Quantitative ultrasound of bone in institutionalized elderly women: a cross-sectional and longitudinal study.

Quantitative ultrasound of bone is a promising method for bone assessment: radiation-free, portable and predictive of hip fracture. Its portability allowed us to study the relationships between ultrasonic parameters of bone with age and with non-vertebral fractures in elderly women living in 19 nursing homes. Broadband ultrasound attenuation (BUA) and speed of sound (SOS) of the calcaneus were measured (and the stiffness index calculated) in a sample of 270 institutionalized women, aged 85 +/- 7 years, using an Achilles bone densitometer (Lunar). The effects of age, history of non-vertebral and non-traumatic fractures, body mass index, triceps skinfold and arm circumference were assessed on BUA, SOS and stiffness index. Furthermore, to evaluate longitudinally the influence of aging on the ultrasound parameters of bone, 60 subjects from the same group had a second ultrasound measurement after 1 year. The cross-sectional analysis of the data on all 270 women showed a significant decrease (p < 0.001) with age in BUA, SOS and stiffness index (-0.47%, -0.06%, and -1.01% respectively per year). In the 94 women, (35%) with a history of previous non-vertebral fractures, ultrasound parameters were significantly lower (p < 0.0001) than in the 176 women with no history of fracture (-8.3% for BUA, -1.3% for SOS, -18.9% for stiffness index). In contrast, there was no significant difference in anthropometric measurements between the groups with and without previous non-vertebral fractures, although the measurements decreased significantly with age. In the longitudinal study, repeated quantitative ultrasound after 11.4 +/- 0.8 months showed no significant decrease in BUA (-1%) but a significant decrease in SOS (-0.3%, p < 0.0001) and in stiffness index (-3.6%, p < 0.0002). In conclusion, quantitative ultrasound of the calcaneus measures properties of bone which continue to decline in institutionalized elderly women, and is able to discriminate women with previous non-vertebral fractures.

Peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor-beta signaling contributes to enhanced proliferation of hepatic stellate cells.

BACKGROUND &amp; AIMS: The peroxisome proliferator-activated nuclear receptors (PPAR-alpha, PPAR-beta, and PPAR-gamma), which modulate the expression of genes involved in energy homeostasis, cell cycle, and immune function, may play a role in hepatic stellate cell activation. Previous studies focused on the decreased expression of PPAR-gamma in hepatic stellate cell activation but did not investigate the expression and role of the PPAR-alpha and -beta isotypes. The aim of this study was to evaluate the expression of the different PPARs during hepatic stellate cell activation in vitro and in situ and to analyze possible factors that might contribute to their expression. In a second part of the study, the effect of a PPAR-beta agonist on acute liver injury was evaluated. METHODS: The effects of PPAR isotype-specific ligands on hepatic stellate cell transition were evaluated by bromodeoxyuridine incorporation, gel shifts, immunoprecipitation, and use of antisense PPAR-beta RNA-expressing adenoviruses. Tumor necrosis factor alpha-induced PPAR-beta phosphorylation and expression was evaluated by metabolic labeling and by using specific P38 inhibitors. RESULTS: Hepatic stellate cells constitutively express high levels of PPAR-beta, which become further induced during culture activation and in vivo fibrogenesis. No significant expression of PPAR-alpha or -gamma was found. Stimulation of the P38 mitogen-activated protein kinase pathway modulated the expression of PPAR-beta. Transcriptional activation of PPAR-beta by L165041 enhanced hepatic stellate cell proliferation. Treatment of rats with a single bolus of CCl(4) in combination with L165041 further enhanced the expression of fibrotic markers. CONCLUSIONS: PPAR-beta is an important signal-transducing factor contributing to hepatic stellate cell proliferation during acute and chronic liver inflammation.

Detection of neuronal activity and metabolism in a model of dehydration-induced anorexia in rats at 14.1 T using manganese-enhanced MRI and 1H MRS.

In this study, hypothalamic activation was performed by dehydration-induced anorexia (DIA) and overnight food suppression (OFS) in female rats. The assessment of the hypothalamic response to these challenges by manganese-enhanced MRI showed increased neuronal activity in the paraventricular nuclei (PVN) and lateral hypothalamus (LH), both known to be areas involved in the regulation of food intake. The effects of DIA and OFS were compared by generating T-score maps. Increased neuronal activation was detected in the PVN and LH of DIA rats relative to OFS rats. In addition, the neurochemical profile of the PVN and LH were measured by (1) H MRS at 14.1T. Significant increases in metabolite levels were measured in DIA and OFS relative to control rats. Statistically significant increases in γ-aminobutyric acid were found in DIA (p=0.0007) and OFS (p<0.001) relative to control rats. Lactate increased significantly in DIA (p=0.03), but not in OFS, rats. This work shows that manganese-enhanced MRI coupled to (1) H MRS at high field is a promising noninvasive method for the investigation of the neural pathways and mechanisms involved in the control of food intake, in the autonomic and endocrine control of energy metabolism and in the regulation of body weight.

