Midregional pro-atrial natriuretic peptide and procalcitonin improve survival prediction in VAP.

Ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) affects mortality, morbidity and cost of critical care. Reliable risk estimation might improve end-of-life decisions, resource allocation and outcome. Several scoring systems for survival prediction have been established and optimised over the last decades. Recently, new biomarkers have gained interest in the prognostic field. We assessed whether midregional pro-atrial natriuretic peptide (MR-proANP) and procalcitonin (PCT) improve the predictive value of the Simplified Acute Physiologic Score (SAPS) II and Sequential Related Organ Failure Assessment (SOFA) in VAP. Specified end-points of a prospective multinational trial including 101 patients with VAP were analysed. Death <28 days after VAP onset was the primary end-point. MR-proANP and PCT were elevated at the onset of VAP in nonsurvivors compared with survivors (p = 0.003 and p = 0.017, respectively) and their slope of decline differed significantly (p = 0.018 and p = 0.039, respectively). Patients with the highest MR-proANP quartile at VAP onset were at increased risk for death (log rank p = 0.013). In a logistic regression model, MR-proANP was identified as the best predictor of survival. Adding MR-proANP and PCT to SAPS II and SOFA improved their predictive properties (area under the curve 0.895 and 0.880). We conclude that the combination of two biomarkers, MR-proANP and PCT, improve survival prediction of clinical severity scores in VAP.

Early Stage Primary Bone Lymphoma: A Retrospective, Multicenter Rare Cancer Network Study

PURPOSE/OBJECTIVE(S): Primary bone lymphoma (PBL) represents less than 1% of all malignant lymphomas, and 4-5% of all extranodal lymphomas. In this study, we assessed the disease profile, outcome, and prognostic factors in patients with stage I and II PBL. MATERIALS/METHODS: Between 1987 and 2008, 116 consecutive patients with PBL treated in 13 RCNinstitutions were included in this study. Inclusion criteriawere: age.17 yrs, PBLin stage I and II, andminimum6months follow-up. The median agewas 51 yrs (range: 17-93).Diagnosticwork-up included plain boneXray (74%of patients), scintigraphy (62%), CT-scan (65%),MRI (58%), PET (18%), and bone-marrow biopsy (84%).All patients had biopsy-proven confirmation of non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL). The histopathological type was predominantly diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (78%) and follicular lymphoma (6%), according to theWHOclassification. One hundred patients had a high-grade, 7 intermediate and 9 low-gradeNHL. Ninety-three patients had anAnn-Arbor stage I, and 23 had a stage II. Seventy-seven patients underwent chemoradiotherapy (CXRT), 12 radiotherapy (RT) alone, 10 chemotherapy alone (CXT), 9 surgery followed by CXRT, 5 surgery followed by CXT, and 2 surgery followed by RT. One patient died before treatment.Median RT dosewas 40Gy (range: 4-60).Themedian number ofCXTcycleswas 6 (range, : 2-8).Median follow-upwas 41months (range: 6-242). RESULTS: Following treatment, the overall response rate was 91% (CR 74%, PR 17%). Local recurrence was observed in 12 (10%) patients, and systemic recurrence in 17 (15%) patients. Causes of death included disease progression in 16, unrelated disease in 6, CXT-related toxicity in 1, and secondary cancer in 2 patients. The 5-yr overall survival (OS), disease-free survival (DFS), lymphoma- specific survival (LSS), and local control (LC) were 76%, 69%, 78%, and 92%, respectively. In univariate analyses (log-rank test), favorable prognostic factors for survival were: age\50 years (p = 0.008), IPI score #1 (p = 0.009), complete response (p\0.001), CXT (p = 0.008), number of CXT cycles $6 (p = 0.007), and RT dose . 40 Gy (p = 0.005). In multivariate analysis age, RT dose, complete response, and absence of B symptoms were independent factors influencing the outcome. There were 3 patients developing grade 3 or more (CTCAE.V3.0) toxicities. CONCLUSIONS: This large multicenter study, confirms the relatively good prognosis of early stage PBL, treated with combined CXRT. Local control was excellent, and systemic failure occurred infrequently. A sufficient dose of RT (. 40 Gy) and complete CXT regime (. 6 cycles) were associated with a better outcome. Combined modality appears to be the treatment of choice.

MGMT methylation analysis of glioblastoma on the Infinium methylation BeadChip identifies two distinct CpG regions associated with gene silencing and outcome, yielding a prediction model for comparisons across datasets, tumor grades, and CIMP-status.

