Prevention of vitamin K deficiency bleeding with three oral mixed micellar phylloquinone doses: results of a 6-year (2005-2011) surveillance in Switzerland.

In 2003, the Swiss guidelines to prevent vitamin K deficiency bleeding (VKDB) were adapted. As two oral doses (2 mg, hour/day 4) of mixed micellar VK preparation had failed to abolish late VKDB, a third dose (week 4) was introduced. This report summarizes the new guidelines acceptance by Swiss pediatricians and the results of a prospective 6-year surveillance to study their influence on the incidence of VKDB. The new guidelines acceptance by Swiss pediatricians was evaluated by a questionnaire sent to all pediatricians of the Swiss Society of Paediatrics. With the help of the Swiss Paediatric Surveillance Unit, the incidence of VKDB was monitored prospectively from July 1, 2005 until June 30, 2011. Over a 6-year period (458,184 live births), there was one case of early and four cases of late VKDB. Overall incidence was 1.09/10(5) (95 % confidence intervals (CI) 0.4-2.6). Late VKDB incidence was 0.87/10(5) (95 % CI 0.24-2.24). All four infants with late VKDB had an undiagnosed cholestasis at the time of bleeding; parents of 3/4 had refused VK prophylaxis, and in 1/4, the third VK dose had been forgotten. Compared with historical control who had received only two oral doses of mixed micellar VK (18 cases for 475,372 live births), the incidence of late VKDB was significantly lower with three oral doses (Chi(2),Yates correction, P = 0.007). CONCLUSION: VKDB prophylaxis with 3 × 2 mg oral doses of mixed micellar VK seems to prevent adequately infants from VKDB. The main risk factors for VKDB in breast-fed infants are parental VK prophylaxis refusal or an unknown cholestasis.

The role of laparoscopic biopsies in lumbar spondylodiscitis.

The infection of an intervertebral disk is a serious condition. The diagnosis often is elusive and difficult to make. It is imperative to have appropriate microbiologic specimens before the initiation of treatment. We report the case of a 51-year-old woman with lumbar spondylodiscitis caused by infection after the placement of an epidural catheter for postoperative analgesia. A spinal magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan confirmed the diagnosis, but computed tomography (CT)-guided fine-needle biopsy did not yield adequate material for a microbiologic diagnosis. Laparoscopic biopsies of the involved disk provided good specimens and a diagnosis of Propionibacterium acnes infection. We believe that this minimally invasive procedure should be performed when CT-guided fine-needle biopsy fails to yield a microbiologic diagnosis in spondylodiscitis.

Impact of bedside open lung biopsies on the management of mechanically ventilated immunocompromised patients with acute respiratory distress syndrome of unknown etiology.

BACKGROUND: Open lung biopsy (OLB) is helpful in the management of patients with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) of unknown etiology. We determine the impact of surgical lung biopsies performed at the bedside on the management of patients with ARDS. METHODS: We reviewed all consecutive cases of patients with ARDS who underwent a surgical OLB at the bedside in a medical intensive care unit between 1993 and 2005. RESULTS: Biopsies were performed in 19 patients mechanically ventilated for ARDS of unknown etiology despite extensive diagnostic process and empirical therapeutic trials. Among them, 17 (89%) were immunocompromised and 10 patients experienced hematological malignancies. Surgical biopsies were obtained after a median (25%-75%) mechanical ventilation of 5 (2-11) days; mean (+/-SD) Pao(2)/Fio(2) ratio was 119.3 (+/-34.2) mm Hg. Histologic diagnoses were obtained in all cases and were specific in 13 patients (68%), including 9 (47%) not previously suspected. Immediate complications (26%) were local (pneumothorax, minimal bleeding) without general or respiratory consequences. The biopsy resulted in major changes in management in 17 patients (89%). It contributed to a decision to limit care in 12 of 17 patients who died. CONCLUSION: Our data confirm that surgical OLB may have an important impact on the management of patients with ARDS of unknown etiology after extensive diagnostic process. The procedure can be performed at the bedside, is safe, and has a high diagnostic yield leading to major changes in management, including withdrawal of vital support, in the majority of patients.

Typing Candida albicans oral isolates from human immunodeficiency virus-infected patients by multilocus enzyme electrophoresis and DNA fingerprinting.

