Chronic rejection of allogenic dermal grafts in 73 % TBSA burn patient

Rationale: Allogenic grafts are an excellent way to temporarily cover a wound. It prevents the loss of electrolytes and water, reduces the risk of infection and diminishes pain. Another advantage of the allograft is in circumventing problems such as the morbidity of skin graft donor sites. We present here the case of a patient grafted in 1991 with cultured epidermal autografts (CEA) and allogenic skin transplants on his legs, outlining the risks and potential long-term complications. Methods: The 40-year-old male patient was treated with allogenic Split Thickness Skin Graft (STSG) transplantations, CEA and Cyclosporine-A therapy. Allogenic STSG for lower extremities were harvested from a female HIV-negative organ donor. They were transplanted, de-epithelialized and subsequently covered with CEAs. Cyclosporine-A was administered systemically from the first day following transplantation until three weeks after the last CEAs were placed on the allogenic dermis. Results: Immediate results showed a 90% successful grafting under cyclosporine therapy. However, some lesions were still present 16 months later. The skin was hard with little or no elasticity. Five years after the transplantation there were no more lesions. However, a 10-year follow-up showed new ulcers on both lower extremities. All the skin of the right leg was removed and replaced by STSG from the patient's back. Postoperative results were excellent with a 100% graft take. The anatomopathology showed dermo-hypodermic tissue with fibrosis of the dermis, vasculopathy and chronic ulcers compatible with chronic rejection. Conclusion: While early functional results of the allografts may seem encouraging, their long-term evolution remains uncertain and, in this case, presents complications. The apparent antigenic effect of the dermal tissue may be controlled with long-term immunosuppression which may cause important secondary effects. Even with such treatments, 15 years after organ transplantation, about 35% of a transplant is no longer functional. It is therefore important to take these long-term observations into consideration when treating sensitive areas such as hands or a face.

Multicopy suppression of a gacA mutation by the infC operon in Pseudomonas fluorescens CHA0: competition with the global translational regulator RsmA.

The gacA gene of the biocontrol strain Pseudomonas fluorescens CHA0 codes for a response regulator which, together with the sensor kinase GacS (=LemA), is required for the production of exoenzymes and secondary metabolites involved in biocontrol, including hydrogen cyanide (HCN). A gacA multicopy suppressor was isolated from a cosmid library of strain CHA0 and identified as the infC-rpmI-rplT operon, which encodes the translation initiation factor IF3 and the ribosomal proteins L35 and L20. The efficiency of suppression was about 30%, as determined by the use of a GacA-controlled reporter construct, i.e. a translational hcnA'-'lacZ fusion. Overexpression of the rsmA gene (coding for a global translational repressor) reversed the suppressive effect of the amplified infC operon. This finding suggests that some product(s) of the infC operon can compete with RsmA at the level of translation in P. fluorescens CHA0 and that important biocontrol traits can be regulated at this level.

Congenital diaphragmatic hernia: evaluation of prenatal diagnosis in 20 European regions.

OBJECTIVE: To evaluate prenatal diagnosis of congenital diaphragmatic hernia by ultrasound in well-defined European populations. DESIGN: Data from 20 registries of congenital malformations in 12 European countries were included. The prenatal ultrasound screening programs in the countries ranged from no routine screening to three ultrasound investigations per patient being routinely performed. RESULTS: There were 187 cases with congenital diaphragmatic hernia, with an overall prenatal detection rate of 59% (110/187). There was considerable variation in prenatal detection rate between regions. There was a significant difference in the detection rate of isolated congenital diaphragmatic hernia (59/116, 51%) compared with congenital diaphragmatic hernia associated with multiple malformations, karyotype anomalies or syndromes (51/71, 72%) (P = 0.01). Termination of pregnancy was performed in 39 cases (21%) of which 14 cases were isolated congenital diaphragmatic hernia. Mean gestational age at discovery was 24.2 weeks (range, 11-38 weeks). CONCLUSIONS: The overall prenatal detection rate of congenital diaphragmatic hernia is high (59%) but varies significantly between European regions. The gestational age at discovery was greater than 24 weeks in half of the prenatally diagnosed cases.