The methylation status of the O(6)-methylguanine-DNA methyltransferase (MGMT) gene is an important predictive biomarker for benefit from alkylating agent therapy in glioblastoma. Recent studies in anaplastic glioma suggest a prognostic value for MGMT methylation. Investigation of pathogenetic and epigenetic features of this intriguingly distinct behavior requires accurate MGMT classification to assess high throughput molecular databases. Promoter methylation-mediated gene silencing is strongly dependent on the location of the methylated CpGs, complicating classification. Using the HumanMethylation450 (HM-450K) BeadChip interrogating 176 CpGs annotated for the MGMT gene, with 14 located in the promoter, two distinct regions in the CpG island of the promoter were identified with high importance for gene silencing and outcome prediction. A logistic regression model (MGMT-STP27) comprising probes cg1243587 and cg12981137 provided good classification properties and prognostic value (kappa = 0.85; log-rank p < 0.001) using a training-set of 63 glioblastomas from homogenously treated patients, for whom MGMT methylation was previously shown to be predictive for outcome based on classification by methylation-specific PCR. MGMT-STP27 was successfully validated in an independent cohort of chemo-radiotherapy-treated glioblastoma patients (n = 50; kappa = 0.88; outcome, log-rank p < 0.001). Lower prevalence of MGMT methylation among CpG island methylator phenotype (CIMP) positive tumors was found in glioblastomas from The Cancer Genome Atlas than in low grade and anaplastic glioma cohorts, while in CIMP-negative gliomas MGMT was classified as methylated in approximately 50 % regardless of tumor grade. The proposed MGMT-STP27 prediction model allows mining of datasets derived on the HM-450K or HM-27K BeadChip to explore effects of distinct epigenetic context of MGMT methylation suspected to modulate treatment resistance in different tumor types.

New grass phylogeny resolves deep evolutionary relationships and discovers C4 origins.

• Grasses rank among the world's most ecologically and economically important plants. Repeated evolution of the C(4) syndrome has made photosynthesis highly efficient in many grasses, inspiring intensive efforts to engineer the pathway into C(3) crops. However, comparative biology has been of limited use to this endeavor because of uncertainty in the number and phylogenetic placement of C(4) origins. • We built the most comprehensive and robust molecular phylogeny for grasses to date, expanding sampling efforts of a previous working group from 62 to 531 taxa, emphasizing the C(4)-rich PACMAD (Panicoideae, Arundinoideae, Chloridoideae, Micrairoideae, Aristidoideae and Danthonioideae) clade. Our final matrix comprises c. 5700 bp and is > 93% complete. • For the first time, we present strong support for relationships among all the major grass lineages. Several new C(4) lineages are identified, and previously inferred origins confirmed. C(3)/C(4) evolutionary transitions have been highly asymmetrical, with 22-24 inferred origins of the C(4) pathway and only one potential reversal. • Our backbone tree clarifies major outstanding systematic questions and highlights C(3) and C(4) sister taxa for comparative studies. Two lineages have emerged as hotbeds of C(4) evolution. Future work in these lineages will be instrumental in understanding the evolution of this complex trait.

Pulse wave amplitude drops during sleep are reliable surrogate markers of changes in cortical activity

