Macrophages promote epithelial repair through hepatocyte growth factor secretion.

Macrophages play a critical role in intestinal wound repair. However, the mechanisms of macrophage-assisted wound repair remain poorly understood. We aimed to characterize more clearly the repair activities of murine and human macrophages. Murine macrophages were differentiated from bone marrow cells and human macrophages from monocytes isolated from peripheral blood mononuclear cells of healthy donors (HD) or Crohn's disease (CD) patients or isolated from the intestinal mucosa of HD. In-vitro models were used to study the repair activities of macrophages. We found that murine and human macrophages were both able to promote epithelial repair in vitro. This function was mainly cell contact-independent and relied upon the production of soluble factors such as the hepatocyte growth factor (HGF). Indeed, HGF-silenced macrophages were less capable of promoting epithelial repair than control macrophages. Remarkably, macrophages from CD patients produced less HGF than their HD counterparts (HGF level: 84âeuro0/00±âeuro0/0027âeuro0/00pg/mg of protein and 45âeuro0/00±âeuro0/0034âeuro0/00pg/mg of protein, respectively, for HD and CD macrophages, Pâeuro0/00<âeuro0/000·009) and were deficient in promoting epithelial repair (repairing activity: 90·1âeuro0/00±âeuro0/004·6 and 75·8âeuro0/00±âeuro0/008·3, respectively, for HD and CD macrophages, Pâeuro0/00<âeuro0/000·0005). In conclusion, we provide evidence that macrophages act on wounded epithelial cells to promote epithelial repair through the secretion of HGF. The deficiency of CD macrophages to secrete HGF and to promote epithelial repair might contribute to the impaired intestinal mucosal healing in CD patients.

Whole brain radiotherapy with a conformational external beam radiation boost for lung cancer patients with 1-3 brain metastasis: a multi institutional study.

BACKGROUND: To determine the outcome of patients with brain metastasis (BM) from lung cancer treated with an external beam radiotherapy boost (RTB) after whole brain radiotherapy (WBRT). METHODS: A total of 53 BM patients with lung cancer were treated sequentially with WBRT and RTB between 1996 and 2008 according to our institutional protocol. Mean age was 58.8 years. The median KPS was 90. Median recursive partitioning analysis (RPA) and graded prognostic assessment (GPA) grouping were 2 and 2.5, respectively. Surgery was performed on 38 (71%) patients. The median number of BM was 1 (range, 1-3). Median WBRT and RTB combined dose was 39 Gy (range, 37.5-54). Median follow-up was 12.0 months. RESULTS: During the period of follow-up, 37 (70%) patients died. The median overall survival (OS) was 14.5 months. Only 13 patients failed in the brain. The majority of patients (n = 29) failed distantly. The 1-year OS, -local control, extracranial failure rates were 61.2%, 75.2% and 60.8%, respectively. On univariate analysis, improved OS was found to be significantly associated with total dose (< or = 39 Gy vs. > 39 Gy; p < 0.01), age < 65 (p < 0.01), absence of extracranial metastasis (p < 0.01), GPA > or = 2.5 (p = 0.01), KPS > or = 90 (p = 0.01), and RPA < 2 (p = 0.04). On multivariate analysis, total dose (p < 0.01) and the absence of extracranial metastasis (p = 0.03) retained statistical significance. CONCLUSIONS: The majority of lung cancer patients treated with WBRT and RTB progressed extracranially. There might be a subgroup of younger patients with good performance status and no extracranial disease who may benefit from dose escalation after WBRT to the metastatic site.

Variations of CYP3A activity induced by antiretroviral treatment in HIV-1 infected patients.