Risk factors of stroke mortality in the African region: a cohort study

Background: Population-based cohort studies of risk factors of stroke are scarce in developing countries and none has been done in the African region. We conducted a longitudinal study in the Seychelles (Indian Ocean, east of Kenya), a middle-income island state where the majority of the population is of African descent. Such data in Africa are important for international comparison and for advocacy in the region. Methods: Three examination surveys of cardiovascular risk factors were performed in independent samples representative of the general population aged 25-64 in 1989, 1994 and 2004 (n=1081, 1067, and 1255, respectively). Baseline risk factors data were linked with cause-specific mortality from vital statistics up to May 2007 (all deaths are medically certified in the Seychelles and kept in an electronic database). We considered stroke (any type) as a cause of death if the diagnosis was reported in any of the 4 fields in the death certificates for underlying and concomitant causes of death. Results. Among the 2479 persons aged 35-64 at baseline, 280 died including 56 with stroke during follow up (maximum: 18.2 years; mean: 10.2 years). In this age range, age-adjusted mortality rates (/100'000/year) were 969 for all cause and 187 for stroke; age-adjusted prevalence of high blood pressure (≥140/90 mmHg) was 48%. In multivariate Cox survival time regression, stroke mortality was increased by 18% and 35% for a 10-mmHg increase in systolic, respectively diastolic BP (p<0.001). Stroke mortality was also associated with age, smoking ≥5 cigarettes vs. no smoking (HR: 2.4; 95% CI: 1.2-4.8) and diabetes (HR: 1.9; 1.02-3.6) but not with sex, LDL-cholesterol intake, alcohol intake and professional occupation. Conclusion. This first population-based cohort study in the African region demonstrates high mortality rates from stroke in middle-aged adults and confirms associations with high BP and other risk factors. This emphasizes the importance of reducing BP and other modifiable risk factors in high risk individuals and in the general population as a main strategy to reduce the burden of stroke.

Bilateral olfactory sensory input enhances chemotaxis behavior.

Neural comparisons of bilateral sensory inputs are essential for visual depth perception and accurate localization of sounds in space. All animals, from single-cell prokaryotes to humans, orient themselves in response to environmental chemical stimuli, but the contribution of spatial integration of neural activity in olfaction remains unclear. We investigated this problem in Drosophila melanogaster larvae. Using high-resolution behavioral analysis, we studied the chemotaxis behavior of larvae with a single functional olfactory neuron on either the left or right side of the head, allowing us to examine unilateral or bilateral olfactory input. We developed new spectroscopic methods to create stable odorant gradients in which odor concentrations were experimentally measured. In these controlled environments, we observed that a single functional neuron provided sufficient information to permit larval chemotaxis. We found additional evidence that the overall accuracy of navigation is enhanced by the increase in the signal-to-noise ratio conferred by bilateral sensory input.

A tailored approach for the treatment of indirect inguinal hernia in adults--an old problem revisited.

