121 resultados para ROBOTIC ARM
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Background: Cerebral autoregulation (CA) is a protective mechanism which maintains the steadiness of the cerebral blood flow (CBF) through a broad range of systemic blood pressure (BP). Acute hypertension has been shown to reduce the cerebrovascular adaptation to BP variations. However, it is still unknown whether CA is impaired in chronic hypertension. This study evaluated whether a strict control of BP affects the CA in patients with chronic hypertension, and compared a valsartan-based regimen to a regimen not inhibiting the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (non-RAAS). Methods: Eighty untreated patients with isolated systolic hypertension were randomized to valsartan 320 mg or to a non-RAAS regimen during 6 months. The medication was upgraded to obtain BP <140/90 mm Hg. Continuous recordings of arterial BP and CBF velocity (transcranial Doppler) were performed during periods of 5 minutes, at rest, and at different levels of alveolar CO(2) pressure provided by respiratory maneuvers. The dominant frequency of CBF oscillations was determined for each patient. Dynamic CA was measured as the mean phase shift between BP and CBF by cross-spectral analysis in the medium frequency and in the dominant CBF frequency. Results: Mean ambulatory 24-hour BP fell from 144/87 to 127/79 mm Hg in the valsartan group and from 144/87 to 134/81 mm Hg in the non-RAAS group (p = 0.13). Both groups had a similar reduction in the central BP and in the carotido-femoral pulse wave velocity. The average phase shift between BP fluctuations and CBF response at rest was normal at randomization (1.82 ± 0.08 s), which is considered a preserved autoregulation and increased to 1.91 ± 0.12 s at the end of study (p = 0.45). The comparison of both treatments showed no significant difference (-0.01 ± 0.17 s vs. 0.16 ± 0.16 s, p = 0.45) for valsartan versus non-RAAS groups. The plasmatic level of glycosylated hemoglobin decreased in the valsartan arm compared to the non-RAAS arm (-0.23 ± 0.06 vs. -0.08 ± 0.07%, p = 0.07). Conclusions: In elderly hypertensive men with isolated chronic systolic hypertension, CA seems efficient at baseline and is not significantly affected by 6 months of BP-lowering treatment. This suggests that the preventive effects of BP medication against stroke are not mediated through a restoration of the CA.
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BACKGROUND: Conversion disorder (CD) is a psychiatric disorder, yet the diagnosis cannot be established without the expertise of a neurologist, as distinguishing a functional from an organic symptom relies on careful bedside examination. Joseph Babinski considered the absence of pronator drift as a 'positive sign' for hysterical paresis but the validity of this sign has never been evaluated. The aim of this study was to examine the sensitivity and specificity of the "drift without pronation" sign. METHODS: Twenty-six patients with unilateral functional upper limb paresis diagnosed with CD (DSM-IV) and a control group of 28 patients with an organic neurological condition were consecutively included. The arm stabilisation test was performed with arms stretched out in full supination, fingers adducted, eyes closed for 10 seconds. A positive "drift without pronation" sign was defined by the presence of a downward drift without pronation. RESULTS: All CD subjects (100%) displayed a positive sign when only 7.1% of organic subjects did (Fisher's p < 0.001). The sign yielded a sensitivity of 100% (95% CI:84%-100%) and a specificity of 93% (95% CI:76%-98%). CONCLUSION: The observation of a "drift without pronation" sign is specific for Conversion Disorder and can be of help in making a quick distinction between organic and functional paresis at the bedside.