OBJECTIVE: To measure the in vivo variations of CYP3A activity induced by anti-HIV drugs in human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)1-positive patients. METHODS: A low oral dose of midazolam (MID) (0.075 mg) was given to the patients and the 30-min total 1-OH midazolam (1-OHMID)/MID ratio was determined. Patients were phenotyped either before the introduction of antiretroviral treatments (control group, 90 patients) or after a variable period of antiretroviral treatment (56 patients). Twenty-one subjects underwent multiple phenotyping tests (before and during the course of the treatment). RESULTS: The median MID ratio was 3.51 in the control group (range 0.20-14.6). It was 5-fold higher in the group with efavirenz (28 patients; median, range: 16.0, 3.81-367; P < 0.0001), 13-fold lower with nelfinavir (18 patients; 0.27, 0.06-36.3; P < 0.0001), 17-fold lower with efavirenz + ritonavir (three patients; 0.21, 0.05-0.47; P = 0.006), 50-fold lower with ritonavir (four patients; 0.07, 0.06-0.17; P = 0.0007), and 7-fold lower with nevirapine + (ritonavir or nelfinavir or grapefruit juice) (three patients; 0.48, 0.03-1.83; P = 0.03). CYP3A activity was lower in the efavirenz + ritonavir group (P = 0.01) and in the ritonavir group (P = 0.04) than in the nelfinavir group, although already strongly inhibited in the latter. CONCLUSION: The low-dose MID phenotyping test was successfully used to measure the in vivo variations of CYP3A activity induced by antiretroviral drugs. Efavirenz strongly induces CYP3A activity, while ritonavir almost completely inhibits it. Nelfinavir strongly decreases CYP3A activity, but to a lesser extent than ritonavir. The inhibition of CYP3A by ritonavir or nelfinavir offsets the inductive effects of efavirenz or nevirapine administered concomitantly. Finally, no induction of CYP3A activity was noticeable after long-term administration of ritonavir at low dosages (200 mg/day b.i.d.) or of nelfinavir at standard dosages (2,500 mg/day b.i.d.).

Effect of early antiretroviral therapy during primary HIV-1 infection on cell-associated HIV-1 DNA and plasma HIV-1 RNA.

Background: Early initiation of combination antiretroviral therapy (ART) during primary HIV-1 infection may prevent the establishment of large viral reservoirs, possibly resulting in improved control of plasma viraemia rebound after ART cessation.Methods: Levels of cell-associated HIV-1 DNA and plasma HIV-1 RNA were measured longitudinally in 32 acutely and recently infected patients, who started ART <= 120 days after the estimated date of infection, and interrupted ART after 18 months (median) of continuous therapy. Averages of HIV-1 DNA and RNA concentrations present in blood 30-365 days after therapy interruption (median duration 300 days, range 195-358) were compared between patients who started ART <= 60 days after the estimated date of infection (early starters), those who started between 61 and 120 days (later starters), and, for HIV-1 RNA only, with 89 untreated participants of the Swiss HIV Cohort Study with documented sero-conversion and longitudinal measurements collected 90-455 days after the first positive HIV test.Results: In early ART starters, average levels of plasma HIV-1 RNA and cell-associated HIV-1 DNA after treatment interruption were 1 log(10) (P=0.008) and 0.4 log(10) (P=0.03) lower compared with later starters. Average post-treatment plasma HIV-1 RNA levels in early starters were significantly lower, respectively, compared with untreated controls (-1.2 log(10); P<0.0004).Conclusions: Early treatment initiation within 2 months after HIV infection compared with later therapy initiation resulted in reduced levels of plasma viraemia and proviral HIV-1 DNA for >= 1 year after subsequent ART cessation. Plasma HIV-1 RNA levels in early starters were also significantly lower than in untreated controls.

Quality assessment of cardiovascular magnetic resonance in the setting of the European CMR registry: description and validation of standardized criteria.