"I don't know how you are" or indirect questioning in oncology interviews: an ongoing exploratory study

Background: The exploratory study is part of an evaluation of the pre-graduate teaching of communication skills (Lausanne Medical School). It is based on the data of a project highlighting the impact of individualized vs. group training for medicine students in breaking bad news to simulated patients who are diagnosed with cancer. The analysis of the video-taped interviews of the students (N=63) with the RIAS has shown a current usage of utterances such as I don't know if -you have any plans for the future / you have already heard about chemotherapy / ... or I don't know how -you are feeling today after this surgery / you like that all this stuff takes place / ...Aim: The present study questions the specificity of these assertive utterances used as questions (indirect), the specificity of their content, and their intentionality - specific vs. exploratory.Methods: The mentioned utterances are qualitatively analyzed (content analysis, intentionality analysis, etc).Results: 26 students (41%) used 1 to 6 times I don't know utterances during the interviews that contain 53 of such utterances in total. In contrast, they are atypical in an oncologist sample who conducted similar interviews (N=31; 4 oncologist used them 1 to 2 times). In more than half of the cases (29/53), simulated patients interpret I don't know questions as giving them a space to speak (open responses). Conclusions: The atypicality of the I don't know utterances in the oncologist sample may have linguistic explanations in terms of generational marker, but the specificity of the content suggests psychological explanations in terms of defense mechanism as well (marker of "toning down" or insecurity as regards the discussed topic).Keywords: Breaking bad news, communication skills, oncology, pre-graduate medical education, indirect questioning

Prospective comparison of MR enteroclysis with multidetector spiral-CT enteroclysis: interobserver agreement and sensitivity by means of "sign-by-sign" correlation.

Our objective was a prospective comparison of MR enteroclysis (MRE) with multidetector spiral-CT enteroclysis (MSCTE). Fifty patients with various suspected small bowel diseases were investigated by MSCTE and MRE. The MSCTE was performed using slices of 2.5 mm, immediately followed by MRE, obtaining T1- and T2-weighted sequences, including gadolinium-enhanced acquisition with fat saturation. Three radiologists independently evaluated MSCTE and MRE searching for 12 pathological signs. Interobserver agreement was calculated. Sensitivities and specificities resulted from comparison with pathological results ( n=29) and patient's clinical evolution ( n=21). Most pathological signs, such as bowel wall thickening (BWT), bowel wall enhancement (BWE) and lymphadenopathy (ADP), showed better interobserver agreement on MSCTE than on MRE (BWT: 0.65 vs 0.48; BWE: 0.51 vs 0.37; ADP: 0.52 vs 0.15). Sensitivity of MSCTE was higher than that of MRE in detecting BWT (88.9 vs 60%), BWE (78.6 vs 55.5%) and ADP (63.8 vs 14.3%). Wilcoxon signed-rank test revealed significantly better sensitivity of MSCTE than that of MRE for each observer ( p=0.028, p=0.046, p=0.028, respectively). Taking the given study design into account, MSCTE provides better sensitivity in detecting lesions of the small bowel than MRE, with higher interobserver agreement.

The effect of host plant and isolation on the genetic structure of phytophagous insects: A preliminary study on a bruchid beetle

Genetic differentiation is a consequence of the combination of drift and restriction in gene flow between populations due to barriers to dispersal, or selection against individuals resulting from inter-population matings In phytophagous insects, local adaptation to different kinds of host plants can sometimes lead to reproductive isolation and thus to genetic structuring, or even to speciation Acanthoscelides. obtectus Say is a bean bruchid specialized on beans of the Phaseolus vulgaris group, attacking both wild and domesticated forms of P vulgaris., and P coccineus This study reveals that the genetic structure of populations of this bruchid is explained mainly by their geographical location and is not related to a particular kind (wild or domesticated) of bean In contrast, the species of bean might have led, to some extent, to genetic structuring in these bruchids, although our sampling is too limited to address such process unambiguously. If confirmed, it would corroborate preliminary results found for the parasitoid species that attack Acanthoscelides species, which might show a genetic structure depending on the species of host plant

Modulatory effects of 5Hz rTMS over the primary somatosensory cortex in focal dystonia--an fMRI-TMS study.