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Chemosensation is the detection of chemical signals in the environment that enable an animal to make informed decisions about food choice, mate preference or predator detection. Dissecting the molecular and neural mechanisms by which animals detect chemical cues is an important goal towards understanding how they interact with the environment. An attractive system to dissect the mechanisms of chemosensation is the olfactory system. One of the most-investigated olfactory systems is that of Drosophila melanogaster, a model organism that is amenable to a powerful combination of genetic and physiological analyses. Embedded within the antennal olfactory organ of Drosophila is an unusual sensory structure called the sacculus. The sacculus is comprised of three distinct chambers, each lined with several sensilla housing two to three neurons. Previous morphological, anatomical and surgical studies of sacculus neurons have implicated sacculus neurons in chemosensation, hygrosensation and/or thermosensation. While a subset of sacculus neurons have been physiologically characterised as temperature sensors, the role of this organ has remained largely mysterious, due to its inaccessibility to peripheral electrophysiological analysis. Recently a new family of olfactory receptors, the lonotropic Receptors (IRs), was identified. Five IRs are expressed in sacculus neurons providing the first selective molecular markers for these cells. In this thesis I describe the molecular, physiological and anatomical characterisation of these neurons. Genetic labelling of specific populations of sacculus neurons with anatomical (CD8:GFP) reporters has identified neurons in sacculus chambers I and II express IR40a+IR93a together with their co- receptor IR25a, while neurons in chamber III express IR64a with its co-receptor IR8a. Both these sets of neurons project to two distinct glomeruli in the antennal lobe; IR40a neurons project to the column and arm, IR64a neurons project to DC4 and DP1m. Through a live optical imaging screen I showed that these neurons are indeed olfactory and IR64a neurons recognise acidic ligands, while IR40a neurons recognise amine ligands. IR40a and IR64a neurons are in fact composed of anatomically and physiologically distinct subpopulations, strongly implying the existence of other factors that define their functional properties. My thesis identifies the sacculus as a specialised olfactory organ capable of detecting acids and bases, which are of widespread importance to insects. The data from my thesis along with data from other labs show the sacculus is composed of different populations of olfactory sensory neurons and thermosensory neurons. Comparative genomic analysis of sacculus IRs across insects reveals them to be among the most conserved of this receptor repertoire, suggesting that the sacculus represents an evolutionarily ancient insect olfactory acid-base sensor. - La détection des produits chimiques se trouvant dans l'environnement (perception chimiosensorielle) permet à un animal de choisir sa nourriture, son partenaire ou encore d'identifier ses prédateurs. Décortiquer les mécanismes moléculaires et neuronaux grâce auxquels les animaux détectent ces signaux chimiques permet de comprendre comment ces animaux interagissent avec leur environnement. Un système intéressant pour décortiquer ces mécanismes de perception chimiosensorielle est le système olfactif, de la drosophile (Drosophila melanogaster), aussi appelée mouche du vinaigre. C'est un animal modèle très utile grâce à la combinaison d'outils génétiques puissants et d'analyses physiologiques facilement réalisables. Dans l'antenne de la drosophile, qui est l'organe olfactif principal de cet animal, se trouve une structure appelée sacculus. Celui-ci est composé de trois chambres distinctes, chacune comprenant plusieurs sensilles à l'intérieur desquelles se trouvent deux à trois neurones. De précédentes études morphologiques et anatomiques des ces neurones ont déterminé qu'ils sont impliqués dans la perception des odeurs, de l'humidité et de la température. Malgré ceci, la fonction principale de cet organe reste largement inconnue, principalement car il est inaccessible aux analyses électrophysiologiques. Récemment, une nouvelle famille de soixante-six récepteurs olfactifs, nommés Récepteurs lonotropiques (IRs), a été découverte chez la drosophile. Cinq IRs sont exprimés dans les neurones du sacculus. Pour la première fois, une sélection de marqueurs moléculaires est disponible pour l'étude de ces cellules. Dans cette thèse, les caractéristiques moléculaires, physiologiques et anatomiques des neurones du sacculus sont décrites. Ces populations de neurones situés dans le sacculus ont été marquées avec des gènes rapporteurs (CD8:GFP). Ceci a montré que les récepteurs IR40a et IR93a sont exprimés ensemble avec le co-récepteur IR25a dans les chambres I et II, tandis que les neurones de la chambre III expriment IR64a avec son co-récepteur IR8a. Ces deux groupes de neurones projettent vers deux glomérules distincts du lobe antennaire : les neurones IR40a projettent vers la column et le arm, alors que les neurones IR64a projettent vers DC4 et DP1m. Un screen d'imagerie optique a démontré que ces neurones sont en effet des neurones olfactifs, et que les neurones IR64a reconnaissent des ligands acides, tandis que les neurones IR40a reconnaissent des ligands aminés. De plus, les neurones IR40a et IR64a sont séparés en sous-populations distinctes anatomiquement et physiologiquement, et d'autres facteurs permettant de définir leurs propriétés fonctionnelles sont probablement impliqués. Cette thèse identifie ainsi le sacculus comme un organe olfactif spécialisé capable de détecter des acides et amines, lesquels sont très importants pour les insectes. Toutes les données collectées durant cette thèse, combinées aux données d'autres laboratoires, montrent que le sacculus est composé de différentes populations de neurones olfactifs et thermosenseurs. Ces IRs sont très conservés parmi les insectes, suggérant que le sacculus représente révolution d'un ancien