infection to the nasopharyngeal tissues resulting in destructive secondary lesions and the disease Mucocutaneous Leishmaniasis (MCL). The secondary lesions in patients have intense immune cell infiltration, elevated immune responses and the presence (albeit at low levels) of parasites. More specifically, MCL patients produce higher levels of TNFa and display impairment in their ability to control the immune response due to a defect in their ability to respond to IL10. Little is known about the pathogenesis of MCL, especially about the dissemination of the infection from the site of inoculation to secondary sites (metastasis) and the response of the host to the pathogen. The hamster model of L. guyanensis infection has previously characterized the WHO reference strain, L. guyanensis WHI/BR/78/M5313, as being highly metastatic. Clones of parasites derived from this reference strain show a differential ability to metastasize. This thesis studied the differential immune response generated by macrophages in vitro, or by mice in vivo, following infection with L. guyanensis parasites. A significant increase in the activation status of macrophages derived from C57BL/6 or BALB/c mice was observed after in vitro infection with L. guyanensis parasites when compared to non-metastatic parasites. This change in status was evidenced by the increased expression of surface activation markers, together with the chemokines, CXCL 10, CCLS, and cytokines, IL6 and TNFa. Furthermore, in vitro infection of macrophages isolated from mice deficient in either a specific Toll Like Receptor (TLR) or the adaptor molecules MyD88 or TRIF, indicated that the immune response generated following L. guyanensis metastatic parasite infection was reliant on the TRIF dependent TLR3 signalling pathway. In vivo footpad infection of BALB/c mice with the L. guyanensis M5313 parasites showed a reproducible susceptible phenotype, whereby at least 50% of infected mice developed non-healing, nonnecrosing lesions with high parasitemia that persisted over 13 weeks post infection. This phenotype was characterized by a Th2 type cytokine immune response with increased levels of IL4 and IL10 detected in the draining lymph nodes. IL 10 deficient mice on a BALB/c background, or BALB/c mice treated with anti-IL4 were able to control infection with L. guyanensis M5313 parasites, thereby proving that these cytokines were indeed implicated in the susceptibility to infection. Moreover, infection of BALB/c mice with patient isolated L. guyanensis parasites confirmed that MCL derived parasites were able to induce a susceptibility phenotype similar to that of L. guyanensis M5313. C57BL/6 mice, on the other hand, were highly resistant to infection with L. guyanensis M5313 parasites and produced transient footpad swelling that healed by week 9 post infection, together with low degrees of footpad parasitemia and a Thl polarized immune response. Infection of mice deficient in MyD88, TRIF, TLR3, and TLR9 (on a C57BL/6 background), indicated that MyD88 and TLR9 were involved in the resistance of these mice to infection, and that TRIF and TLR3 were involved in the susceptibility. This study has shown that the host response can be differentially modulated depending on the infecting parasite with several genes and pathways being identified that could be involved in promoting the development of MCL.