Dystonia is associated with impaired somatosensory ability. The electrophysiological method of repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation (rTMS) can be used for noninvasive stimulation of the human cortex and can alter cortical excitability and associated behavior. Among others, rTMS can alter/improve somatosensory discrimation abilities, as shown in healthy controls. We applied 5Hz-rTMS over the left primary somatosensory cortex (S1) in 5 patients with right-sided writer's dystonia and 5 controls. We studied rTMS effects on tactile discrimination accuracy and concomitant rTMS-induced changes in hemodynamic activity measured by functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI). Before rTMS, patients performed worse on the discrimination task than controls even though fMRI showed greater task-related activation bilaterally in the basal ganglia (BG). In controls, rTMS led to improved discrimination; fMRI revealed this was associated with increased activity of the stimulated S1, bilateral premotor cortex and BG. In dystonia patients, rTMS had no effect on discrimination; fMRI showed similar cortical effects to controls except for no effects in BG. Improved discrimination after rTMS in controls is linked to enhanced activation of S1 and BG. Failure of rTMS to increase BG activation in dystonia may be associated with the lack of effect on sensory discrimination in this group and may reflect impaired processing in BG-S1 connections. Alternatively, the increased BG activation seen in the baseline state without rTMS may reflect a compensatory strategy that saturates a BG contribution to this task.

Early pattern recognition in severe perinatal asphyxia: a prospective MRI study.

On the basis of MRI examinations in 88 neonates and infants with perinatal asphyxia, we defined 6 different patterns on T2-weighted images: pattern A--scattered hyperintensity of both hemispheres of the telencephalon with blurred border zones between cortex and white matter, indicating diffuse brain injury; pattern B--parasagittal hyperintensity extending into the corona radiata, corresponding to the watershed zones; pattern C--hyper- and hypointense lesions in thalamus and basal ganglia, which relate to haemorrhagic necrosis or iron deposition in these areas; pattern D--periventricular hyperintensity, mainly along the lateral ventricles, i.e. periventricular leukomalacia (PVL), originating from the matrix zone; pattern E--small multifocal lesions varying from hyper--to hypointense, interpreted as necrosis and haemorrhage; pattern F--periventricular centrifugal hypointense stripes in the centrum semiovale and deep white matter of the frontal and occipital lobes. Contrast was effectively inverted on T1-weighted images. Patterns A, B and C were found in 17%, 25% and 37% of patients, and patterns D, E and F in 19%, 17% and 35%, respectively. In 49 patients a combination of patterns was observed, but 30% of the initial images were normal. At follow-up, persistent abnormalities were seen in all children with patterns A and D, but in only 52% of those with pattern C. Myelination was retarded most often in patients with diffuse brain injury and PVL (patterns A and D).

Reactive hyperreninemia is a major determinant of plasma angiotensin II during ACE inhibition.

The new ACE inhibitor trandolapril was administered to normal volunteers at daily doses of 0.5, 2, and 8 mg for 10 days. Twenty-one volunteers, aged 21-30 years, were included in the study. To randomly selected groups of seven subjects, each dose was administered in a single-blind fashion. None of the doses induced a consistent fall in blood pressure. Angiotensin-converting enzyme activity (ACE) was measured in vitro using three different synthetic substrates (i.e., Hip-Gly-Gly, Z-Phe-His-Leu, or angiotensin I). Although the degree of ACE inhibition assessed with the three methods varied widely, all methods clearly indicated dose-dependent ACE inhibition. These in vitro results were confirmed by measuring ACE inhibition in vivo using the ratio of plasma angiotensin II (ANG II) to blood angiotensin I (ANG I). The dose-dependent ACE inhibition was paralleled by a dose-dependent rise in active renin and blood angiotensin I levels, most evident on day 10. In contrast, plasma ANG II levels on day 10 were not different whether the volunteers received 0.5 or 8 mg trandolapril. Thus, whereas increasing doses of this new ACE inhibitor progressively enhanced the blockade of ACE activity, this was not reflected by additional reductions of plasma ANG II levels. The progressive enhancement of ACE inhibition seemed to be offset by the accentuation of the compensatory rise in renin and ANG I, which was still partially converted to ANG II.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)

Can we continue to neglect genomic variation in introgression rates when inferring the history of speciation? A case study in a Mytilus hybrid zone.