détecteur olfactif d'acides et de bases chez l'insecte. - Tous les animaux sont capables de percevoir les signaux chimiques dans leur environnement, comme les odeurs ou le goût, via différents organes. L'odorat est le sens qui permet de percevoir les odeurs, et il est implique des neurones olfactifs qui se trouvent dans le nez des mammifères ou les antennes des insectes. La capacité d'un neurone olfactif à détecter une molécule odorante dépend des types de récepteurs olfactifs qu'il exprime. Il existe deux grandes familles de récepteurs qui perçoivent les odeurs : les Récepteurs Olfactifs, ORs, et Récepteurs lonotropiques IRs, qui détectent différents types d'odeurs avec différents mécanismes. Lorsqu'un récepteur reconnaît une molécule odorante, il convertit ce signal en un signal électrique qui est ensuite transmis au centre olfactif dans le cerveau. La drosophile (Drosophila melanogaster), aussi appelée mouche du vinaigre, est utilisée comme animal modèle pour étudier l'odorat, parce que son génome entier a été séquencé et que ses gènes sont facilement manipulables. De plus, l'anatomie du système olfactif de la mouche est similaire à celui des mammifères, malgré qu'il possède moins de neurones, ce qui le rend moins complexe. Ma thèse a pour objectif d'étudier les Récepteurs lonotropiques dans un organe spécifique, appelé le sacculus, situé dans les antennes. Les neurones du sacculus exprimant des IRs envoient leurs projections au centre olfactif du cerveau, suggérant que ces neurones perçoivent les odeurs. Une technique d'imagerie optique a été utilisée sur le cerveau de mouches vivantes afin de mesurer la réponse des neurones du le sacculus à différentes odeurs. J'ai démontré que ces récepteurs détectent des acides et des amines, qui sont très importants pour les insectes. Par exemple, les acides se retrouvent dans les fruits mûrs sur lesquels les mouches vont se nourrir, s'accoupler et poser leurs oeufs, et les amines sont souvent produites par des bactéries pouvant être nuisible pour la mouche. La principale découverte de ma thèse est donc l'identification du sacculus comme un organe capable de détecter deux des principales odeurs importantes pour la mouche. Ces récepteurs sont aussi présents dans d'autres insectes où ils jouent peut-être des rôles différents. Les acides et les amines se retrouvent aussi dans les excrétions (comme la sueur ou l'urine) de beaucoup de mammifères, qui pourraient potentiellement être dangereux pour la mouche, mais qui attirent les moustiques se nourrissant de leur sang.
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Chest physiotherapy (CP) using passive expiratory manoeuvres is widely used in Western Europe for the treatment of bronchiolitis, despite lacking evidence for its efficacy. We undertook an open randomised trial to evaluate the effectiveness of CP in infants hospitalised for bronchiolitis by comparing the time to clinical stability, the daily improvement of a severity score and the occurrence of complications between patients with and without CP. Children <1 year admitted for bronchiolitis in a tertiary hospital during two consecutive respiratory syncytial virus seasons were randomised to group 1 with CP (prolonged slow expiratory technique, slow accelerated expiratory flow, rarely induced cough) or group 2 without CP. All children received standard care (rhinopharyngeal suctioning, minimal handling, oxygen for saturation ≥92%, fractionated meals). Ninety-nine eligible children (mean age, 3.9 months), 50 in group 1 and 49 in group 2, with similar baseline variables and clinical severity at admission. Time to clinical stability, assessed as primary outcome, was similar for both groups (2.9 ± 2.1 vs. 3.2 ± 2.8 days, P = 0.45). The rate of improvement of a clinical and respiratory score, defined as secondary outcome, only showed a slightly faster improvement of the respiratory score in the intervention group when including stethoacoustic properties (P = 0.044). Complications were rare but occurred more frequently, although not significantly (P = 0.21), in the control arm. In conclusion, this study shows the absence of effectiveness of CP using passive expiratory techniques in infants hospitalised for bronchiolitis. It seems justified to recommend against the routine use of CP in these patients.
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A new ambulatory technique for qualitative and quantitative movement analysis of the humerus is presented. 3D gyroscopes attached on the humerus were used to recognize the movement of the arm and to classify it as flexion, abduction and internal/external rotations. The method was first validated in a laboratory setting and then tested on 31 healthy volunteer subjects while carrying the ambulatory system during 8 h of their daily life. For each recording, the periods of sitting, standing and walking during daily activity were detected using an inertial sensor attached on the chest. During each period of daily activity the type of arm movement (flexion, abduction, internal/external rotation) its velocity and frequency (number of movement/hour) were estimated. The results showed that during the whole daily activity and for each activity (i.e. walking, sitting and walking) the frequency of internal/external rotation was significantly higher while the frequency of abduction was the lowest (P < 0.009). In spite of higher number of flexion, abduction and internal/external rotation in the dominant arm, we have not observed in our population a significant difference with the non-dominant arm, implying that in healthy subjects the arm dominance does not lie considerably on the number of movements. As expected, the frequency of the movement increased from sitting to standing and from standing to walking, while we provide a quantitative value of this change during daily activity. This study provides preliminary evidence that this system is a useful tool for objectively assessing upper-limb activity during daily activity. The results obtained with the healthy population could be used as control data to evaluate arm movement of patients with shoulder diseases during daily activity.