A patent processus vaginalis peritonei (PPV) presents typically as an indirect hernia with an intact inguinal canal floor during childhood. Little is known however about PPV in adults and its best treatment. A cohort study included all consecutive patients admitted for ambulatory open hernia repair. In patients with a PPV, demographics, hernia characteristics, and outcome were prospectively assessed. Annulorrhaphy was the treatment of choice in patients with an internal inguinal ring diameter of < 30 mm. Between 1998 and 2006, 92 PPVs (two bilateral) were diagnosed in 676 open hernia repairs (incidence of 14%). Eighty nine of the 90 patients were males, the median age was 34 years (range: 17-85). A PPV was right-sided in 67% and partially obliterated in 66%. Forty-one patients had an annulorrhaphy and 51 patients had a tension-free mesh repair. The median operation time was significantly shorter in the annulorrhaphy group (38 vs. 48 min, P <.0001). In a median follow-up period of 56 months (27-128), both groups did not differ concerning recurrence (1/41 vs. 2/51), chronic pain (3/41 vs. 4/51), and hypoesthesia (5/41 vs. 9/51). There was however a clear trend to less neuropathic symptoms in favor of annulorrhaphy (0/41 vs. 5/51, P < 0.066). PPV occurs in 14% of adults undergoing hernia repair. In selected patients, annulorrhaphy takes less time and is associated with equally low recurrence but less potential for neuropathic symptoms.

T helper 1 (Th1) and Th2 characteristics start to develop during T cell priming and are associated with an immediate ability to induce immunoglobulin class switching.

The respective production of specific immunoglobulin (Ig)G2a or IgG1 within 5 d of primary immunization with Swiss type mouse mammary tumor virus [MMTV(SW)] or haptenated protein provides a model for the development of T helper 1 (Th1) and Th2 responses. The antibody-producing cells arise from cognate T cell B cell interaction, revealed by the respective induction of Cgamma2a and Cgamma1 switch transcript production, on the third day after immunization. T cell proliferation and upregulation of mRNA for interferon gamma in response to MMTV(SW) and interleukin 4 in response to haptenated protein also starts during this day. It follows that there is minimal delay in these responses between T cell priming and the onset of cognate interaction between T and B cells leading to class switching and exponential growth. The Th1 or Th2 profile is at least partially established at the time of the first cognate T cell interaction with B cells in the T zone. The addition of killed Bordetella pertussis to the hapten-protein induces nonhapten-specific IgG2a and IgG1 plasma cells, whereas the anti-hapten response continues to be IgG1 dominated. This indicates that a Th2 response to hapten-protein can proceed in a node where there is substantial Th1 activity.