Rapport de synthèseLe syndrome d'apnées obstructives du sommeil (SAOS) est une pathologie respiratoire fréquente. Sa prévalence est estimée entre 2 et 5% de la population adulte générale. Ses conséquences sont importantes. Notamment, une somnolence diurne, des troubles de la concentration, des troubles de la mémoire et une augmentation du risque d'accident de la route et du travail. Il représente également un facteur de risque cardiovasculaire indépendant.Ce syndrome est caractérisé par la survenue durant le sommeil d'obstructions répétées des voies aériennes supérieures. L'arrêt ou la diminution d'apport en oxygène vers les poumons entraîne des épisodes de diminution de la saturation en oxygène de l'hémoglobine. Les efforts ventilatoires visant à lever l'obstacle présent sur les voies aériennes causent de fréquents réveils à l'origine d'une fragmentation du sommeil.La polysomnographie (PSG) représente le moyen diagnostic de choix. Il consiste en l'enregistrement dans un laboratoire du sommeil et en présence d'un technicien diplômé, du tracé électroencéphalographique (EEG), de l'électrooculogramme (EOG), de l'électromyogramme mentonnier (EMG), du flux respiratoire nasal, de l'oxymétrie de pouls, de la fréquence cardiaque, de l'électrocardiogramme (ECG), des mouvements thoraciques et abdominaux, de la position du corps et des mouvements des jambes. L'examen est filmé par caméra infrarouge et les sons sont enregistrés.Cet examen permet entre autres mesures, de déterminer les événements respiratoires obstructifs nécessaires au diagnostic de syndrome d'apnée du sommeil. On définit une apnée lors d'arrêt complet du débit aérien durant au moins 10 secondes et une hypopnée en cas, soit de diminution franche de l'amplitude du flux respiratoire supérieure à 50% durant au moins 10 secondes, soit de diminution significative (20%) de l'amplitude du flux respiratoire pendant au minimum 10 secondes associée à un micro-éveil ou à une désaturation d'au moins 3% par rapport à la ligne de base. La détection des micro-éveils se fait en utilisant les dérivations électroencéphalographiques, électromyographiques et électrooculographiques. Il existe des critères visuels de reconnaissance de ces éveils transitoire: apparition de rythme alpha (8.1 à 12.0 Hz) ou beta (16 à 30 Hz) d'une durée supérieure à 3 secondes [20-21].Le diagnostic de S AOS est retenu si l'on retrouve plus de 5 événements respiratoires obstructifs par heure de sommeil associés soit à une somnolence diurne évaluée selon le score d'Epworth ou à au moins 2 symptômes parmi les suivants: sommeil non réparateur, étouffements nocturne, éveils multiples, fatigue, troubles de la concentration. Le S AOS est gradué en fonction du nombre d'événements obstructifs par heure de sommeil en léger (5 à 15), modéré (15 à 30) et sévère (>30).La polysomnographie (PSG) comporte plusieurs inconvénients pratiques. En effet, elle doit être réalisée dans un laboratoire du sommeil avec la présence permanente d'un technicien, limitant ainsi son accessibilité et entraînant des délais diagnostiques et thérapeutiques. Pour ces mêmes raisons, il s'agit d'un examen onéreux.La polygraphie respiratoire (PG) représente l'alternative diagnostique au gold standard qu'est l'examen polysomnographique. Cet examen consiste en l'enregistrement en ambulatoire, à savoir au domicile du patient, du flux nasalrespiratoire, de l'oxymétrie de pouls, de la fréquence cardiaque, de la position du corps et du ronflement (par mesure de pression).En raison de sa sensibilité et sa spécificité moindre, la PG reste recommandée uniquement en cas de forte probabilité de SAOS. Il existe deux raisons principales à l'origine de la moindre sensibilité de l'examen polygraphique. D'une part, du fait que l'état de veille ou de sommeil n'est pas déterminé avec précision, il y a dilution des événements respiratoires sur l'ensemble de l'enregistrement et non sur la période de sommeil uniquement. D'autre part, en l'absence de tracé EEG, la quantification des micro-éveils est impossible. Il n'est donc pas possible dans l'examen poly graphique, de reconnaître une hypopnée en cas de diminution de flux respiratoire de 20 à 50% non associée à un épisode de désaturation de l'hémoglobine de 3% au moins. Alors que dans l'examen polysomnographique, une telle diminution du flux respiratoire pourrait être associée à un micro-éveil et ainsi comptabilisée en tant qu'hypopnée.De ce constat est né la volonté de trouver un équivalent de micro-éveil en polygraphie, en utilisant les signaux à disposition, afin d'augmenter la sensibilité de l'examen polygraphique.Or plusieurs études ont démontrés que les micro-éveils sont associés à des réactions du système nerveux autonome. Lors des micro-éveils, on met en évidence la survenue d'une vasoconstriction périphérique. La variation du tonus sympathique associée aux micro-éveils peut être mesurée par différentes méthodes. Les variations de l'amplitude de l'onde de pouls mesurée par pulsoxymétrie représentant un marqueur fiable de la vasoconstriction périphérique associée aux micro-réveils, il paraît donc opportun d'utiliser ce marqueur autonomique disponible sur le tracé des polygraphies ambulatoires afin de renforcer la sensibilité de cet examen.Le but de l'étude est d'évaluer la sensibilité des variations de l'amplitude