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Background: Glutathione (GSH), a major cellular redox regulator and antioxidant, is decreased in cerebrospinal fluid and prefrontal cortex of schizophrenia patients. The gene of the key GSH-synthesizing enzyme, glutamate-cysteine ligase, modifier (GCLM) subunit, is associated with schizophrenia, suggesting that the deficit in the GSH system is of genetic origin. Using the GCLM knock-out (KO) mouse as model system with 60% decreased brain GSH levels and, thus, strong vulnerability to oxidative stress, we have shown that GSH dysregulation results in abnormal mouse brain morphology (e.g., reduced parvalbumin, PV, immuno-reactivity in frontal areas) and function. Additional oxidative stress, induced by GBR12909 (a dopamine re-uptake inhibitor), enhances morphological changes even further. Aim: In the present study we use the GCLM KO mouse model system, asking now, whether GSH dysregulation also compromises mouse behaviour and cognition. Methods: Male and female wildtype (WT) and GCLM-KO mice are treated with GBR12909 or phosphate buffered saline (PBS) from postnatal day (P) 5 to 10, and are behaviourally tested at P 60 and older. Results: In comparison to WT, KO animals of both sexes are hyperactive in the open field, display more frequent open arm entries on the elevated plus maze, longer float latencies in the Porsolt swim test, and more frequent contacts of novel and familiar objects. Contrary to other reports of animal models with reduced PV immuno-reactivity, GCLM-KO mice display normal rule learning capacity and perform normally on a spatial recognition task. GCLM-KO mice do, however, show a strong deficit in object-recognition after a 15 minutes retention delay. GBR12909 treatment exerts no additional effect. Conclusions: The results suggest that animals with impaired regulation of brain oxidative stress are impulsive and have reduced behavioural control in novel, unpredictable contexts. Moreover, GSH dysregulation seems to induce a selective attentional or stimulus-encoding deficit: despite intensive object exploration, GCLM-KO mice cannot discriminate between novel and familiar objects. In conclusion, the present data indicate that GSH dysregulation may contribute to the manifestation of behavioural and cognitive anomalies that are associated with schizophrenia.
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Introduction: Acquired genetic instability in chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) as a consequence of the translocation t(9;22)(q34;q11) and the resulting BCR-ABL fusion causes the continuous acquisition of additional chromosomal aberrations and mutations and thereby progression to accelerated phase (AP) and blast crisis (BC). At least 10% of patients in chronic phase (CP) CML show additional alterations at diagnosis. This proportion rises during the course of the disease up to 80% in BC. Acquisition of chromosomal changes during treatment is considered as a poor prognostic indicator, whereas the impact of chromosomal aberrations at diagnosis depends on their type. Patients with major route additional chromosomal alterations (major ACA: +8, i(17)(q10), +19, +der(22)t(9;22)(q34;q11) have a worse outcome whereas patients with minor route ACA show no difference in overall survival (OS) and progression-free survival (PFS) compared to patients with the standard translocation, a variant translocation or the loss of the Y chromosome (Fabarius et al., Blood 2011). However, the impact of balanced vs. unbalanced (gains or losses of chromosomes or chromosomal material) karyotypes at diagnosis on prognosis of CML is not clear yet. Patients and methods: Clinical and cytogenetic data of 1346 evaluable out of 1544 patients with Philadelphia and BCR-ABL positive CP CML randomized until December 2011 to the German CML-Study IV, a randomized 5-arm trial to optimize imatinib therapy by combination, or dose escalation and stem cell transplantation were investigated. There were 540 females (40%) and 806 males (60%). Median age was 53 years (range, 16-88). The impact of additional cytogenetic aberrations in combination with an unbalanced or balanced karyotype at diagnosis on time to complete cytogenetic and major molecular remission (CCR, MMR), PFS and OS was investigated. Results: At diagnosis 1174/1346 patients (87%) had the standard t(9;22)(q34;q11) only and 75 patients (6%) had a variant t(v;22). In 64 of 75 patients with t(v;22), only one further