The use of molecular data to reconstruct the history of divergence and gene flow between populations of closely related taxa represents a challenging problem. It has been proposed that the long-standing debate about the geography of speciation can be resolved by comparing the likelihoods of a model of isolation with migration and a model of secondary contact. However, data are commonly only fit to a model of isolation with migration and rarely tested against the secondary contact alternative. Furthermore, most demographic inference methods have neglected variation in introgression rates and assume that the gene flow parameter (Nm) is similar among loci. Here, we show that neglecting this source of variation can give misleading results. We analysed DNA sequences sampled from populations of the marine mussels, Mytilus edulis and M. galloprovincialis, across a well-studied mosaic hybrid zone in Europe and evaluated various scenarios of speciation, with or without variation in introgression rates, using an Approximate Bayesian Computation (ABC) approach. Models with heterogeneous gene flow across loci always outperformed models assuming equal migration rates irrespective of the history of gene flow being considered. By incorporating this heterogeneity, the best-supported scenario was a long period of allopatric isolation during the first three-quarters of the time since divergence followed by secondary contact and introgression during the last quarter. By contrast, constraining migration to be homogeneous failed to discriminate among any of the different models of gene flow tested. Our simulations thus provide statistical support for the secondary contact scenario in the European Mytilus hybrid zone that the standard coalescent approach failed to confirm. Our results demonstrate that genomic variation in introgression rates can have profound impacts on the biological conclusions drawn from inference methods and needs to be incorporated in future studies.

Choice of an adequate promoter for efficient complementation in Saccharomyces cerevisiae: a case study.

Conservation of the function of open reading frames recently identified in fungal genome projects can be assessed by complementation of deletion mutants of putative Saccharomyces cerevisiae orthologs. A parallel complementation assay expressing the homologous wild type S. cerevisiae gene is generally performed as a positive control. However, we and others have found that failure of complementation can occur in this case. We investigated the specific cases of S. cerevisiae TBF1 and TIM54 essential genes. Heterologous complementation with Candida glabrata TBF1 or TIM54 gene was successful using the constitutive promoters TDH3 and TEF. In contrast, homologous complementation with S. cerevisiae TBF1 or TIM54 genes failed using these promoters, and was successful only using the natural promoters of these genes. The reduced growth rate of S. cerevisiae complemented with C. glabrata TBF1 or TIM54 suggested a diminished functionality of the heterologous proteins compared to the homologous proteins. The requirement of the homologous gene for the natural promoter was alleviated for TBF1 when complementation was assayed in the absence of sporulation and germination, and for TIM54 when two regions of the protein presumably responsible for a unique translocation pathway of the TIM54 protein into the mitochondrial membrane were deleted. Our results demonstrate that the use of different promoters may prove necessary to obtain successful complementation, with use of the natural promoter being the best approach for homologous complementation.

Autologous adult cortical cell transplantation enhances functional recovery following unilateral lesion of motor cortex in primates: a pilot study.

BACKGROUND:: Although cell therapy is a promising approach after cerebral cortex lesion, few studies assess quantitatively its behavioral gain in non-human primates. Furthermore, implantations of fetal grafts of exogenous stem cells are limited by safety and ethical issues. OBJECTIVE:: To test in non-human primates the transplantation of autologous adult neural progenitor cortical cells with assessment of functional outcome. METHODS:: Seven adult macaque monkeys were trained to perform a manual dexterity task, before the hand representation in motor cortex was chemically lesioned unilaterally. Five monkeys were used as control, compared to two monkeys subjected to different autologous cells transplantation protocols performed at different time intervals. RESULTS:: After lesion, there was a complete loss of manual dexterity in the contralesional hand. The five "control" monkeys recovered progressively and spontaneously part of their manual dexterity, reaching a unique and definitive plateau of recovery, ranging from 38% to 98% of pre-lesion score after 10 to 120 days. The two "treated" monkeys reached a first spontaneous recovery plateau at about 25 and 40 days post-lesion, representing 35% and 61% of the pre-lesion performance, respectively. In contrast to the controls, a second recovery plateau took place 2-3 months after cell transplantation, corresponding to an additional enhancement of functional recovery, representing 24 and 37% improvement, respectively. CONCLUSIONS:: These pilot data, derived from two monkeys treated differently, suggest that, in the present experimental conditions, autologous adult brain progenitor cell transplantation in non-human primate is safe and promotes enhancement of functional recovery.

Usefulness of intra-articular bupivacain and lidocain adjunction in MR or CT arthrography: a prospective study in 148 patients.