BACKGROUND: Cardiovascular magnetic resonance (CMR) has become an important diagnostic imaging modality in cardiovascular medicine. However, insufficient image quality may compromise its diagnostic accuracy. We aimed to describe and validate standardized criteria to evaluate a) cine steady-state free precession (SSFP), b) late gadolinium enhancement (LGE), and c) stress first-pass perfusion images. These criteria will serve for quality assessment in the setting of the Euro-CMR registry. METHODS: Thirty-five qualitative criteria were defined (scores 0-3) with lower scores indicating better image quality. In addition, quantitative parameters were measured yielding 2 additional quality criteria, i.e. signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) of non-infarcted myocardium (as a measure of correct signal nulling of healthy myocardium) for LGE and % signal increase during contrast medium first-pass for perfusion images. These qualitative and quantitative criteria were assessed in a total of 90 patients (60 patients scanned at our own institution at 1.5T (n=30) and 3T (n=30) and in 30 patients randomly chosen from the Euro-CMR registry examined at 1.5T). Analyses were performed by 2 SCMR level-3 experts, 1 trained study nurse, and 1 trained medical student. RESULTS: The global quality score was 6.7±4.6 (n=90, mean of 4 observers, maximum possible score 64), range 6.4-6.9 (p=0.76 between observers). It ranged from 4.0-4.3 for 1.5T (p=0.96 between observers), from 5.9-6.9 for 3T (p=0.33 between observers), and from 8.6-10.3 for the Euro-CMR cases (p=0.40 between observers). The inter- (n=4) and intra-observer (n=2) agreement for the global quality score, i.e. the percentage of assignments to the same quality tertile ranged from 80% to 88% and from 90% to 98%, respectively. The agreement for the quantitative assessment for LGE images (scores 0-2 for SNR <2, 2-5, >5, respectively) ranged from 78-84% for the entire population, and 70-93% at 1.5T, 64-88% at 3T, and 72-90% for the Euro-CMR cases. The agreement for perfusion images (scores 0-2 for %SI increase >200%, 100%-200%,<100%, respectively) ranged from 81-91% for the entire population, and 76-100% at 1.5T, 67-96% at 3T, and 62-90% for the Euro-CMR registry cases. The intra-class correlation coefficient for the global quality score was 0.83. CONCLUSIONS: The described criteria for the assessment of CMR image quality are robust with a good inter- and intra-observer agreement. Further research is needed to define the impact of image quality on the diagnostic and prognostic yield of CMR studies.

Patients with AIDS-defining cancers are not universally screened for HIV: a 10-year retrospective analysis of HIV-testing practices in a Swiss university hospital.

OBJECTIVES: Kaposi's sarcoma (KS), invasive cervical carcinoma (ICC) and non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) have been listed as AIDS-defining cancers (ADCs) by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention since 1993. Despite this, HIV screening is not universally mentioned in ADC treatment guidelines. We examined screening practices at a tertiary centre serving a population where HIV seroprevalence is 0.4%. METHODS: Patients with KS, ICC, NHL and Hodgkin lymphoma (HL), treated at Lausanne University Hospital between January 2002 and July 2012, were studied retrospectively. HIV testing was considered part of the oncology work-up if performed between 90 days before and 90 days after the cancer diagnosis date. RESULTS: A total of 880 patients were examined: 10 with KS, 58 with ICC, 672 with NHL and 140 with HL. HIV testing rates were 100, 11, 60 and 59%, and HIV seroprevalence was 60, 1.7, 3.4 and 5%, respectively. Thirty-seven patients (4.2%) were HIV-positive, of whom eight (22%) were diagnosed at oncology work-up. All newly diagnosed patients had CD4 counts < 200 cells/μL and six (75%) had presented to a physician 12-236 weeks previously with conditions warranting HIV testing. CONCLUSIONS: In our institution, only patients with KS were universally screened. Screening rates for other cancers ranged from 11 to 60%. HIV seroprevalence was at least fourfold higher than the population average. As HIV-positive status impacts on cancer patient medical management, HIV screening should be included in oncology guidelines. Further, we recommend that opt-out screening should be adopted in all patients with ADCs and HL.

Incremental growth of the Patagonian Torres del Paine laccolith over 90 k.y.