de l'onde de pouls pour détecter des micro-réveils corticaux afin de trouver un moyen d'augmenter la sensibilité de l'examen polygraphique et de renforcer ainsi sont pouvoir diagnostic.L'objectif est de démontrer qu'une diminution significative de l'amplitude de l'onde pouls est concomitante à une activation corticale correspondant à un micro¬réveil. Cette constatation pourrait permettre de déterminer une hypopnée, en polygraphie, par une diminution de 20 à 50% du flux respiratoire sans désaturation de 3% mais associée à une baisse significative de l'amplitude de pouls en postulant que l'événement respiratoire a entraîné un micro-réveil. On retrouve par cette méthode les mêmes critères de scoring d'événements respiratoires en polygraphie et en polysomnographie, et l'on renforce la sensibilité de la polygraphie par rapport au gold standard polysomnographique.La méthode consiste à montrer en polysomnographie qu'une diminution significative de l'amplitude de l'onde de pouls mesurée par pulsoxymétrie est associée à une activation du signal électroencéphalographique, en réalisant une analyse spectrale du tracé EEG lors des baisses d'amplitude du signal d'onde de pouls.Pour ce faire nous avons réalisé une étude rétrospective sur plus de 1000 diminutions de l'amplitude de l'onde de pouls sur les tracés de 10 sujets choisis de manière aléatoire parmi les patients référés dans notre centre du sommeil (CIRS) pour suspicion de trouble respiratoire du sommeil avec somnolence ou symptomatologie diurne.Les enregistrements nocturnes ont été effectués de manière standard dans des chambres individuelles en utilisant le système d'acquisition Embla avec l'ensemble des capteurs habituels. Les données ont été par la suite visuellement analysées et mesurées en utilisant le software Somnologica version 5.1, qui fournit un signal de l'amplitude de l'onde de pouls (puise wave amplitude - PWA).Dans un premier temps, un technicien du sommeil a réalisé une analyse visuelle du tracé EEG, en l'absence des données du signal d'amplitude d'onde de pouls. Il a déterminé les phases d'éveil et de sommeil, les stades du sommeil et les micro¬éveils selon les critères standards. Les micro-éveils sont définis lors d'un changement abrupt dans la fréquence de l'EEG avec un pattern d'ondes thêta-alpha et/ou une fréquence supérieure à 16 Hz (en l'absence de fuseau) d'une durée d'au minimum trois secondes. Si cette durée excède quinze secondes, l'événement correspond à un réveil.Puis, deux investigateurs ont analysé le signal d'amplitude d'onde de pouls, en masquant les données du tracé EEG qui inclut les micro-éveils. L'amplitude d'onde de pouls est calculée comme la différence de valeur entre le zénith et le nadir de l'onde pour chaque cycle cardiaque. Pour chaque baisse de l'amplitude d'onde de pouls, la plus grande et la plus petite amplitude sont déterminées et le pourcentage de baisse est calculé comme le rapport entre ces deux amplitudes. On retient de manière arbitraire une baisse d'au moins 20% comme étant significative. Cette limite a été choisie pour des raisons pratiques et cliniques, dès lors qu'elle représentait, à notre sens, la baisse minimale identifiable à l'inspection visuelle. Chaque baisse de PWA retenue est divisée en 5 périodes contiguës de cinq secondes chacune. Deux avant, une pendant et deux après la baisse de PWA.Pour chaque période de cinq secondes, on a pratiqué une analyse spectrale du tracé EEG correspondant. Le canal EEG C4-A1 est analysé en utilisant la transformée rapide de Fourier (FFT) pour chaque baisse de PWA et pour chaque période de cinq secondes avec une résolution de 0.2 Hz. La distribution spectrale est catégorisée dans chaque bande de fréquence: delta (0.5 à 4.0 Hz); thêta (4.1 à 8.0Hz); alpha (8.1 à 12.0 Hz); sigma (12.1 à 16 Hz) et beta (16.1 à 30.0 Hz). La densité de puissance (power density, en μΥ2 ) pour chaque bande de fréquence a été calculée et normalisée en tant que pourcentage de la puissance totale. On a déterminé, ensuite, la différence de densité de puissance entre les 5 périodes par ANOVA on the rank. Un test post hoc Tukey est été utilisé pour déterminer si les différences de densité de puissance étaient significatives. Les calculs ont été effectués à l'aide du software Sigmastat version 3.0 (Systat Software San Jose, California, USA).Le principal résultat obtenu dans cette étude est d'avoir montré une augmentation significative de la densité de puissance de l'EEG pour toutes les bandes de fréquence durant la baisse de l'amplitude de l'onde de pouls par rapport à la période avant et après la baisse. Cette augmentation est par ailleurs retrouvée dans la plupart des bande de fréquence en l'absence de micro-réveil visuellement identifié.Ce résultat témoigné donc d'une activation corticale significative associée à la diminution de l'onde de pouls. Ce résulat pourrait permettre d'utiliser les variations de l'onde de pouls dans les tracés de polygraphie comme marqueur d'une activation corticale. Cependant on peut dire que ce marqueur est plus sensible que l'analyse visuelle du tracé EEG par un technicien puisque qu'on notait une augmentation de lactivité corticale y compris en l'absence de micro-réveil visuellement identifié. L'application pratique de ces résultats nécessite donc une étude prospective complémentaire.