VARIABILITY OF PHENOTYPIC, PROTEOMIC AND TRANSCRIPTOMIC EXPRESSION OF STAPHYLOCOCCUS AUREUS SURFACE ADHESINS

Staphylococcus aureus is a highly successful pathogen responsible of a wide variety of diseases, from minor skin infection to life-threatening sepsis or infective endocarditis, as well as food poisoning and toxic shock syndrome. This heterogeneity of infections and the ability of S. aureus to develop antibiotic-resistance to virtually any available drugs reflect its extraordinary capacity to adapt and survive in a great variety of environments. The pathogenesis of S. aureus infection involves a wide range of cell wall-associated adhesins and extracellular toxins that promote host colonization and invasion. In addition, S. aureus is extremely well equipped with regulatory systems that sense environmental conditions and respond by fine tuning the expression of metabolic and virulence determinants. Surface adhesins referred to MSCRAMMs - for Microbial Surface Component Recognizing Adherence Matrix Molecules - mediate binding to the host extracellular matrix or serum components, including fibrinogen, fibronectin, collagen and elastin, and promote tissue colonization and invasion. Major MSCRAMMs include a family of surface-attached proteins covalently bound to the cell wall peptidoglycan via a conserved LPXTG motif. Genomic analyses indicate that S. aureus contain up to 22 LPXTG surface proteins, which could potentially act individually or in synergy to promote infection. In the first part of this study we determined the range of adherence phenotypes to fibrinogen and fibronectin among 30 carriage isolates of S. aureus and compared it to the adherence phenotypes of 30 infective endocarditis and 30 blood culture isolates. Overall there were great variations in in vitro adherence, but no differences were observed between carriage and infection strains. We further determined the relation between in vitro adherence and in vivo infectivity in a rat model of experimental endocarditis, using 4 isolates that displayed either extremely low or high adherence phenotypes. Unexpectedly, no differences were observed between the in vivo infectivity of isolates that were poorly and highly adherent in vitro. We concluded that the natural variability of in vitro adherence to fibrinogen and fibronectin did not correlate with in vivo infectivity, and thus that pathogenic differences between various strains might only be expressed in in vivo conditions, but not in vitro. Therefore, considering the importance of adhesins expression for infection, direct measurement of those adhesins present on the bacterial surface were made by proteomic approach. 5 In the second series of experiments we assessed the physical presence of the LPXTG species at the staphylococcal surface, as measured at various time points during growth in different culture media. S. aureus Newman was grown in either tryptic soy broth (TSB) or in Roswell Park Memorial Institute (RPMI) culture medium, and samples were removed from early exponential growth phase to late stationary phase. Experiments were performed with mutants in the global accessory-gene regulator (agr), surface protein A (Spa) and clumping factor A (ClfA). Peptides of surface proteins were recovered by "trypsin-shaving" of live bacteria, and semi-quantitative proteomic analysis was performed by tandem liquid-chromatography and mass-spectrometry (LC-MS). We also determined in parallel the mRNA expression by microarrays analysis, as well as the phenotypic adherence of the bacteria to fibrinogen in vitro. The surface proteome was highly complex and contained numerous proteins theoretically not belonging to the bacterial envelope, including ribosomal proteins and metabolic enzymes. Sixteen of the 21 known LPXTG species were detected, but were differentially expressed. As expected, 9 known agr-regulated proteins (e.g. including Spa, FnBPA, ClfA, IsdA, IsdB, SasH, SasD, SasG and FmtB) increased up to the late exponential growth phase, and were abrogated in agr-negative mutants. However, only Spa and SasH modified their proteomic and mRNA profiles in parallel in the parent and its agr negative mutant, while all other LPXTG proteins modified their proteomic profiles independently of their mRNA. Moreover, ClfA became highly transcribed and active in in vitro fibrinogen adherence tests during late growth (24h), whereas it remained poorly detected by proteomics. Differential expression was also detected in iron-rich TSB versus iron-poor RPMI. Proteins from the iron-regulated surface determinant (isd) system, including IsdA, IsdB and IsdH were barely expressed in iron-rich TSB, whereas they increased their expression by >10 time in iron-poor RPMI. We conclude that semi-quantitative proteomic analysis of specific protein species is feasible in S. aureus and that proteomic, transcriptomic and adherence phenotypes demonstrated differential profiles in S. aureus. Furthermore, peptide signatures released by trypsin shaving suggested differential protein domain exposures in various environments, which might be relevant for antiadhesins vaccines. A comprehensive understanding of the S. aureus physiology should integrate all these approaches.

Comparison of quantiferon-TB gold with tuberculin skin test for detecting latent tuberculosis infection prior to liver transplantation.