Sleep disorders in boys with Duchenne muscular dystrophy

Introduction La dystrophie musculaire de Duchenne (DMD) est une myopathie progressive liée au chromosome X qui atteint environ un garçon sur 3500. Des troubles du sommeil (TDS) sont fréquemment rapportés par ces patients Les études effectuées à ce jour se sont essentiellement concentrées sur les troubles respiratoires liés au sommeil. Les TDS débutent toutefois fréquemment avant l'installation d'un trouble ventilatoire nocturne et de nombreux autres facteurs peuvent en être la cause. Objectif L'objectif de cette étude est d'évaluer la fréquence des TDS chez les garçons avec une DMD et d'en identifier les facteurs de risque. Méthode II s'agit d'une étude transversale effectuée par questionnaire postal adressé aux parents de tout garçon âgé de 4-18 ans avec une DMD, suivi dans deux centres tertiaires de réhabilitation pédiatrique (Lausanne et Dublin). Les TDS sont évalués à l'aide de la 'Sleep Disturbance Scale for Children' (SDSC), validée sur 1157 enfants sains. Elle permet d'obtenir un score total et des scores pour six facteurs représentant les TDS les plus fréquents (troubles de l'endormissement et du maintien du sommeil (TEMS), éveil nocturne-cauchemars, transition veille-sommeil, somnolence diurne excessive, troubles respiratoires associés au sommeil (TRS), hyperhidrose du sommeil). Un T- score supérieur à 70 (>2DS) est considéré comme pathologique. Les associations potentielles entre des scores pathologiques et des facteurs individuels (âge, mobilité diurne et nocturne, douleur), thérapeutiques (orthèses nocturnes, ventilation non-invasive, médication) et environnementaux (facteurs socio-familiaux) sont évaluées à l'aide d'analyses univariées (χ2) et de régressions logistiques ascendantes. Résultats Seize garçons sur 63, soit 25.4%, présentent un score total pathologique en comparaison au 3% attendus dans la population générale. Les TEMS (29.7%), les TRS (15.6%) et l'hyperhidrose du sommeil (14.3%) sont les TDS les plus prévalent. Le besoin d'être mobilisé la nuit par un tiers (OR=9.4; 95%CI: 2.2-40.7; p=0.003) et être l'enfant d'une famille monoparentale (OR=7.2; 95%CI: 1.5-35.1; p=0.015) sont des facteurs de risque indépendants pour un score total pathologique. Le besoin d'être mobilisé la nuit par un tiers (OR=18.0; 95%CI: 2.9¬110.6; p=0.002), le traitement par corticostéroïdes (OR=7.7; 95%CI: 1.4-44.0; p-0.021) et être l'enfant d'une famille monoparentale (OR=7.0; 95%CI: 1.3-38.4; p=0.025) sont des facteurs de risque indépendants pour un TEMS. Discussion Cette étude montre une prévalence élevée des TDS chez les garçons avec une DMD (25% contre 3% attendus dans la population générale). Le besoin d'être mobilisé la nuit par un tiers est identifié comme un facteur de risque important pour un score total pathologique et un TEMS. Il reflète vraisemblablement un degré d'atteinte motrice tel qu'il limite les mouvements spontanés et les adaptations posturales du sommeil, ayant pour conséquence une diminution importante de la qualité du sommeil. Les enfants vivant dans un foyer monoparental présentent plus fréquemment un score total pathologique et des TEMS, possiblement en lien avec un stress psychologique plus important dans ces familles. Le traitement par corticostéroïdes est identifié comme facteur de risque pour un TEMS. Une adaptation du schéma ou du dosage permet généralement de limiter cet effet secondaire. Si nécessaire, un traitement par Mélatonine peut être instauré. Aucune association n'a pu être mise en évidence entre les facteurs analysés et les TRS, possiblement en raison du petit nombre de garçons ayant rapporté de tels symptômes et du fait que certains symptômes d'hypoventilation nocturne ne sont pas évalués par la SDSC. Par ailleurs, la valeur prédictive de l'anamnèse, comme celle des fonctions pulmonaires diurnes, est connue pour être limitée, raison pour laquelle une oxy-capnométrie est effectuée de routine en dessous d'une capacité vitale forcée de 50%. Elle permet, si nécessaire, l'instauration précoce d'une ventilation non-invasive, limitant ainsi vraisemblablement l'impact de ('hypoventilation nocturne sur la qualité du sommeil dans notre population. Plusieurs limitations sont à évoquer. Le petit nombre de patients ne permet pas d'exclure d'autres associations potentielles. La nature transversale de l'étude augmente le risque de causalité inverse. Cette étude n'inclut pas de mesure quantitative du sommeil. Les questionnaires adressés aux parents ont toutefois pu être démontrés comme fiables hormis pour les TRS. Un biais de non-réponse ne peut pas être totalement exclu, bien que le taux de réponse soit élevé (86,5%) et qu'il n'y ait pas de différence significative entre les populations de répondeurs et non-répondeurs. Conclusion La prévalence des TDS est élevée chez les garçons avec une DMD et leurs causes sont multiples. Les facteurs de risques sont physiques (immobilité nocturne), pharmacologiques (corticothérapie) et environnementaux (famille monoparentale). Compte tenu de son impact sur la qualité de vie, l'évaluation du sommeil doit être systématique en consultation et ne pas se limiter aux seuls troubles ventilatoires nocturnes.

Quorum-sensing-negative (lasR) mutants of Pseudomonas aeruginosa avoid cell lysis and death.