Interhemispheric distribution of Alzheimer disease and vascular pathology in brain aging

BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: Most of the neuropathological studies in brain aging were based on the assumption of a symmetrical right-left hemisphere distribution of both Alzheimer disease and vascular pathology. To explore the impact of asymmetrical lesion formation on cognition, we performed a clinicopathological analysis of 153 cases with mixed pathology except macroinfarcts. METHODS: Cognitive status was assessed prospectively using the Clinical Dementia Rating scale; neuropathological evaluation included assessment of Braak neurofibrillary tangle and Ass deposition staging, microvascular pathology, and lacunes. The right-left hemisphere differences in neuropathological scores were evaluated using the Wilcoxon signed rank test. The relationship between the interhemispheric distribution of lesions and Clinical Dementia Rating scores was assessed using ordered logistic regression. RESULTS: Unlike Braak neurofibrillary tangle and Ass deposition staging, vascular scores were significantly higher in the left hemisphere for all Clinical Dementia Rating scores. A negative relationship was found between Braak neurofibrillary tangle, but not Ass staging, and vascular scores in cases with moderate to severe dementia. In both hemispheres, Braak neurofibrillary tangle staging was the main determinant of cognitive decline followed by vascular scores and Ass deposition staging. The concomitant predominance of Alzheimer disease and vascular pathology in the right hemisphere was associated with significantly higher Clinical Dementia Rating scores. CONCLUSIONS: Our data show that the cognitive impact of Alzheimer disease and vascular lesions in mixed cases may be assessed unilaterally without major information loss. However, interhemispheric differences and, in particular, increased vascular and Alzheimer disease burden in the right hemisphere may increase the risk for dementia in this group.

Surgical outcomes of Baerveldt aqueous shunt implantation versus combined phacoemulsification and Baerveldt aqueous shunt implantation

Purpose: To examine the efficacy and safety of Baerveldt shunt (BS) implantation compared to combined phacoemulsification and Baerveldt shunt implantation (PBS). This study was designed to detect a difference in IOP reduction of 20% (~4mmHg) between groups with 90% power. Methods: Sixty patients with medically uncontrolled glaucoma, prospectively underwent either or BS implantation with phacoemulsification (Group PBS; n=30) or BS implantation alone (group BS; n=30, pseudophakic eyes only). Groups were matched for age, glaucoma subtype and length of follow-up. Pre and post-operative measures recorded included patient demographics, visual acuity, IOP, number of glaucoma medications (GMs) and all complications. Success was defined as IOP≤21mmHg and 20% reduction in IOP from baseline with or without GMs. Results: Age of PBS and BS groups was 61 vs 62 years respectively (p=0.72*). There were no significant differences in preoperative baseline characteristics: PBS vs PB, mean IOP =25.5mmHg (standard deviation (SD); ±10.3mmHg) vs 26.1mmHg (SD ±10.6mmHg), p=0.81*; mean GMs=3.0 (SD ±1.1) vs 3.1 (SD ±1.0), p=0.83*; mean VA=0.3 vs 0.3, p=0.89*. At year one there were no significant differences observed between groups in post-operative IOP, GMs or VA, mean IOP =14.1mmHg (SD ±5.4mmHg) vs 11.5 mmHg (SD ±4.2mmHg), p=0.12*; mean GMs=1.6 (SD ±1.4) vs 1.1 (SD ±1.1), p=0.23*; mean VA=0.5 vs 0.4, p=0.46*. Complication rates were similar between the two groups (7% vs 14%). Success rate was lower in eyes with PBS (71%) than with BS (88%), however this did not reach statistical significance (p=0.95, log-rank test). * two-sample t-test Conclusions: There were no significant differences at year one in success or complication rates between PBS and BS groups suggesting that simultaneous phacoemulsification does not have a marked (difference of >4mmHg) effect on tube function. IOP reduction and success were less in the PBS group, a larger sample (n=120) would be required to investigate if there is a 10% difference in IOP reduction between groups, however it is unclear if this would be a clinically significant difference to justify separate surgeries.

Clinical trial substantiates the predictive value of O-6-methylguanine-DNA methyltransferase promoter methylation in glioblastoma patients treated with temozolomide.