Screening for latent tuberculosis infection (LTBI) is recommended prior to organ transplantation. The Quantiferon-TB Gold assay (QFT-G) may be more accurate than the tuberculin skin test (TST) in the detection of LTBI. We prospectively compared the results of QFT-G to TST in patients with chronic liver disease awaiting transplantation. Patients were screened for LTBI with both the QFT-G test and a TST. Concordance between test results and predictors of a discordant result were determined. Of the 153 evaluable patients, 37 (24.2%) had a positive TST and 34 (22.2%) had a positive QFT-G. Overall agreement between tests was 85.1% (kappa= 0.60, p < 0.0001). Discordant test results were seen in 12 TST positive/QFT-G negative patients and in 9 TST negative/QFT-G positive patients. Prior BCG vaccination was not associated with discordant test results. Twelve patients (7.8%), all with a negative TST, had an indeterminate result of the QFT-G and this was more likely in patients with a low lymphocyte count (p = 0.01) and a high MELD score (p = 0.001). In patients awaiting liver transplantation, both the TST and QFT-G were comparable for the diagnosis of LTBI with reasonable concordance between tests. Indeterminate QFT-G result was more likely in those with more advanced liver disease.

Wound infection following stoma takedown: primary skin closure versus subcuticular purse-string suture.

Abstract: Background Stoma closure has been associated with a high rate of surgical site infection (SSI) and the ideal stoma-site skin closure technique is still debated. The aim of this study was to compare the rate of SSI following primary skin closure (PC) versus a skin-approximating, subcuticular purse-string closure (APS). Methods All consecutive patients undergoing stoma closure between 2002 and 2007 by two surgeons at a single tertiary-care institution were retrospectively assessed. Patients who had a new stoma created at the same site or those without wound closure were excluded. The end point was SSI, determined according to current CDC guidelines, at the stoma closure site and/or the midline laparotomy incision. Results There were 61 patients in the PC group (surgeon A: 58 of 61) and 17 in the APS group (surgeon B: 16 of 17). The two groups were similar in baseline and intraoperative characteristics, except that patients in the PC group were more often diagnosed with benign disease (p = 0.0156) and more often had a stapled anastomosis (p = 0.002). The overall SSI rate was 14 of 78 (18%). All SSIs occurred in the PC group (14 of 61 vs. 0 of 17, p = 0.03). Conclusions Our study suggests that a skin-approximating closure with a subcuticular purse-string of the stoma site leads to less SSI than a primary closure. Randomized studies are needed to confirm our findings and assess additional end points such as healing time, cost, and patient satisfaction.

Sonication of removed breast implants for improved detection of subclinical infection.

BACKGROUND: Capsular fibrosis is a severe complication after breast implantation with an uncertain etiology. Microbial colonization of the prosthesis is hypothesized as a possible reason for the low-grade infection and subsequent capsular fibrosis. Current diagnostic tests consist of intraoperative swabs and tissue biopsies. Sonication of removed implants may improve the diagnosis of implant infection by detachment of biofilms from the implant surface. METHODS: Breast implants removed from patients with Baker grades 3 and 4 capsular contracture were analyzed by sonication, and the resulting sonication fluid was quantitatively cultured. RESULTS: This study investigated 22 breast implants (6 implants with Baker 3 and 16 implants with Baker 4 capsular fibrosis) from 13 patients. The mean age of the patients was 49 years (range, 31-76 years). The mean implant indwelling time was 10.4 years (range, 3 months to 30 years). Of the 22 implants, 12 were used for breast reconstruction and 10 for aesthetic procedures. The implants were located subglandularly (n = 12), submuscularly (n = 6), and subcutaneously (n = 4). Coagulase-negative staphylococci, Propionibacterium acnes, or both were detected in the sonication fluid cultures of nine implants (41%), eight of which grew significant numbers of microorganisms (>100 colonies/ml of sonication fluid). CONCLUSIONS: Sonication detected bacteria in 41% of removed breast implants. The identified bacteria belonged to normal skin flora. Further investigation is needed to determine any causal relation between biofilms and capsular fibrosis.

Mechanisms of skin adherence and invasion by dermatophytes.