The Miocene Paine Granite in the Torres del Paine Intrusive Complex, southern Chile, is an extraordinary example of an upper crustal mafic and granitic intrusion. The granite intruded as a series of three sheets, each one underplating the previous sheet along the top of the basal Paine Mafic Complex. High-precision U/Pb geochronology on single zircons using isotope dilution-thermal ionization mass spectrometry yields distinct ages of 12.59 +/- 0.02 Ma and 12.50 +/- 0.02 Ma, respectively, for the first and last sheet of the laccolith. This age relationship is consistent with field observations. The zircon ages define a time frame of 90 +/- 40 k.y. for the emplacement of a >2000-m-thick granite laccollith. These precise U-Pb zircon ages permit identification of the pulses in a 20 k.y. range. The data obtained for the Paine Granite fill the gap between 100 k.y. and 100-1000 yr pulses described in the literature for crustal magma chambers.

5-Azacytidine to Treat Acute Myeloid Leukemia In Elderly or Frail Patients: A Phase II Study (SAKK 30/07).

Background: Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) in the elderly is notoriously difficult to treat and has a low remission rate with very few long term survivors when using standard treatment approaches. Azacytidine, a hypomethylating agent, has been shown to induce remission and prolong survival in patients with myelodysplastic syndromes; studying this approach to patients with AML is therefore warranted. We present results of an ongoing phase II trial treating elderly or frail AML patients with Azacytidine. Methods: AML elderly or frail patients, and therefore unfit for an intensive chemotherapy regimens, with a WHO performance status 3 were considered for this trial. Trial therapy consisted of 100mg/m2 of Azacytidine injected subcutaneously on 5 consecutive days every 28 days up to 6 cycles, stopping at 6 months if no hematological improvement achieved, or earlier in the case of progression or complications. Treatment was continued beyond 6 months in responding patients. Trial therapy was considered uninteresting if the response rate (CR + PR) within 6 months of therapy initiation was 15% or less and promising if 34% or more. Using the exact single-stage phase II design by A'Hern with a 5% significance level and 90% power, 43 patients were required: If 10 or fewer achieved a response within 6 months the trial therapy should not be considered for further investigation in its current format for this indication and patient population. Results: Between September 2008 and January 2010, 45 evaluable patients across 10 Swiss centers were accrued with a median follow-up of 7 months (range: 0 - 13). 27 (60%) were male, median age was 74 (range: 55 - 86) years and 35 (78.8%) had performance status 0-1. Patients had been excluded from more intensive chemotherapy regimens because of age (n = 37) or due to comorbidities or patient refusal (n=8). Five patients had therapy related AML. Patients received a median of 3 (range: 1 - 10) cycles. Treatment was stopped for not achieving a response by the 6th cycle in 2 patients and earlier in 26 patients (for disease progression in 5, toxicity in 3, patient refusal in 2, recurrent infections in 1, and death in 8). Seventeen patients remain on therapy. The median time spent in the hospital was 12 days (1 - 30) in 24/38 patients hospitalized during the first treatment cycle and 13 days (2 - 28) in 15/31 patients hospitalized during subsequent cycles. Adverse events of grade III or higher most frequently reported were constitutional or hematologic, i.e. fatigue in 5, febrile neutropenia in 8, infections in 6, dyspnea in 6, anemia in 3, neutropenia in 12 and thrombocytopenia in 10, hemorrhage in 2 and retinal detachment in 5. Based on available data on 38 patients, CR/CRi or hematologic improvement or stable disease within 6 months of trial registration was observed in a proportion of patients. Final and mature data, determining whether the predefined proportion of responding patients has been reached or not, will be presented at the conference. Up to now there were a total of 26 deaths. Median overall survival time was 5.7 months (95% CI: 3.1, 8.7). Conclusions: The current results of this slightly modified Azacytidine schedule demonstrate a feasible new therapy option for elderly or frail AML patients in an outpatient setting with moderate, mainly hematologic toxicity.