In Pseudomonas aeruginosa, N-acylhomoserine lactone signals regulate the expression of several hundreds of genes, via the transcriptional regulator LasR and, in part, also via the subordinate regulator RhlR. This regulatory network termed quorum sensing contributes to the virulence of P. aeruginosa as a pathogen. The fact that two supposed PAO1 wild-type strains from strain collections were found to be defective for LasR function because of independent point mutations in the lasR gene led to the hypothesis that loss of quorum sensing might confer a selective advantage on P. aeruginosa under certain environmental conditions. A convenient plate assay for LasR function was devised, based on the observation that lasR mutants did not grow on adenosine as the sole carbon source because a key degradative enzyme, nucleoside hydrolase (Nuh), is positively controlled by LasR. The wild-type PAO1 and lasR mutants showed similar growth rates when incubated in nutrient yeast broth at pH 6.8 and 37 degrees C with good aeration. However, after termination of growth during 30 to 54 h of incubation, when the pH rose to > or = 9, the lasR mutants were significantly more resistant to cell lysis and death than was the wild type. As a consequence, the lasR mutant-to-wild-type ratio increased about 10-fold in mixed cultures incubated for 54 h. In a PAO1 culture, five consecutive cycles of 48 h of incubation sufficed to enrich for about 10% of spontaneous mutants with a Nuh(-) phenotype, and five of these mutants, which were functionally complemented by lasR(+), had mutations in lasR. The observation that, in buffered nutrient yeast broth, the wild type and lasR mutants exhibited similar low tendencies to undergo cell lysis and death suggests that alkaline stress may be a critical factor providing a selective survival advantage to lasR mutants.

Ly49D-mediated ITAM signaling in immature thymocytes impairs development by bypassing the pre-TCR checkpoint.

Activating and inhibitory NK receptors regulate the development and effector functions of NK cells via their ITAM and ITIM motifs, which recruit protein tyrosine kinases and phosphatases, respectively. In the T cell lineage, inhibitory Ly49 receptors are expressed by a subset of activated T cells and by CD1d-restricted NKT cells, but virtually no expression of activating Ly49 receptors is observed. Using mice transgenic for the activating receptor Ly49D and its associated ITAM signaling DAP12 chain, we show in this article that Ly49D-mediated ITAM signaling in immature thymocytes impairs development due to a block in maturation from the double negative (DN) to double positive (DP) stages. A large proportion of Ly49D/DAP12 transgenic thymocytes were able to bypass the pre-TCR checkpoint at the DN3 stage, leading to the appearance of unusual populations of DN4 and DP cells that lacked expression of intracellular (ic) TCRβ-chain. High levels of CD5 were expressed on ic TCRβ(-) DN and DP thymocytes from Ly49D/DAP12 transgenic mice, further suggesting that Ly49D-mediated ITAM signaling mimics physiological ITAM signaling via the pre-TCR. We also observed unusual ic TCRβ(-) single positive thymocytes with an immature CD24(high) phenotype that were not found in the periphery. Importantly, thymocyte development was completely rescued by expression of an Ly49A transgene in Ly49D/DAP12 transgenic mice, indicating that Ly49A-mediated ITIM signaling can fully counteract ITAM signaling via Ly49D/DAP12. Collectively, our data indicate that inappropriate ITAM signaling by activating NK receptors on immature thymocytes can subvert T cell development by bypassing the pre-TCR checkpoint.

Changes in protein turnover and resting energy expenditure after treatment of malaria in Gambian children.