PURPOSE: In the setting of a prospective clinical trial, we determined the predictive value of the methylation status of the O-6-methylguanine-DNA methyltransferase (MGMT) promoter for outcome in glioblastoma patients treated with the alkylating agent temozolomide. Expression of this excision repair enzyme has been associated with resistance to alkylating chemotherapy. EXPERIMENTAL DESIGN: The methylation status of MGMT in the tumor biopsies was evaluated in 38 patients undergoing resection for newly diagnosed glioblastoma and enrolled in a Phase II trial testing concomitant and adjuvant temozolomide and radiation. The epigenetic silencing of the MGMT gene was determined using methylation-specific PCR. RESULTS: Inactivation of the MGMT gene by promoter methylation was associated with longer survival (P = 0.0051; Log-rank test). At 18 months, survival was 62% (16 of 26) for patients testing positive for a methylated MGMT promoter but reached only 8% (1 of 12) in absence of methylation (P = 0.002; Fisher's exact test). In the presence of other clinically relevant factors, methylation of the MGMT promoter remains the only significant predictor (P = 0.017; Cox regression). CONCLUSIONS: This prospective clinical trial identifies MGMT-methylation status as an independent predictor for glioblastoma patients treated with a methylating agent. The association of the epigenetic inactivation of the DNA repair gene MGMT with better outcome in this homogenous cohort may have important implications for the design of future trials and supports efforts to deplete MGMT by O-6-benzylguanine, a noncytotoxic substrate of this enzyme.

L'ostéolyse expansive familiale : manifestations otologiques et dentaires d'origine génétique

RESUME Nous rapportons l'étude d'une famille de 49 membres sur 5 générations. Parmi 35 membres étudiés, 18 sont atteints d'Osteolyse Expansive Familiale (OEF). L'OEF est une dysplasie osseuse génétique rare, autosomique dominante, dont les altérations locales et générales du squelette ont une distribution périphérique prédominante qui devient manifeste à partir de la deuxième décennie de vie. Une résorption ostéoclastique progressive, accompagnée d'une faible activité ostéoblastique, est à l'origine d'une expansion médullaire osseuse. Cette dernière est caractérisée par une raréfaction de la moelle osseuse qui est remplacée par du tissu fibreux et de la graisse. L'amincissement de la moelle osseuse aboutit à des déformations invalidantes, sévères et douloureuses du squelette, avec tendance aux fractures spontanées. La première manifestation clinique de la maladie est une surdité de transmission très précoce résultant d'une lyse de la chaîne ossiculaire. Radiologiquement, il existe toujours une pneumatisation marquée de la mastoïde et du rocher. Les dents montrent des signes importants de résorption osseuse au niveau de la région apicale et/ou du collet, dont l'aspect est caractéristique et unique. La phosphatase alcaline sérique, l'hydroxyproline et la deoxypiridoline urinaire sont élevées à des taux variables. Le taux de calcium et d'hormone parathyroïdienne est normal. Le traitement par les diphosphonates, la calcitonine et la vitamine D est inefficace. Histologiquement, l'OEF présente des similitudes avec la maladie de Paget, mais l'âge de début, la distribution des lésions osseuses, les altérations dentaires et de l'oreille moyenne, ainsi que la progression clinique sont différents. Il en va de même pour la dysplasie fibreuse, l'ostéite fibro-kystique et l'ostéogénèse imparfaite. Le gêne responsable de la maladie se localise dans la région du chromosome 18q21-22. Récemment, des mutations du TNFRSF 11A, gêne qui codifie le RANK, ont été identifiées comme étant la cause de l'OEF. La duplication de la 18ème paire de base au niveau de l'exon 1 suggère qu'il correspond au site de l'anomalie. La technique chirurgicale et les résultats audiométriques à court et long terme de 13 interventions chez 8 patients sont présentés. ABSTRACT Objectives: Familial Expansive Osteolysis (EEO) is a rare autosomal dominant bone dys¬plasia. The disease can show general and focal skeletal alterations, the latter having a pre¬dominantly peripheral distribution. Onset occurs after the second decade of life. Patients and methods: We present the study, of 30 years, of a family consisting of 49 members covering five generations. Results: Among the 35 members studied, 18 have familial expansive osteolysis (FEO). The first clinical sign of the condition is transmission deafness at an early age. The features of the teeth has a unique and characteristic appearance. Thinning of the corti¬cal bone leads to severe, painful, disabling deformities. Serum alkaline phosphatase, and urinary hydroxyproline and deoxipyridinoline are elevated. Calcium and parathyroid hor¬mone are normal. Treatment with diphosphonates, calcitonin and vitamin D has been unsuccessful. We present the surgical technology and the results to short and long term of 13 interventions on 8 patients. Conclusion: Progressive osteoclastic reabsorption accompanied by weak osteoblastic activ¬ity results in medullary expansion characterized by rarefaction of the bone marrow, which is replaced by fibrous tissue and fat. FE0 is histologically similar to Paget disease, but the age of onset, the distribution of the bone lesions, the dental and middle ear alterations, and the clin¬ical progression are different. These features also differentiate FE0 from fibrous dysplasia, fibrocystic osteitis and imperfect osteogenesis. The gene responsible for EEO is located in the 18q21-22 chromosome region. Mutations in TNFRSF11A, the gene encoding receptor activa¬tor of nuclear factor-kappa-B (RANK), has been recently identified as the cause of FEO. A duplication of 18 base pairs in exon 1 of the TNFRSF11A gene suggests that this corresponds to the site of the anomaly and can be considered a "hot spot" for mutations.