chromosome was involved in the translocation; In 8 patients two, in 2 patients three, and in one patient four further chromosomes were involved. Ninety seven patients (7%) had additional cytogenetic aberrations. Of these, 44 patients (3%) lacked the Y chromosome (-Y) and 53 patients (4%) had major or minor ACA. Thirty six of the 53 patients (2.7%) had an unbalanced karyotype (including all patients with major route ACA and patients with other unbalanced alterations like -X, del(1)(q21), del(5)(q11q14), +10, t(15;17)(p10;p10), -21), and 17 (1.3%) a balanced karyotype with reciprocal translocations [e.g. t(1;21); t(2;16); t(3;12); t(4;6); t(5;8); t(15;20)]. After a median observation time of 5.6 years for patients with t(9;22), t(v;22), -Y, balanced and unbalanced karyotype with ACA median times to CCR were 1.05, 1.05, 1.03, 2.58 and 1.51 years, to MMR 1.31, 1.51, 1.65, 2.97 and 2.07 years. Time to CCR and MMR was longer in patients with balanced karyotypes (data statistically not significant). 5-year PFS was 89%, 78%, 87%, 94% and 69% and 5-year OS 91%, 87%, 89%, 100% and 73%, respectively. In CML patients with unbalanced karyotype PFS (p<0.001) and OS (p<0.001) were shorter than in patients with standard translocation (or balanced karyotype; p<0.04 and p<0.07, respectively). Conclusion: We conclude that the prognostic impact of additional cytogenetic alterations at diagnosis of CML is heterogeneous and consideration of their types may be important. Not only patients with major route ACA at diagnosis of CML but also patients with unbalanced karyotypes identify a group of patients with shorter PFS and OS as compared to all other patients. Therefore, different therapeutic options such as intensive therapy with the most potent tyrosine kinase inhibitors or stem cell transplantation are required.
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BACKGROUND: Several markers of atherosclerosis and of inflammation have been shown to predict coronary heart disease (CHD) individually. However, the utility of markers of atherosclerosis and of inflammation on prediction of CHD over traditional risk factors has not been well established, especially in the elderly. METHODS: We studied 2202 men and women, aged 70-79, without baseline cardiovascular disease over 6-year follow-up to assess the risk of incident CHD associated with baseline noninvasive measures of atherosclerosis (ankle-arm index [AAI], aortic pulse wave velocity [aPWV]) and inflammatory markers (interleukin-6 [IL-6], C-reactive protein [CRP], tumor necrosis factor-a [TNF-a]). CHD events were studied as either nonfatal myocardial infarction or coronary death ("hard" events), and "hard" events plus hospitalization for angina, or the need for coronary-revascularization procedures (total CHD events). RESULTS: During the 6-year follow-up, 283 participants had CHD events (including 136 "hard" events). IL-6, TNF-a and AAI independently predicted CHD events above Framingham Risk Score (FRS) with hazard ratios [HR] for the highest as compared with the lowest quartile for IL-6 of 1.95 (95%CI: 1.38-2.75, p for trend<0.001), TNF-a of 1.45 (95%CI: 1.04-2.02, p for trend 0.03), of 1.66 (95%CI: 1.19-2.31) for AAI £0.9, as compared to AAI 1.01-1.30. CRP and aPWV were not independently associated with CHD events. Results were similar for "hard" CHD events. Addition of IL-6 and AAI to traditional cardiovascular risk factors yielded the greatest improvement in the prediction of CHD; C-index for "hard"/total CHD events increased from 0.62/0.62 for traditional risk factors to 0.64/0.64 for IL-6 addition, 0.65/0.63 for AAI, and 0.66/0.64 for IL-6 combined with AAI. Being in the highest quartile of IL-6 combined with an AAI £ 0.90 or >1.40 yielded an HR of 2.51 (1.50-4.19) and 4.55 (1.65-12.50) above FRS, respectively. With use of CHD risk categories, risk prediction at 5 years was more accurate in models that included IL-6, AAI or both, with 8.0, 8.3 and 12.1% correctly reclassified respectively. CONCLUSIONS: Among older adults, markers of atherosclerosis and of inflammation, particularly IL-6 and AAI, are independently associated with CHD. However, these markers only modestly improve cardiovascular risk prediction beyond traditional risk factors. Acknowledgments: This study was supported by Contracts NO1-AG-6-2101, NO1-AG-6- 2103, and NO1-AG-6-2106 of the National Institute on Aging. This research was supported in part by the Intramural Research Program of the NIH, National Institute on Aging.