PURPOSE: To evaluate the influence of shorter- and longer-acting intra-articular anaesthetics on post-arthrographic pain. MATERIALS AND METHODS: 154 consecutive patients investigated by MR or CT arthrographies were randomly assigned to one of the following groups: 1--intra-articular contrast injection only; 2--lidocain 1% adjunction; or 3--bupivacain 0.25% adjunction. Pain was assessed before injection, at 15 min, 4 h, 1 day and 1 week after injection by visual analogue scale (VAS). RESULTS: At 15 min, early mean pain score increased by 0.96, 0.24 and 0 in groups 1, 2 and 3, respectively. Differences between groups 1 & 3 and 1 & 2 were statistically significant (p=0.003 and 0.03, respectively), but not between groups 2 & 3 (p=0.54). Delayed mean pain score increase was maximal at 4 h, reaching 1.60, 1.22 and 0.29 in groups 1, 2 and 3, respectively. Differences between groups 1 & 2 and 2 & 3 were statistically significant (p=0.002 and 0.02, respectively), but not between groups 1 & 2 (p=0.46). At 24 h and 1 week, the interaction of local anaesthetics with increase in pain score was no longer significant. Results were independent of age, gender and baseline VAS. CONCLUSION: Intra-articular anaesthesia may significantly reduce post-arthrographic pain. Bupivacain seems to be more effective than lidocain to reduce both early and delayed pain.

Risk Factors in Fatal Cases of Anaphylaxis due to Contrast Media: A Forensic Evaluation.

BACKGROUND: Fatalities following contrast medium exposure are extremely rare in clinical routine, though they may occur as an exception. Some may fall under the purview of the inquiring authorities and forensic pathologists due to their in-hospital occurrence. The purpose of this study was to assess the risk factors for anaphylaxis due to contrast medium administration that can be identified in fatal cases. METHODS: Fatalities occurred during the course of clinical investigations with contrast media described in the literature and fatal reactions to contrast agents that had undergone forensic investigations in our medicolegal center were reviewed with respect to patient characteristics, administered contrast medium, performed biochemical investigations and potential risk factors identified based on clinical history and medical records. RESULTS: Biochemical investigations into the fatal cases examined in our facility revealed increased mast cell tryptase, total IgE and activated mast cells in all subjects. Data obtained from the literature and our own investigations indicated that in only a minority of the fatal cases had there been previous exposure to contrast compounds, while most cases of severe anaphylaxis involved patients who apparently reacted on initial exposure. CONCLUSIONS: Most fatal cases failed to present any identifiable predisposing conditions out of those traditionally considered as risk factors for an anaphylactic reaction to contrast compounds in the medical histories of the patients. Comprehensive clinical histories and thorough reviews of medical data, along with exhaustive forensic investigations, provide information that is relevant in order to better appreciate the interwoven relationships linking all factors potentially involved in the pathogenesis of fatal anaphylaxis to contrast media. © 2014 S. Karger AG, Basel.

18F-fluorodeoxyglucose positron emission tomography/computed tomography and magnetic resonance imaging in patients with liver metastases from uveal melanoma: results from a pilot study.

PURPOSE: F-fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG) positron emission tomography/computed tomography (PET/CT) and MRI are used for detecting liver metastases from uveal melanoma. The introduction of new treatment options in clinical trials might benefit from early response assessment. Here, we determine the value of FDG-PET/CT with respect to MRI at diagnosis and its potential for monitoring therapy. MATERIAL AND METHODS: Ten patients with biopsy-proven liver metastases of uveal melanoma enrolled in a randomized phase III trial (NCT00110123) underwent both FDG-PET coupled with unenhanced CT and gadolinium-diethylene triamine pentaacetic acid-enhanced liver MRI within 4 weeks. FDG-PET and MRI were evaluated blindly and then compared using the ratio of lesion to normal liver parenchyma PET-derived standardized uptake value (SUV). The influence of lesion size and response to chemotherapy were studied. RESULTS: Overall, 108 liver lesions were seen: 34 (31%) on both modalities (1-18 lesions/patient), four (4%) by PET/CT only, and 70 (65%) by MRI only. SUV correlated with MRI lesion size (r=0.81, P<0.0001). PET/CT detected 26 of 33 (79%) MRI lesions of more than or equal to 1.2 cm, whereas it detected only eight of 71 (11%) lesions of less than 1.2 cm (P<0.0001). MRI lesions without PET correspondence were small (0.6±0.2 vs. 2.1±1.1 cm, P<0.0001). During follow-up (six patients, 30 lesions), the ratio lesion-to-normal-liver SUV diminished in size-stable lesions (1.90±0.64-1.46±0.50, P<0.0001), whereas it increased in enlarging lesions (1.56±0.40-1.99±0.56, P=0.032). CONCLUSION: MRI outweighs PET/CT for detecting small liver metastases. However, PET/CT detected at least one liver metastasis per patient and changes in FDG uptake not related to size change, suggesting a role in assessing early therapy response.