Bortezomib(Velcade (R))-Thalidomide-Dexamethasone (VTD) Is Superior to Thalidomide-Dexamethasone (TD) In Patients with Multiple Myeloma (MM) Progressing or Relapsing After Autologous Transplantation.

Introduction: The Thalidomide-Dexamethasone (TD) regimen has provided encouraging results in relapsed MM. To improve results, bortezomib (Velcade) has been added to the combination in previous phase II studies, the so called VTD regimen. In January 2006, the European Group for Blood and Marrow Transplantation (EBMT) and the Intergroupe Francophone du Myélome (IFM) initiated a prospective, randomized, parallel-group, open-label phase III, multicenter study, comparing VTD (arm A) with TD (arm B) for MM patients progressing or relapsing after autologous transplantation. Patients and Methods: Inclusion criteria: patients in first progression or relapse after at least one autologous transplantation, including those who had received bortezomib or thalidomide before transplant. Exclusion criteria: subjects with neuropathy above grade 1 or non secretory MM. Primary study end point was time to progression (TTP). Secondary end points included safety, response rate, progression-free survival (PFS) and overall survival (OS). Treatment was scheduled as follows: bortezomib 1.3 mg/m2 was given as an i.v bolus on Days 1, 4, 8 and 11 followed by a 10-Day rest period (days 12 to 21) for 8 cycles (6 months) and then on Days 1, 8, 15, 22 followed by a 20-Day rest period (days 23 to 42) for 4 cycles (6 months). In both arms, thalidomide was scheduled at 200 mg/Day orally for one year and dexamethasone 40 mg/Day orally four days every three weeks for one year. Patients reaching remission could proceed to a new stem cell harvest. However, transplantation, either autologous or allogeneic, could only be performed in patients who completed the planned one year treatment period. Response was assessed by EBMT criteria, with additional category of near complete remission (nCR). Adverse events were graded by the NCI-CTCAE, Version 3.0.The trial was based on a group sequential design, with 4 planned interim analyses and one final analysis that allowed stopping for efficacy as well as futility. The overall alpha and power were set equal to 0.025 and 0.90 respectively. The test for decision making was based on the comparison in terms of the ratio of the cause-specific hazards of relapse/progression, estimated in a Cox model stratified on the number of previous autologous transplantations. Relapse/progression cumulative incidence was estimated using the proper nonparametric estimator, the comparison was done by the Gray test. PFS and OS probabilities were estimated by the Kaplan-Meier curves, the comparison was performed by the Log-Rank test. An interim safety analysis was performed when the first hundred patients had been included. The safety committee recommended to continue the trial. Results: As of 1st July 2010, 269 patients had been enrolled in the study, 139 in France (IFM 2005-04 study), 21 in Italy, 38 in Germany, 19 in Switzerland (a SAKK study), 23 in Belgium, 8 in Austria, 8 in the Czech republic, 11 in Hungary, 1 in the UK and 1 in Israel. One hundred and sixty nine patients were males and 100 females; the median age was 61 yrs (range 29-76). One hundred and thirty six patients were randomized to receive VTD and 133 to receive TD. The current analysis is based on 246 patients (124 in arm A, 122 in arm B) included in the second interim analysis, carried out when 134 events were observed. Following this analysis, the trial was stopped because of significant superiority of VTD over TD. The remaining patients were too premature to contribute to the analysis. The number of previous autologous transplants was one in 63 vs 60 and two or more in 61 vs 62 patients in arm A vs B respectively. The median follow-up was 25 months. The median TTP was 20 months vs 15 months respectively in arm A and B, with cumulative incidence of relapse/progression at 2 years equal to 52% (95% CI: 42%-64%) vs 70% (95% CI: 61%-81%) (p=0.0004, Gray test). The same superiority of arm A was also observed when stratifying on the number of previous autologous transplantations. At 2 years, PFS was 39% (95% CI: 30%-51%) vs 23% (95% CI: 16%-34%) (A vs B, p=0.0006, Log-Rank test). OS in the first two years was comparable in the two groups. Conclusion: VTD resulted in significantly longer TTP and PFS in patients relapsing after ASCT. Analysis of response and safety data are on going and results will be presented at the meeting. Protocol EU-DRACT number: 2005-001628-35.