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The EORTC 22881-10882 trial in 5178 conservatively treated early breast cancer patients showed that a 16 Gy boost dose significantly improved local control, but increased the risk of breast fibrosis. To investigate predictors for the long-term risk of fibrosis, Cox regression models of the time to moderate or severe fibrosis were developed on a random set of 1797 patients with and 1827 patients without a boost, and validated in the remaining set. The median follow-up was 10.7 years. The risk of fibrosis significantly increased (P<0.01) with increasing maximum whole breast irradiation (WBI) dose and with concomitant chemotherapy, but was independent of age. In the boost arm, the risk further increased (P<0.01) if patients had post-operative breast oedema or haematoma, but it decreased (P<0.01) if WBI was given with >6 MV photons. The c-index was around 0.62. Nomograms with these factors are proposed to forecast the long-term risk of moderate or severe fibrosis.
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IMPORTANCE: The clinical benefit of adding a macrolide to a β-lactam for empirical treatment of moderately severe community-acquired pneumonia remains controversial. OBJECTIVE: To test noninferiority of a β-lactam alone compared with a β-lactam and macrolide combination in moderately severe community-acquired pneumonia. DESIGN, SETTING, AND PARTICIPANTS: Open-label, multicenter, noninferiority, randomized trial conducted from January 13, 2009, through January 31, 2013, in 580 immunocompetent adult patients hospitalized in 6 acute care hospitals in Switzerland for moderately severe community-acquired pneumonia. Follow-up extended to 90 days. Outcome assessors were masked to treatment allocation. INTERVENTIONS: Patients were treated with a β-lactam and a macrolide (combination arm) or with a β-lactam alone (monotherapy arm). Legionella pneumophila infection was systematically searched and treated by addition of a macrolide to the monotherapy arm. MAIN OUTCOMES AND MEASURES: Proportion of patients not reaching clinical stability (heart rate <100/min, systolic blood pressure >90 mm Hg, temperature <38.0°C, respiratory rate <24/min, and oxygen saturation >90% on room air) at day 7. RESULTS: After 7 days of treatment, 120 of 291 patients (41.2%) in the monotherapy arm vs 97 of 289 (33.6%) in the combination arm had not reached clinical stability (7.6% difference, P = .07). The upper limit of the 1-sided 90% CI was 13.0%, exceeding the predefined noninferiority boundary of 8%. Patients infected with atypical pathogens (hazard ratio [HR], 0.33; 95% CI, 0.13-0.85) or with Pneumonia Severity Index (PSI) category IV pneumonia (HR, 0.81; 95% CI, 0.59-1.10) were less likely to reach clinical stability with monotherapy, whereas patients not infected with atypical pathogens (HR, 0.99; 95% CI, 0.80-1.22) or with PSI category I to III pneumonia (HR, 1.06; 95% CI, 0.82-1.36) had equivalent outcomes in the 2 arms. There were more 30-day readmissions in the monotherapy arm (7.9% vs 3.1%, P = .01). Mortality, intensive care unit admission, complications, length of stay, and recurrence of pneumonia within 90 days did not differ between the 2 arms. CONCLUSIONS AND RELEVANCE: We did not find noninferiority of β-lactam monotherapy in patients hospitalized for moderately severe community-acquired pneumonia. Patients infected with atypical pathogens or with PSI category IV pneumonia had delayed clinical stability with monotherapy. TRIAL REGISTRATION: clinicaltrials.gov Identifier: NCT00818610.