Dermatophytes are keratinophilic fungi that can be pathogenic for humans and animals by infecting the stratum corneum, nails, claws or hair. The first infection step consists of adherence of arthroconidia to the stratum corneum. The mechanisms and the kinetics of adherence have been investigated using different in vitro and ex vivo experimental models, most notably showing the role of a secreted serine protease from Microsporum canis in fungal adherence to feline corneocytes. After germination of the arthroconidia, dermatophytes invade keratinised structures that have to be digested into short peptides and amino acids to be assimilated. Although many proteases, including keratinolytic ones, have been characterised, the understanding of dermatophyte invasion mechanisms remains speculative. To date, research on mechanisms of dermatophyte infection focused mainly on both secreted endoproteases and exoproteases, but their precise role in both fungal adherence and skin invasion should be further explored.

Infection latente a M. tuberculosis, mise a jour 2011 [Latent M. tuberculosis infection, update 2011].

It is estimated that one third of the world population is latently infected by Mycobacterium tuberculosis and thus at risk of reactivation. Latent tuberculosis (TB) impact in Switzerland is often overlooked. Diagnosis and prophylaxis are insufficiently undertaken, especially for people at higher risk of reactivation due to immunosuppression. Interferon-gamma release assays replace tuberculosis skin tests for diagnosis of latent infection in adults. It is still recommended to treat prophylactically a case of latent TB infection with 9 months of isoniazid; however therapy with rifampicin for 4 months, currently an alternative option, is linked to improved adherence and favorable cost-benefit ratio.

Systemic antibody responses to gut commensal bacteria during chronic HIV-1 infection.

BACKGROUND: Human systemic antibody responses to commensal microbiota are not well characterised during health and disease. Of particular interest is the analysis of their potential modulation caused by chronic HIV-1 infection which is associated with sustained enteropathy and systemic B cell disturbances reflected by impaired B cell responses and chronic B cell hyperactivity. The mechanisms underlying B cell hyperactivation and the specificities of the resulting hypergammaglobulinaemia are only poorly understood. METHODS: By a technique referred to as live bacterial FACS (fluorescence-activated cell sorting), the present study investigated systemic antibody responses to several gut and skin commensal bacteria as well as Candida albicans in longitudinal plasma and serum samples from healthy donors, chronic HIV-1-infected individuals with or without diarrhoea and patients with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). RESULTS: The data show that systemic antibody responses to the commensal microbiota were abundantly present in humans and remained remarkably stable over years. Overall systemic antibody responses to gut commensal bacteria were not affected during chronic HIV-1 infection, with titres decreasing when normalised to elevated plasma immunoglobulin G (IgG) levels found in patients with HIV. In contrast, increases in the titres of high affinity antimicrobiota antibodies were detected in patients with IBD, demonstrating that conditions with known increased intestinal permeability and aberrant mutualism can induce changes in antibody titres observed in these assays. CONCLUSION: Neither HIV-associated enteropathy nor B cell dysfunction impact on the high-affinity systemic antibody responses to gut commensal bacteria. HIV-associated hypergammaglobulinaemia is therefore unlikely to be driven by induction of antimicrobiota antibodies.

Contact tracing investigation after professional exposure to tuberculosis in a Swiss hospital using both tuberculin skin test and IGRA.