Human chorionic gonadotropin in pregnancy and maternal risk of breast cancer.

Full-term pregnancies are associated with long-term reductions in maternal risk of breast cancer, but the biological determinants of the protection are unknown. Experimental observations suggest that human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), a major hormone of pregnancy, could play a role in this association. A case-control study (242 cases and 450 controls) nested within the Northern Sweden Maternity Cohort included women who had donated a blood sample during the first trimester of a first full-term pregnancy. Total hCG was determined on Immulite 2000 analyzer. Odds ratios (OR) and 95% confidence intervals (CI) were estimated through conditional logistic regression. Maternal breast cancer risk decreased with increasing hCG (upper tertile OR, 0.67; CI, 0.46-0.99), especially for pregnancies before age 25 (upper tertile OR, 0.41; CI, 0.21-0.80). The association diverged according to age at diagnosis: risk was reduced after age 40 (upper tertile OR, 0.60; CI, 0.39-0.91) and seemed to increase before age 40 (upper tertile OR, 1.78; CI, 0.72-4.38). Risk was reduced among those diagnosed 10 years or longer after blood draw (upper tertile OR, 0.60; CI, 0.40-0.90), but not so among those diagnosed within 10 years (upper tertile OR, 4.33; CI, 0.86-21.7). These observations suggest that the association between pregnancy hCG and subsequent maternal risk of breast cancer is modified by age at diagnosis. Although the hormone seems to be a determinant of the reduced risk around or after age 50, it might not confer protection against, or it could even increase the risk of, cancers diagnosed in the years immediately following pregnancy.

Strong time dependence of the 76-gene prognostic signature for node-negative breast cancer patients in the TRANSBIG multicenter independent validation series.

PURPOSE: Recently, a 76-gene prognostic signature able to predict distant metastases in lymph node-negative (N(-)) breast cancer patients was reported. The aims of this study conducted by TRANSBIG were to independently validate these results and to compare the outcome with clinical risk assessment. EXPERIMENTAL DESIGN: Gene expression profiling of frozen samples from 198 N(-) systemically untreated patients was done at the Bordet Institute, blinded to clinical data and independent of Veridex. Genomic risk was defined by Veridex, blinded to clinical data. Survival analyses, done by an independent statistician, were done with the genomic risk and adjusted for the clinical risk, defined by Adjuvant! Online. RESULTS: The actual 5- and 10-year time to distant metastasis were 98% (88-100%) and 94% (83-98%), respectively, for the good profile group and 76% (68-82%) and 73% (65-79%), respectively, for the poor profile group. The actual 5- and 10-year overall survival were 98% (88-100%) and 87% (73-94%), respectively, for the good profile group and 84% (77-89%) and 72% (63-78%), respectively, for the poor profile group. We observed a strong time dependence of this signature, leading to an adjusted hazard ratio of 13.58 (1.85-99.63) and 8.20 (1.10-60.90) at 5 years and 5.11 (1.57-16.67) and 2.55 (1.07-6.10) at 10 years for time to distant metastasis and overall survival, respectively. CONCLUSION: This independent validation confirmed the performance of the 76-gene signature and adds to the growing evidence that gene expression signatures are of clinical relevance, especially for identifying patients at high risk of early distant metastases.