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Radiotherapy with concomitant and adjuvant TMZ is the standard of care for newly diagnosed GBM. MGMT methylation status may be an important determinant of treatment response. This trial, conducted by the RTOG, EORTC, and NCCTG, determined if intensified TMZ improves survival (OS) or progression free survival (PFS) in all patients or specific to MGMT status. Eligibility criteria included age . 18 yrs, KPS ≥ 60, and existence of a tissue block with . 1cm2 tumor for prospective MGMT and retrospective molecular analysis. Patients were randomized to Arm 1: standard TMZ (150-200 mg/m2 x 5 d) or Arm 2: dd TMZ (75-100 mg/m2 x 21 d) q 4 wks for 6-12 cycles. Symptom burden, quality of life (QOL), and neurocognition were prospectively and longitudinally assessed in a patient subset. 833 patients were randomized (1173 registered). Inadequate tissue (n ¼ 144) was the most frequent reason for nonrandomization.No statistical difference was observed between Arms 1 and 2 for median OS (16.6, 14.9 mo, p ¼ 0.63), median PFS (5.5, 6.7 mo, p ¼ 0.06), or methylation status. MGMT methylation was associated with improved OS (21.2, 14 mo, p , 0.0001), PFS (8.7, 5.7 mo, p , 0.0001), and treatment response (p ¼ 0.012). Cox modeling identifiedMGMT status and RPA class as significant predictors of OS; treatment arm and radiation technique (EORTC vs. RTOG) were not. There was increased grade ≥ 3 toxicity in Arm 2 (19%, 27%, p ¼ 0.008), which was mostly lymphopenia and fatigue. This study did not demonstrate improved efficacy for dd TMZ for newly diagnosed GBM regardless of methylation status. However, it confirmed the prognostic significance of MGMT methylation in GBM, demonstrated the feasibility of tumor tissue collection, molecular stratification, and collection of patient outcomes in a large transatlantic intergroup trial, thereby establishing a viable clinical trial paradigm. Support: NCI U10 CA 21661 and U10 CA37422.
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BACKGROUND: This study assesses the benefits of an individualized therapy (RECOS program) compared with the more general cognitive remediation therapy (CRT). METHODS: 138 participants took part with 65 randomized to CRT and 73 to RECOS. In the RECOS group, participants were directed towards one of five training modules (verbal memory, visuo-spatial memory and attention, working memory, selective attention or reasoning) corresponding to their key cognitive concern whereas the CRT group received a standard program. The main outcome was the total score on BADS (Behavioural Assessment of Dysexecutive Syndrome) and the secondary outcomes were: cognition (executive functions; selective attention; visuospatial memory and attention; verbal memory; working memory) and clinical measures (symptoms; insight; neurocognitive complaints; self-esteem). All outcomes were assessed at baseline (T1), week 12 (posttherapy, T2), and follow-up (week 36, i.e., 6months posttherapy, T3). RESULTS: No difference was shown for the main outcome. A significant improvement was found for BADS' profile score for RECOS at T2 and T3, and for CRT at T3. Change in BADS in the RECOS and CRT arms were not significantly different between T1 and T2 (+0.86, p=0.108), or between T1 and T3 (+0.36, p=0.540). Significant improvements were found in several secondary outcomes including cognition (executive functions, selective attention, verbal memory, and visuospatial abilities) and clinician measures (symptoms and awareness to be hampered by cognitive deficits in everyday) in both treatment arms following treatment. Self-esteem improved only in RECOS arm at T3, and working memory improved only in CRT arm at T2 and T3, but there were no differences in changes between arms. CONCLUSIONS: RECOS (specific remediation) and CRT (general remediation) globally showed similar efficacy in the present trial.
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BACKGROUND: Postanoxic status epilepticus (PSE) is considered a predictor of fatal outcome and therefore not intensively treated; however, some patients have had favorable outcomes. The aim of this study was to identify favorable predictors for awakening beyond vegetative state in PSE. METHODS: We studied six subjects treated with hypothermia improving beyond vegetative state after cerebral anoxia, despite PSE. They were among a cohort of patients treated for anoxic encephalopathy with therapeutic hypothermia in our institution between October 1999 and May 2006 (retrospectively, 3/107 patients) and June 2006 and May 2008 (prospectively, 3/74 patients). PSE was defined by clinical and EEG criteria. Outcome was assessed according to the Glasgow-Pittsburgh Cerebral Performance Categories (CPC). RESULTS: All improving patients had preserved brainstem reflexes, cortical somatosensory evoked potentials, and reactive EEG background during PSE. Half of them had myoclonic PSE, while three had nonconvulsive PSE. In the prospective arm, 3/28 patients with PSE showed this clinical-electrophysiologic profile; all awoke. Treatments consisted of benzodiazepines, various antiepileptic drugs, and propofol. One subject died of pneumonia in a minimally conscious state, one patient returned to baseline (CPC1), three had moderate impairment (CPC2), and one remained dependent (CPC3). Patients with nonconvulsive PSE showed a better prognosis than subjects with myoclonic PSE (p = 0.042). CONCLUSION: Patients with postanoxic status epilepticus and preserved brainstem reactions, somatosensory evoked potentials, and EEG reactivity may have a favorable outcome if their condition is treated as status epilepticus.