To explore the changes in resting energy expenditure (REE) and whole body protein turnover induced by malaria, 23 children aged 6 to 14 y (23.9 +/- 1.0 kg, 1.3 +/- 0.02 m) were studied on three separate days after treatment (d 1, d 2, and 15 d later). REE was assessed by indirect calorimetry (hood), whereas whole body protein turnover was estimated using a single dose of [15N]glycine administered p.o. by measuring the isotopic enrichment of [15N]ammonia in urine over 12 h. Within the first 3.5 h after treatment, the body temperature dropped from 39.8 +/- 0.1 to 37.8 +/- 0.1 degrees C (p < 0.0001), and REE followed the same pattern, decreasing rapidly from 223 +/- 6 to 187 +/- 4 kJ/kg/d (p < 0.0001). Whole body protein synthesis and breakdown were significantly higher during the 1st day (5.65 +/- 0.38 and 6.21 +/- 0.43 g/kg/d, respectively) than at d 15 (2.95 +/- 0.17 and 2.77 +/- 0.2 g/kg/d). It is concluded that Gambian children suffering from an acute episode of malaria have an increased REE averaging 37% of the control value (d 15) and that this was associated with a substantial increase (by a factor of 2) in whole body protein turnover. A rapid normalization of the hypermetabolism and protein hypercatabolism states after treatment was observed.

MRI monitoring of focal cerebral ischemia in peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor (PPAR)-deficient mice.

Peroxisome proliferator-activated receptors (PPARs) are a potential target for neuroprotection in focal ischemic stroke. These nuclear receptors have major effects in lipid metabolism, but they are also involved in inflammatory processes. Three PPAR isotypes have been identified: alpha, beta (or delta) and gamma. The development of PPAR transgenic mice offers a promising tool for prospective therapeutic studies. This study used MRI to assess the role of PPARalpha and PPARbeta in the development of stroke. Permanent middle cerebral artery occlusion induced focal ischemia in wild-type, PPARalpha-null mice and PPARbeta-null mice. T(2)-weighted MRI was performed with a 7 T MRI scan on day 0, 1, 3, 7 and 14 to monitor lesion growth in the various genotypes. General Linear Model statistical analysis found a significant difference in lesion volume between wild-type and PPAR-null mice for both alpha and beta isotypes. These data validate high-resolution MRI for monitoring cerebral ischemic lesions, and confirm the neuroprotective role of PPARalpha and PPARbeta in the brain.

Developmentally regulated extinction of Ly-49 receptor expression permits maturation and selection of NK1.1+ T cells.

Clonally distributed inhibitory receptors negatively regulate natural killer (NK) cell function via specific interactions with allelic forms of major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class I molecules. In the mouse, the Ly-49 family of inhibitory receptors is found not only on NK cells but also on a minor (NK1.1+) T cell subset. Using Ly-49 transgenic mice, we show here that the development of NK1.1+ T cells, in contrast to NK or conventional T cells, is impaired when their Ly-49 receptors engage self-MHC class I molecules. Impaired NK1.1+ T cell development in transgenic mice is associated with a failure to select the appropriate CD1-reactive T cell receptor repertoire. In normal mice, NK1.1+ T cell maturation is accompanied by extinction of Ly-49 receptor expression. Collectively, our data imply that developmentally regulated extinction of inhibitory MHC-specific receptors is required for normal NK1.1+ T cell maturation and selection.

La médecine ambulatoire youth-friendly. [Youth-friendly outpatient care].

Ambulatory pediatric and family medicine takes care of adolescent patients, most of whom regularly consult a physician. Consultations with young people involve issues specifically related to their age. Regarding health care systems and physicians, adolescents' expectations vary from those of adults, not so much in terms of the issues discussed but in terms of the priorities that they give to them. Confidential interviews are not always proposed but are highly appreciated, as are certain personal qualities on the part of the caregivers such as honesty, respect, and friendliness. Finally, easy access to care together with the continuity of care are essential. Prevention of risk behaviors by screening and health education is clearly insufficient. This issue could be approached during the consultation through a psychosocial history. This is a good opportunity to discuss sensitive issues that adolescents seldom bring up themselves. More systematic prevention would probably decrease youth morbidity and mortality, which are both closely related to risk behaviors. To meet these expectations and special health care needs, the World Health Organization has developed the concept of youth-friendly health services. This concept can be applied in both a specialized adolescence center and a pediatric or family practice. Youth-friendly services are still rarely evaluated but seem to bring a clear benefit in terms of patient satisfaction and access to care.