A total of 189 Candida albicans isolates have been typed by multilocus enzyme electrophoresis. The results obtained confirm the clonal mode of reproduction of C. albicans. The C. albicans populations found in the oropharynx of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected patients, in the oropharynx of healthy carriers, or in association with invasive candidiasis could not be distinguished. No clone or group of clones could be associated with the appearance of clinical disorders or with a reduced in vitro susceptibility to the antifungal agent fluconazole. Multiple and sequential oral isolates from 24 HIV-infected patients were also typed by restriction enzyme analysis with the enzymes EcoRI and HinfI and by use of the Ca3 repetitive probe. The results obtained by the combination of all three typing methods show that all but one patient each carried a unique major C. albicans clone in their oropharynx. The 21 patients with sequential isolates had the same C. albicans clones in their throats during recurrent oropharyngeal candidiasis episodes, independently of clinical status or of changes of in vitro susceptibility to fluconazole. Finally, several isolates of the same C. albicans clone found simultaneously in the oropharynx of a patient may present different levels of susceptibility to fluconazole.

Disposition of oral valganciclovir during continuous renal replacement therapy in two lung transplant recipients

Background: Oral valganciclovir (VGC) is hydrolysed into active ganciclovir (GCV) which is eliminated in the kidney by filtration and secretion. VGC dosage has to be adapted in renal failure with continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT), a condition sometimes encountered early after solid organ transplantation. This investigation aimed to determine whether VGC 450 mg every 48 hours provides appropriate GCV exposure for cytomegalovirus (CMV) prophylaxis during CRRT. Methods: GCV pharmacokinetics were extensively studied during CRRT in two lung transplant recipients with acute renal failure receiving VGC 450 mg every 48 hours trough a nasogastric tube. In vitro experiments using blank whole blood spiked with GCV further investigated exchanges between plasma and erythrocytes. Results: GCV disposition was characterised by an area under the curve (AUC) of 98.0 and 55.4 mg h/L, resulting in trough concentrations of 0.7 and 0.2 mg/L, an apparent total body clearance of 3.3 and 5.8 L/h, a terminal half-life of 16.9 and 14.1 h, and an apparent volume of distribution of 60.3 and 104.9 L. The observed sieving coefficient (filtrate/plasma) was 1.05 and 0.96, and the hemofiltration clearance 3.3 and 3.1 L/h, respectively. High sieving values could be explained by an efflux of GCV from erythrocytes. In vitro experiments confirmed that erythrocytes are loaded with significant GCV amount and release it quickly into plasma, thus contributing to the apparent efficacy of hemofiltration. Conclusion: These results indicate that a VGC dosage of 450 mg every 48 hours was adequate for CMV prophylaxis during CRRT, providing GCV levels similar to those reported using 900 mg qd in transplant recipients with normal renal function.

CD34/QBEND10 immunostaining in bone marrow biopsies: an additional parameter for the diagnosis and classification of myelodysplastic syndromes.

CD34/QBEND10 immunostaining has been assessed in 150 bone marrow biopsies (BMB) including 91 myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS), 16 MDS-related AML, 25 reactive BMB, and 18 cases where RA could neither be established nor ruled out. All cases were reviewed and classified according to the clinical and morphological FAB criteria. The percentage of CD34-positive (CD34 +) hematopoietic cells and the number of clusters of CD34+ cells in 10 HPF were determined. In most cases the CD34+ cell count was similar to the blast percentage determined morphologically. In RA, however, not only typical blasts but also less immature hemopoietic cells lying morphologically between blasts and promyelocytes were stained with CD34. The CD34+ cell count and cluster values were significantly higher in RA than in BMB with reactive changes (p<0.0001 for both), in RAEB than in RA (p=0.0006 and p=0.0189, respectively), in RAEBt than in RAEB (p=0.0001 and p=0.0038), and in MDS-AML than in RAEBt (p<0.0001 and p=0.0007). Presence of CD34+ cell clusters in RA correlated with increased risk of progression of the disease. We conclude that CD34 immunostaining in BMB is a useful tool for distinguishing RA from other anemias, assessing blast percentage in MDS cases, classifying them according to FAB, and following their evolution.

Oral administration of a low dose of midazolam (75 microg) as an in vivo probe for CYP3A activity.