The effect of three or six years of denosumab exposure in women with postmenopausal osteoporosis: results from the FREEDOM extension.

CONTEXT: The Fracture Reduction Evaluation of Denosumab in Osteoporosis Every 6 Months (FREEDOM) extension is evaluating the long-term efficacy and safety of denosumab for up to 10 years. OBJECTIVE: The objective of the study was to report results from the first 3 years of the extension, representing up to 6 years of denosumab exposure. DESIGN, SETTING, AND PARTICIPANTS: This was a multicenter, international, open-label study of 4550 women. INTERVENTION: Women from the FREEDOM denosumab group received 3 more years of denosumab for a total of 6 years (long-term) and women from the FREEDOM placebo group received 3 years of denosumab (crossover). MAIN OUTCOME MEASURES: Bone turnover markers (BTMs), bone mineral density (BMD), fracture, and safety data are reported. RESULTS: Reductions in BTMs were maintained (long-term) or achieved rapidly (crossover) after denosumab administration. In the long-term group, BMD further increased for cumulative 6-year gains of 15.2% (lumbar spine) and 7.5% (total hip). During the first 3 years of denosumab treatment, the crossover group had significant gains in lumbar spine (9.4%) and total hip (4.8%) BMD, similar to the long-term group during the 3-year FREEDOM trial. In the long-term group, fracture incidences remained low and below the rates projected for a virtual placebo cohort. In the crossover group, 3-year incidences of new vertebral and nonvertebral fractures were similar to those of the FREEDOM denosumab group. Incidence rates of adverse events did not increase over time. Six participants had events of osteonecrosis of the jaw confirmed by adjudication. One participant had a fracture adjudicated as consistent with atypical femoral fracture. CONCLUSION: Denosumab treatment for 6 years remained well tolerated, maintained reduced bone turnover, and continued to increase BMD. Fracture incidence remained low.

Development of a pediatric eosinophilic esophagitis activity index (ped-EEsAI): International experts propose dysphagia, whitish exudates on endoscopy , and intraepithelial eosinophili count as major items related to EoE activity

Background and Aims: The international EEsAI study group aims to develop, validate and evaluate the first pediatric EoE activity index (ped-EEsAI). We report on results of phase 1, which aims to generate candidate items. Methods: This study involves 3 phases: (1) item generation, (2) index derivation and testing on a first patient cohort, and (3) validation in a second cohort. In phase 1, item generation, weighting and reduction are achieved through a Delphi process with an international EoE expert group. The experts proposed and ranked candidate items on a 7-point Likert scale (0 = no, 6 = perfect relationship with EoE activity). Results: 23 international EoE experts proposed and ranked 39 items (20 clinical, 6 endoscopic, 8 histologic, 5 laboratory items). Rank order for clinical items: dysphagia related to food consistencies (median 5, range 2-6), severity of dysphagia (5, 3-6), frequency of dysphagia episodes (5, 3-6), regurgitation and vomiting (4, 2-5), response to dietary restrictions (4, 1-6); endoscopic items: whitish exudates (5, 3-6), furrowing (4, 3-6), corrugated rings (4, 2-6), linear shearing (4, 2-6), strictures (3, 2-6); histologic items: intraepithelial eosinophil count (5, 4-6), lamina propria fibrosis (3, 2-6), basal layer enlargement (3, 1-5); laboratory items: % blood eosinophils (3, 0-5). Conclusions: These items will now be reduced in further Delphi rounds, tested on a cohort of 100 pediatric EoE patients and validated in a second independent cohort, resulting in a robust, broadly accepted disease activity index for use in clinical trials and daily care.

Pacemaker therapy in patients with neurally mediated syncope and documented asystole: Third International Study on Syncope of Uncertain Etiology (ISSUE-3): a randomized trial.