Integrated Analysis of High-Resolution Gene Expression and Copy Number Profiling Identified Biallelic Deletion of CDKN2A/2B Tumor Suppressor Locus As the Most Frequent and Unique Genomic Abnormality in Diffuse Large B-Cell Lymphoma (DLBCL) with Strong Prognostic Value in Both GCB and ABC Subtypes and Not Overcome by a Dose-Intensive Immunochemotherapy Regimen Plus Rituximab. Results of a Prospective GELA Clinical Trial Program

Background and aim of the study: Genomic gains and losses play a crucial role in the development and progression of DLBCL and are closely related to gene expression profiles (GEP), including the germinal center B-cell like (GCB) and activated B-cell like (ABC) cell of origin (COO) molecular signatures. To identify new oncogenes or tumor suppressor genes (TSG) involved in DLBCL pathogenesis and to determine their prognostic values, an integrated analysis of high-resolution gene expression and copy number profiling was performed. Patients and methods: Two hundred and eight adult patients with de novo CD20+ DLBCL enrolled in the prospective multicentric randomized LNH-03 GELA trials (LNH03-1B, -2B, -3B, 39B, -5B, -6B, -7B) with available frozen tumour samples, centralized reviewing and adequate DNA/RNA quality were selected. 116 patients were treated by Rituximab(R)-CHOP/R-miniCHOP and 92 patients were treated by the high dose (R)-ACVBP regimen dedicated to patients younger than 60 years (y) in frontline. Tumour samples were simultaneously analysed by high resolution comparative genomic hybridization (CGH, Agilent, 144K) and gene expression arrays (Affymetrix, U133+2). Minimal common regions (MCR), as defined by segments that affect the same chromosomal region in different cases, were delineated. Gene expression and MCR data sets were merged using Gene expression and dosage integrator algorithm (GEDI, Lenz et al. PNAS 2008) to identify new potential driver genes. Results: A total of 1363 recurrent (defined by a penetrance > 5%) MCRs within the DLBCL data set, ranging in size from 386 bp, affecting a single gene, to more than 24 Mb were identified by CGH. Of these MCRs, 756 (55%) showed a significant association with gene expression: 396 (59%) gains, 354 (52%) single-copy deletions, and 6 (67%) homozygous deletions. By this integrated approach, in addition to previously reported genes (CDKN2A/2B, PTEN, DLEU2, TNFAIP3, B2M, CD58, TNFRSF14, FOXP1, REL...), several genes targeted by gene copy abnormalities with a dosage effect and potential physiopathological impact were identified, including genes with TSG activity involved in cell cycle (HACE1, CDKN2C) immune response (CD68, CD177, CD70, TNFSF9, IRAK2), DNA integrity (XRCC2, BRCA1, NCOR1, NF1, FHIT) or oncogenic functions (CD79b, PTPRT, MALT1, AUTS2, MCL1, PTTG1...) with distinct distribution according to COO signature. The CDKN2A/2B tumor suppressor locus (9p21) was deleted homozygously in 27% of cases and hemizygously in 9% of cases. Biallelic loss was observed in 49% of ABC DLBCL and in 10% of GCB DLBCL. This deletion was strongly correlated to age and associated to a limited number of additional genetic abnormalities including trisomy 3, 18 and short gains/losses of Chr. 1, 2, 19 regions (FDR < 0.01), allowing to identify genes that may have synergistic effects with CDKN2A/2B inactivation. With a median follow-up of 42.9 months, only CDKN2A/2B biallelic deletion strongly correlates (FDR p.value < 0.01) to a poor outcome in the entire cohort (4y PFS = 44% [32-61] respectively vs. 74% [66-82] for patients in germline configuration; 4y OS = 53% [39-72] vs 83% [76-90]). In a Cox proportional hazard prediction of the PFS, CDKN2A/2B deletion remains predictive (HR = 1.9 [1.1-3.2], p = 0.02) when combined with IPI (HR = 2.4 [1.4-4.1], p = 0.001) and GCB status (HR = 1.3 [0.8-2.3], p = 0.31). This difference remains predictive in the subgroup of patients treated by R-CHOP (4y PFS = 43% [29-63] vs. 66% [55-78], p=0.02), in patients treated by R-ACVBP (4y PFS = 49% [28-84] vs. 83% [74-92], p=0.003), and in GCB (4y PFS = 50% [27-93] vs. 81% [73-90], p=0.02), or ABC/unclassified (5y PFS = 42% [28-61] vs. 67% [55-82] p = 0.009) molecular subtypes (Figure 1). Conclusion: We report for the first time an integrated genetic analysis of a large cohort of DLBCL patients included in a prospective multicentric clinical trial program allowing identifying new potential driver genes with pathogenic impact. However CDKN2A/2B deletion constitutes the strongest and unique prognostic factor of chemoresistance to R-CHOP, regardless the COO signature, which is not overcome by a more intensified immunochemotherapy. Patients displaying this frequent genomic abnormality warrant new and dedicated therapeutic approaches.