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Times Cited: 0 References: 0 Citation MapAbstract : Background: Chemotherapy followed by autologous stem cell transplantation (ASCT) is the standard treatment for relapsed DLBCL. No study has compared salvage therapies and evaluated maintenance post ASCT.Methods: DLBCL CD 20+ in first relapse or pts refractory after first therapy were randomized between R ICE (rituximab, ifosfamide, etoposide, carboplatinum) or R DHAP (rituximab dexamethasone cytarabine cisplatinum). Responding patients received BEAM and ASCT then randomized between observation or maintenance with rituximab every 2 m for 1 yr (Gisselbrecht J Clin Oncol; 2010).Results: Analysis was made on 477 pts (R ICE: 243 pts; R DHAP: 234 pts): 255 relapses >12m, 213 refractory/early relapses; 306 pts had prior rituximab; secondary(s) IPI 0-1: 281 pts; s IPI 2-3:181pts. There was no difference in response rate between R ICE 63.6% and R DHAP 64.3%. There was no difference between R ICE and R DHAP at 4 yrs for EFS (26% vs 37% p=0.2) and OS (43% vs 51%, p=0.3). Factors affecting 4 yrs EFS, PFS and OS were: prior treatment with rituximab; early relapse< 12 m; s IPI 2-3. ASCT was performed in 255 pts and 242 randomized for maintenance: 122 pts rituximab (R), 120 pts observation (O). Distribution between R/O arms were respectively: median age 54 /53 yrs, Male 76/83; female 46/37; secondary IPI 0-1: 84/81; sIPI 2-3: 36/36. 89/76 relapses >12m., 33/41 refractory/early relapses. Median follow up was 44 m with 111 events. 4 yrs EFS was 52.8 % (CI 46-59) with 63% (CI 56-69) OS. There was no difference in EFS, PFS and OS between R and O arms. In multivariate analysis, sIPI2-3 significantly affected EFS, PFS, OS (p=0.0004). Women (83pts) had a better 4 yrs EFS 63% than male (159pts) 37% (p=0.01). The difference was only in the R arm (p=0.004). Gender was an independent prognostic factor in the R arm. Toxicity was mild with 12% SAE versus 4% for R /O respectively.Conclusions: There was no difference between R ICE and R DHAP and between post ASCT maintenance with R or O. Women did significantly better after ASCT with rituximab. Early relapses to upfront rituximab-based chemotherapy have a poor prognosis.
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Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) has been consistently associated with multiple sclerosis (MS), but whether this virus is a trigger of MS remains undetermined. Recently, EBV-infected B cells recognized by activated CD8_ T cells have been detected in the meninges of autopsied MS patients. In addition, a strong EBV-specific CD8_ T cell response in the blood of patients with MS of recent onset was reported. Here, to further explore the putative relationship between MS and EBV, we assessed the EBV-specific cellular and humoral immune responses in the blood and the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) of patients with early MS or other neurological diseases, separated into inflammatory (IOND) and non-inflammatory (NIOND) groups. The MS non-associated neurotropic herpesvirus cytomegalovirus (CMV) served as a control. Fifty-eight study subjects were enrolled, including 44 patients (13 with early MS (onset of MS less than one year prior to the assay), 15 with IOND and 16 with NIOND) in the immunological arm of the study. The cellular immune response was investigated using a functional CFSE cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) assay performed with short-term cultured EBV- or CMVspecific effector T cells from the CSF and the blood. The humoral immune response specific for these two viruses was also examined in both the blood and the CSF. The recruitment of a given virusspecific antibody in the CSF as compared to the blood was expressed as antibody indexes (AI). We found that, in the CSF of early MS patients, there was an enrichment in EBV-, but not CMV-specific, CD8_ CTL as compared to the CSF of IOND (P_ 0.003) and NIOND patients (P_0.0009), as well as compared to paired blood samples (P_0.005). Additionally, relative viral capsid antigen (VCA)-, but not EBV encoded nuclear antigen 1 (EBNA1)- or CMV-specific, AI were increased in the CSF of early MS as compared to IOND (P_0.002) or NIOND patients (P_0.008) and correlated with the EBVspecific CD8_ CTL responses in the CSF (rs_0.54, P_0.001). Fourteen additional patients were enrolled in the virological arm of the study: using semi-nested PCR, EBV-encoded nuclear RNA1 (EBER1)-a transcript expressed during all stages of EBV infection-was detected in the CSF of 2/4 early MS, but only 1/6 IOND and 0/4 NIOND patients. Altogether, our data suggest that a reactivation of EBV, but not CMV, is taking place in the central nervous system of patients with MS of recent onset. These data significantly strengthen the link between EBV and MS and may indicate a triggering role of EBV in this disease. This work was supported by grants from the Swiss National Foundation and from the Swiss Society for Multiple Sclerosis.