BACKGROUND: The efficacy of cardiac pacing for prevention of syncopal recurrences in patients with neurally mediated syncope is controversial. We wanted to determine whether pacing therapy reduces syncopal recurrences in patients with severe asystolic neurally mediated syncope. METHODS AND RESULTS: Double-blind, randomized placebo-controlled study conducted in 29 centers in the Third International Study on Syncope of Uncertain Etiology (ISSUE-3) trial. Patients were ≥40 years, had experienced ≥3 syncopal episodes in the previous 2 years. Initially, 511 patients, received an implantable loop recorder; 89 of these had documentation of syncope with ≥3 s asystole or ≥6 s asystole without syncope within 12 ± 10 months and met criteria for pacemaker implantation; 77 of 89 patients were randomly assigned to dual-chamber pacing with rate drop response or to sensing only. The data were analyzed on intention-to-treat principle. There was syncope recurrence during follow-up in 27 patients, 19 of whom had been assigned to pacemaker OFF and 8 to pacemaker ON. The 2-year estimated syncope recurrence rate was 57% (95% CI, 40-74) with pacemaker OFF and 25% (95% CI, 13-45) with pacemaker ON (log rank: P=0.039 at the threshold of statistical significance of 0.04). The risk of recurrence was reduced by 57% (95% CI, 4-81). Five patients had procedural complications: lead dislodgment in 4 requiring correction and subclavian vein thrombosis in 1 patient. CONCLUSIONS: Dual-chamber permanent pacing is effective in reducing recurrence of syncope in patients ≥40 years with severe asystolic neurally mediated syncope. The observed 32% absolute and 57% relative reduction in syncope recurrence support this invasive treatment for the relatively benign neurally mediated syncope. CLINICAL TRIAL REGISTRATION: URL: http://www.clinicaltrials.gov. Unique identifier: NCT00359203.

Receptor activator for NF-κB ligand in acute myeloid leukemia: expression, function, and modulation of NK cell immunosurveillance.

The TNF family member receptor activator for NF-κB ligand (RANKL) and its receptors RANK and osteoprotegerin are key regulators of bone remodeling but also influence cellular functions of tumor and immune effector cells. In this work, we studied the involvement of RANK-RANKL interaction in NK cell-mediated immunosurveillance of acute myeloid leukemia (AML). Substantial levels of RANKL were found to be expressed on leukemia cells in 53 of 78 (68%) investigated patients. Signaling via RANKL into the leukemia cells stimulated their metabolic activity and induced the release of cytokines involved in AML pathophysiology. In addition, the immunomodulatory factors released by AML cells upon RANKL signaling impaired the anti-leukemia reactivity of NK cells and induced RANK expression, and NK cells of AML patients displayed significantly upregulated RANK expression compared with healthy controls. Treatment of AML cells with the clinically available RANKL Ab Denosumab resulted in enhanced NK cell anti-leukemia reactivity. This was due to both blockade of the release of NK-inhibitory factors by AML cells and prevention of RANK signaling into NK cells. The latter was found to directly impair NK anti-leukemia reactivity with a more pronounced effect on IFN-γ production compared with cytotoxicity. Together, our data unravel a previously unknown function of the RANK-RANKL molecule system in AML pathophysiology as well as NK cell function and suggest that neutralization of RANKL with therapeutic Abs may serve to reinforce NK cell reactivity in leukemia patients.

Targeting receptor activator of nuclear factor-kappa B as a new therapy for bone metastasis in non-small cell lung cancer.

PURPOSE OF REVIEW: The review aims at comprehensively discussing our current knowledge on bone metastases incidence in non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC), their related complications as well as clinical impact in patients suffering from advanced disease. RECENT FINDINGS: After evoking the use of zoledronic acid as the established standard of care until recently, the new class of drugs available to prevent skeletal related events and targeting receptor activator of nuclear factor-kappa B (RANK) will be emphasized, reporting on denosumab clinical trials, a RANK-ligand (RANKL) targeting monoclonal antibody. Biological hypothesis regarding their mechanisms of action as well a potential direct impact on tumor cells are described according to the most recent laboratory as well as hypothesis-generating clinical data. SUMMARY: Targeting the RANK pathway is an efficient way to prevent complications of bone metastases in NSCLC. Interesting additional direct effects on tumor biology and evolution are being analyzed and prospectively assessed in clinical trials.

Faut-il traiter l'osteoporose liee a la thalassemie majeure: deux cas cliniques [Should we treat thalassemia-induced osteoporosis: two case reports].

We report two cases of beta-thalassemia-induced osteoporosis. A man and a woman presented an osteoporosis at the densitometry and were treated with bisphoshonate iv. All the studies analysed the efficacity of bisphosphonate, in particular zoledronate seems to be effective. Concerning the pathogenesis, the RANK-RANK-Ligand and OPG play a major role in bone-resorption and seem to be the principal implicated mechanism for the development of osteoporosis in BTM. At the moment there is no study evaluating the efficacity of denosumab in the BTM.