Effect of tibial tray inclination on the femoro-tibial contact pattern of a mobile total knee arthroplasty

Introduction: The posterior inclination of the tibial component is an important factor that can affect the success of total knee arthroplasty. It can reduce the posterior impingement and thus increase the range of flexion, but it may also induce instability in flexion, anterior impingement between the polyethylene of postero-stabilizing knee prosthesis, and anterior conflict with the cortical bone and the stem. Although the problem is identified, there is still a debate on the ideal inclination angle and the surgical technique to avoid an excessive posterior inclination. The aim of this study was to predict the effect of a posterior inclination of the tibial component on the contact pattern on the tibial insert, using a numerical musculoskeletal model of the knee joint. Methods: A 3D finite element model of the knee joint was developed to simulate an active and loaded squat movement after total knee arthroplasty. Flexion was actively controlled by the quadriceps muscle and muscle activations were estimated from EMG data and were synchronized by a feedback algorithm. Two inclinations of the tibial tray were considered: a posterior inclination of 0° or 10°. During the entire range of flexion, the following quantities were calculated: the tibiofemoral and patello-femoral contact force, and the contact pattern on polyethylene insert. The antero-posterior displacement of the contact pattern was also measured. Abaqus 6.7 was used for all analyses. Results: The tibio-femoral and patello-femoral contact forces increased during flexion and reached respectively 4 and 7 BW (bodyweight) at 90° of flexion. They were slightly affected by the inclination of the tibial tray. Without posterior inclination, the contact pattern on the tibial insert remained centered. The contact pressure was lower than 5 MPa below 60° of flexion, but exceeded 20 MPa at 90° of flexion. The posterior inclination displaced the contact point posteriorly by 2 to 4 mm. Conclusion: The inclination of the tibial tray displaced the contactpattern towards the posterior border of the tibial insert. However, even for 10° of inclination, the contact center remained far from the posterior border (12 mm). There was no instability predicted for this movement.

Effects of thyroid hormones and aldosterone on mineralocorticoid binding sites in the toad bladder.

In the urinary bladder of the toad Bufo marinus triiodothyronine selectively inhibits the late effect of aldosterone on Na+ transport. We have investigated whether T3 might mediate its antimineralocorticoid action by controlling: i) the level of aldosterone binding sites in the soluble (cytosolic) pool isolated from tissues treated with T3 (60 nM) for up to 20 hr of incubation; ii) the kinetics of uptake of 3H-aldosterone into cytoplasmic and nuclear fractions after 2 or 20 hr of exposure to T3. The number and the affinity of Type I (high affinity, low capacity) and Type II (low affinity, high capacity) cytosolic binding sites (measured at 0 degrees C) did not vary significantly after 18 hr of exposure to T3, while aldosterone-dependent Na+ transport was significantly inhibited. In addition, T3 did not modify the kinetics of uptake (90 min) of 3H-aldosterone into cytoplasmic and nuclear fractions of toad bladder incubated in vitro at 25 degrees C. By contrast, aldosterone itself was able to down-regulate its cytosolic and nuclear binding sites after an 18-hr exposure to the steroid hormone (10 or 80 nM). T3 slightly (20%) but significantly potentiated the down regulation of nuclear binding sites. In conclusion, T3 does not appear to have major effects on the regulation of the aldosterone receptor, which could explain in a simple manner its antimineralocorticoid action.