OBJECTIVE: We investigated whether the oral administration of a low dose (75 micro g) of midazolam, a CYP3A probe, can be used to measure the in vivo CYP3A activity. METHODS: Plasma concentrations of midazolam, 1'OH-midazolam and 4'OH-midazolam were measured after the oral administration of 7.5 mg and 75 micro g midazolam in 13 healthy subjects without medication, in four subjects pretreated for 2 days with ketoconazole (200 mg b.i.d.), a CYP3A inhibitor, and in four subjects pretreated for 4 days with rifampicin (450 mg q.d.), a CYP3A inducer. RESULTS: After oral administration of 75 micro g midazolam, the 30-min total (unconjugated + conjugated) 1'OH-midazolam/midazolam ratios measured in the groups without co-medication, with ketoconazole and with rifampicin were (mean+/-SD): 6.23+/-2.61, 0.79+/-0.39 and 56.1+/-12.4, respectively. No side effects were reported by the subjects taking this low dose of midazolam. Good correlations were observed between the 30-min total 1'OH-midazolam/midazolam ratio and midazolam clearance in the group without co-medication (r(2)=0.64, P<0.001) and in the three groups taken together (r(2)=0.91, P<0.0001). Good correlations were also observed between midazolam plasma levels and midazolam clearance, measured between 1.5 h and 4 h. CONCLUSION: A low oral dose of midazolam can be used to phenotype CYP3A, either by the determination of total 1'OH-midazolam/midazolam ratios at 30 min or by the determination of midazolam plasma levels between 1.5 h and 4 h after its administration.

Interpretation of needle biopsies of the kidney for investigation of renal masses.

The development of new therapeutic options for renal tumors has lead to the need of a pretherapeutic diagnosis for an increasing proportion of patients presenting with a renal mass. This need is particularly important for a small, incidentally discovered renal mass (less than 4 cm) as it can be a benign lesion in a significant percentage of cases. Recent studies have shown that needle biopsy is an accurate and safe method allowing for a precise histopathological diagnosis of the mass in most cases. The aims of the biopsy are (1) to assess the benign or malignant nature of the lesion, (2) to assess the primary or secondary nature of the lesion, and (3), in case of a primary malignancy, to determine histological prognostic factors, such as the tumor type. This review, based on the most recent literature and our own experience, is intended to provide a practical approach to the diagnosis, relying on appropriate morphologic assessment and the use of immunohistochemistry.

Comparison of two oral probiotic preparations in a randomized crossover trial highlights a potentially beneficial effect of Lactobacillus paracasei NCC2461 in patients with allergic rhinitis.

BACKGROUND: There is promising but conflicting evidence to recommend the addition of probiotics to foods for prevention and treatment of allergy. Based on previous studies with fermented milk containing Lactobacillus paracasei NCC2461, we aimed to compare the effect of a powder form of the latter probiotic with the effect of a blend of Lactobacillus acidophilus ATCC SD5221 and Bifidobacterium lactis ATCC SD5219 in patients with allergic rhinitis. METHODS: A double-blind, randomized, cross-over study, involving 31 adults with allergic rhinitis to grass pollen, was performed outside the grass pollen season (registration number: NCT01233154). Subjects received each product for 4-weeks in two phases separated by a wash-out period of 6 to 8 weeks. A nasal provocation test was performed before and after each 4-week product intake period, and outcome parameters (objective and subjective clinical symptoms; immune parameters) were measured during and/or 24 hours after the test. RESULTS: Out of the 31 subject enrolled, 28 completed the study. While no effect was observed on nasal congestion (primary outcome), treatment with NCC2461 significantly decreased nasal pruritus (determined by VAS), and leukocytes in nasal fluid samples, enhanced IL-5, IL-13 and IL-10 production by peripheral blood mononuclear cells in an allergen specific manner and tended to decrease IL-5 secretion in nasal fluid, in contrast to treatment with the blend of L. acidophilus and B. lactis. CONCLUSIONS: Despite short-term consumption, NCC2461 was able to reduce subjective nasal pruritus while not affecting nasal congestion in adults suffering from grass pollen allergic rhinitis. The associated decrease in nasal fluid leukocytes and IL-5 secretion, and the enhanced IL-10 secretion in an allergen specific manner may partly explain the decrease in nasal pruritus. However, somewhat unexpected systemic immune changes were also noted. These data support the study of NCC2461 consumption in a seasonal clinical trial to further demonstrate its potentially beneficial effect.

Acute supra-therapeutic oral terbutaline administration has no ergogenic effect in non-asthmatic athletes.