SETTING: A 950 bed teaching hospital in Switzerland. AIM: To describe the result of a contact investigation among health care workers (HCW) and patients after exposure to a physician with smear-positive pulmonary tuberculosis in a hospital setting using standard tuberculin skin tests (TST) and Interferon-gamma release assay (IGRA). METHOD: HCW with a negative or unknown TST at hiring had a TST two weeks after the last contact with the index case (T0), repeated six weeks later if negative (T6). All exposed HCW had a T-SPOT.TB at T0 and T6. Exposed patients had a TST six weeks after the last contact, and a T-SPOT.TB if the TST was positive. RESULTS: Among 101 HCW, 17/73 (22%) had a positive TST at T0. TST was repeated in 50 at T6 and converted from negative to positive in eight (16%). Twelve HCW had a positive T-SPOT.TB at T0 and ten converted from negative to positive at T6. Seven HCW with a positive T-SPOT.TB reverted to negative at T6 or at later controls, most of them with test values close to the cut-off. Among 27 exposed patients tested at six weeks, ten had a positive TST, five of them confirmed by a positive T-SPOT.TB. CONCLUSIONS: HCW tested twice after exposure to a case of smear-positive pulmonary TB demonstrated a possible conversion in 10% with T-SPOT and 16% with TST. Some T-SPOT.TB reverted from positive to negative during the follow-up, mostly tests with a value close to the cut-off. Due to the variability of the test results, it seems advisable to repeat the test with values close to the cut-off before diagnosing the presence of a tuberculous infection.

Influence of Bacille Calmette-Guérin vaccination on size of tuberculin skin test reaction : to what size ?

RESUME Le diagnostic d'infection tuberculeuse repose essentiellement sur le test tuberculinique (test de Mantoux). Cependant, le résultat de ce dernier est également influencé par d'autres facteurs, le plus important étant la vaccination par le Bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG), interaction connue depuis de nombreuses années. Il est généralement admis que l'effet de la vaccination peut entraîner des réactions positives jusqu'à un diamètre d'induration de 15 mm. Au-delà, la positivité du test est en général attribuée à une primo-infection tuberculeuse. Peu d'études se sont réellement penchées sur le sujet. Chez le personnel de soins soumis à des Mantoux répétés, cette notion revêt une importance particulière pour interpréter correctement une réaction fortement positive en l'absence de facteurs de risque tuberculeux, dans un pays à faible endémie tuberculeuse. Notre étude a cherché à déterminer si le diamètre transversal de l'induration du Mantoux était un critère fiable pour distinguer une positivité associée à une infection tuberculeuse de celle associée à une ancienne vaccination. Elle s'est attachée à rechercher un seuil au-delà duquel l'infection tuberculeuse pourrait être considérée comme probable. Entre janvier 1991 et mars 1998, tous les nouveaux employés du CHUV ont été invités à recevoir un test tuberculinique à l'occasion de leur visite d'entrée à la Médecine du personnel. En cas de réponse négative, un deuxième test a été pratiqué une semaine plus tard, pour détecter un éventuel effet booster. Lors de la première visite, l'infirmière a rempli un questionnaire comprenant les données démographiques usuelles, des informations concernant les facteurs pouvant influencer la positivité du test, notamment les antécédents de vaccination par le BCG, les expositions à la tuberculose et l'existence d'antécédents d'infection tuberculeuse. Parmi les 5117 sujets inclus dans l'étude, nous avons trouvé que l'influence de la vaccination variait en fonction de l'âge. Chez les sujets de moins de 40 ans, la vaccination par le BCG était le prédicteur le plus important d'un Mantoux positif inférieur à 18 mm, de loin supérieur aux facteurs de risque habituels pour une infection tuberculeuse, eux aussi significatifs. L'effet du BCG était présent pour des réactions allant jusqu'à 20 mm. Pour les Mantoux supérieurs à 20 mm, l'odds ratio (OR) relatif au BCG demeure clairement élevé (supérieur à 3,4) bien que non significatif. Par contre, pour les employés âgés de plus de 40 ans, le BCG est un facteur prédictif pour les tests supérieurs à 10 mm (OR 2.4) mais n'est plus un facteur significatif pour une taille supérieure à 15 mm. Ces résultats montrent que l'interprétation d'un test tuberculinique même fortement positif, doit être faite avec prudence et discernement. En effet, notre étude démontre que chez les sujets vaccinés de moins de 40 ans, dans les zones de faible endémie tuberculeuse particulièrement en l'absence de facteurs de risque pour une infection tuberculeuse, un Mantoux positif jusqu'à 18 mm est dû, le plus probablement, à une ancienne vaccination par le BCG, plutôt qu'à une infection par M tuberczilosis. L'interprétation des Mantoux de taille inférieure à 18 mm et les Mantoux effectués chez des sujets de moins de 40 ans, doit prendre en compte l'existence d'un BCG antérieur. En conséquence, la mise en évidence d'une réaction de Mantoux fortement positive ne devrait pas conduire systématiquement à un traitement préventif. L'absence de spécificité du test Mantoux, utilisé pour le dépistage de la tuberculose depuis bientôt une centaine d'année, est un problème connu. Nous démontrons que la taille de l'induration ne peut pas être utilisée de façon fiable comme critère pour identifier une infection tuberculeuse chez une personne vaccinée avec le BCG, avec le risque de sui-traiter un nombre important de sujets. Dans notre étude, 21% des sujets avaient un Mantoux supérieur ou égal à 15 mm et auraient dû être traités selon les recommandations en vigueur en Suisse si l'on ne tenait pas compte du BCG antérieur. Des tests plus spécifiques sont actuellement à l'étude et permettront vraisemblablement, à l'avenir, de palier au problème de l'absence de spécificité du test de Mantoux. Abstract : Background. Previous bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) vaccination can confound the results of a tuberculin skin test (TST). We sought to determine a cutoff diameter of TST induration beyond which the influence of BCG vaccination was negligible in evaluating potential Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection in a population of health care workers with a high vaccination rate and low incidence of tuberculosis. Methods. From 1991 through 1998, all new employees at the University Hospital of Lausanne, Switzerland, underwent a 2-step TST at entry visit. We also gathered information on demographic characteristics, along with factors commonly associated with tuberculin positivity, including previous BCG vaccination, history of latent M. tuberculosis infection, and predictors for M. tuberculosis infection. Results. Among the 5117 investigated subjects, we found that influence of BCG vaccination on TST results varied across categories of age (likelihood ratio test, 0.0001). Prior BCG vaccination had a strong influence on skin test results of mm in diameter among persons <40 years old, compared with the influence of factors predictive of M. tuberculosis infection. Prior latent M. tuberculosis infection and travel or employment in a country in which tuberculosis is endemic also had significant influences. Conclusions. Interpretation of TST reactions of mm among BCG-vaccinated persons <40 years of age must be done with caution in areas with a low incidence of tuberculosis. In such a population, except for persons who have never been vaccinated, TST reactions of ---518 mm are more likely to be the result of prior vaccination than infection and should not systematically lead to preventive treatment.

Plasmacytoid dendritic cells in the skin: to sense or not to sense nucleic acids.

Plasmacytoid dendritic cells (pDCs) are specialized sensors of viral nucleic acids that initiate protective immunity through the production of type I interferons (IFNs). Normally, pDCs fail to sense host-derived self-nucleic acids but do so when self-nucleic acids form complexes with endogenous antimicrobial peptides produced in damaged skin. Whereas regulated expression of antimicrobial peptides may lead to pDC activation and protective immune responses to skin injury, overexpression of antimicrobial peptides in psoriasis drives excessive sensing of self-nucleic acids by pDCs resulting in IFN-driven autoimmunity. In skin tumors, pDCs are unable to sense self-nucleic acids; however, therapeutic activation of pDCs by synthetic nucleic acids or analogues can be exploited to generate antitumor immunity.

Selective expression of the V beta 14 T cell receptor on Leishmania guyanensis--specific CD8+ T cells during human infection.

Peripheral blood mononuclear cells from subjects never exposed to Leishmania were stimulated with Leishmania guyanensis. We demonstrated that L. guyanensis-stimulated CD8(+) T cells produced interferon (IFN)- gamma and preferentially expressed the V beta 14 T cell receptor (TCR) gene family. In addition, these cells expressed cutaneous lymphocyte antigen and CCR4 surface molecules, suggesting that they could migrate to the skin. Results obtained from the lesions of patients with localized cutaneous leishmaniaisis (LCL) showed that V beta 14 TCR expression was increased in most lesions (63.5%) and that expression of only a small number of V beta gene families (V beta 1, V beta 6, V beta 9, V beta 14, and V beta 24) was increased. The presence of V beta 14 T cells in tissue confirmed the migration of these cells to the lesion site. Thus, we propose the following sequence of events during infection with L. guyanensis. After initial exposure to L. guyanensis, CD8(+) T cells preferentially expressing the V beta 14 TCR and secreting IFN- gamma develop and circulate in the periphery. During the infection, these cells migrate to the skin at the site of the parasitic infection. The role of these V beta 14 CD8(+) T cells in resistance to infection remains to be determined conclusively.

Development of an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay for serodiagnosis of ringworm infection in cattle.

The aim of this study was to develop an in-house enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) for the serological diagnosis of ringworm infection in cattle. We used available recombinant forms of Trichophyton rubrum dipeptidyl peptidase V (TruDppV) and T. rubrum leucin aminopeptidase 2 (TruLap2), which are 98% identical to Trichophyton verrucosum orthologues. Field serum samples from 135 cattle with ringworm infection, as confirmed by direct microscopy, fluorescence microscopy, and PCR, and from 55 cattle without any apparent skin lesions or history of ringworm infection that served as negative controls were used. Sensitivities, specificities, and positive and negative predictive values were determined to evaluate the diagnostic value of our ELISA. Overall, the ELISAs based on recombinant TruDppV and TruLap2 discriminated well between infected animals and healthy controls. Highly significant differences (P < 0.0001, Mann-Whitney U test) were noted between optical density values obtained when sera from infected versus control cattle were tested. The ELISA developed for the detection of specific antibodies against DppV gave 89.6% sensitivity, 92.7% specificity, a 96.8% positive predictive value, and a 78.4% negative predictive value. The recombinant TruLap2-based ELISA displayed 88.1% sensitivity, 90.9% specificity, a 95.9% positive predictive value, and a 75.7% negative predictive value. To the best of our knowledge, this is the first ELISA based on recombinant antigens for assessing immune responses to ringworm infection in cattle; it is particularly suitable for epidemiological studies and also for the evaluation of vaccines and/or vaccination procedures.

Infection of the central nervous system caused by varicella zoster virus reactivation: a retrospective case series study.

BACKGROUND: Recent data suggest that varicella zoster virus (VZV)-associated complications of the central nervous system (CNS) are more common and diverse than previously thought. The main purpose of this article is to describe the clinical characteristics and the outcome of patients suffering from meningitis and encephalitis caused by VZV reactivation. METHODS: A retrospective case study of adult patients (≥16 years old) diagnosed with a VZV reactivation in the CNS was performed. The cases were identified by a qualitative PCR DNA assay of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) at the Regional Hospital of Lugano between January 1, 2003 and July 31, 2010. RESULTS: Eleven out of 519 CSF samples (2.1%), submitted from patients with a clinical diagnosis of viral meningitis or encephalitis, were positive for VZV. A vesiculo-pustular skin eruption was observed in only five patients (45%). In six cases (55%), a systemic inflammatory syndrome was absent. The clinical outcome was favorable in eight patients (73%). Only one out of 11 patients (9%) died. The four patients with encephalitis had a less favorable prognosis: one patient recovered without residual neurological sequelae; two had a chronic neuropsychological handicap, speech difficulties, facial nerve palsy, and focal seizures; one patient died. We estimated an annual incidence rate of VZV infection of the CNS of 1.02/100 000 inhabitants for southern Switzerland. CONCLUSIONS: Screening of CSF for VZV by PCR is recommended for all patients with encephalitis and for those with viral meningitis of unclear origin in order to better target antiviral treatment.