This study aimed to investigate the effects on a possible improvement in aerobic and anaerobic performance of oral terbutaline (TER) at a supra-therapeutic dose in 7 healthy competitive male athletes. On day 1, ventilatory threshold, maximum oxygen uptake [Formula: see text] and corresponding power output were measured and used to determine the exercise load on days 2 and 3. On days 2 and 3, 8 mg of TER or placebo were orally administered in a double-blind process to athletes who rested for 3 h, and then performed a battery of tests including a force-velocity exercise test, running sprint and a maximal endurance cycling test at Δ50 % (50 % between VT and [Formula: see text]). Lactatemia, anaerobic parameters and endurance performance ([Formula: see text] and time until exhaustion) were raised during the corresponding tests. We found that TER administration did not improve any of the parameters of aerobic performance (p > 0.05). In addition, no change in [Formula: see text] kinetic parameters was found with TER compared to placebo (p > 0.05). Moreover, no enhancement of the force-velocity relationship was observed during sprint exercises after TER intake (p > 0.05) and, on the contrary, maximal strength decreased significantly after TER intake (p < 0.05) but maximal power remained unchanged (p > 0.05). In conclusion, oral acute administration of TER at a supra-therapeutic dose seems to be without any relevant ergogenic effect on anaerobic and aerobic performances in healthy athletes. However, all participants experienced adverse side effects such as tremors.

Adhésion thérapeutique en oncologie : persistance, qualité d'exécution et satisfaction des patients sous traitement oral et MEMS®

Introduction: en oncologie apparaissent sur le marché depuis quelques années de nouveaux traitements en formulation orale facilitant l'administration et améliorant la qualité de vie du patient mais augmentant le risque de non adhésion et d'erreurs de posologie. L'observation par MEMS® (Medication Event Monitoring System) permet le suivi et l'encadrement du traitement oral et par le biais d'entretiens semi structurés menés par le pharmacien, ouvre la discussion sur les problèmes révélés par cette prise en charge. Méthode: étude non randomisée prospective uni centrique regroupant 50 patients inclus dans 3 groupes de traitements oncologiques oraux courants (capecitabine, letrozole/exemestane, imatinib/sunitinib) bénéficiant d'un suivi oncologique classique et équipés d'un MEMS® pour un an maximum. La persistance et la qualité d'exécution sont les deux paramètres mesurés grâce aux données récoltées électroniquement. Les entretiens sont dédiés à la prévention de la non adhésion et à la gestion des effets secondaires médicamenteux. La satisfaction est évaluée par un questionnaire à la fin du suivi. Résultats: à ce jour 38 patients ont été inclus dans l'étude. Les données complètes sont disponibles pour les 19 premiers patients dont 10 sous capecitabine et 9 sous letrozole/exemestane. Dans ce collectif l'âge médian est de 66 ans avec une majorité de femmes (11:8). La persistance à 10 jours est de 85% et la qualité d'exécution de 99%. Les toxicités observées supérieures à grade 1 sont 1 syndrome mains-pieds (G3) et 1 syndrome coronarien aigu (G3). Le questionnaire de fin de suivi relève une satisfaction de 85% des patients pour les entretiens proposés (57% utiles, 28% très utiles, 15% inutiles) et le succès quant à l'intégration du MEMS® dans leur quotidien (57% très facile, 43% facile). Conclusion: la persistance et la qualité d'exécution observées dans notre collectif sont excellentes. La satisfaction retrouvée auprès des patients reflète le besoin d'un soutien complémentaire face à la complexité de la maladie oncologique. La gestion pluridisciplinaire profite tant aux patients qu'au binôme médecin-pharmacien par l'amélioration de la communication globale entre les divers acteurs et par l'identification précoce des risques de non adhésion. La poursuite de cette étude et l'analyse des futures données permettra de mesurer le réel impact de notre intervention et de justifier le bénéfice pour des patients sous traitement similaire.

Hospitalized women experiencing an episode of excessive oral anticoagulation had a higher bleeding risk than men.

OBJECTIVE: Overanticoagulated medical inpatients may be particularly prone to bleeding complications. Among medical inpatients with excessive oral anticoagulation (AC), we sought to identify patient and treatment factors associated with bleeding. METHODS: We prospectively identified consecutive patients receiving oral AC admitted to the medical ward of a university hospital (February-July 2006) who had at least one international normalized ratio (INR) value >3.0 during the hospital stay. We recorded patient characteristics, AC-related factors, and concomitant treatments (e.g., platelet inhibitors) that increase the bleeding risk. The outcome was overall bleeding, defined as the occurrence of major or minor bleeding during the hospital stay. We used logistic regression to explore patient and treatment factors associated with bleeding. RESULTS: Overall, 145 inpatients with excessive oral AC comprised our study sample. Atrial fibrillation (59%) and venous thromboembolism (28%) were the most common indications for AC. Twelve patients (8.3%) experienced a bleeding event. Of these, 8 had major bleeding. Women had a somewhat higher risk of major bleeding than men (12.5% vs 4.1%, p = 0.08). Multivariable analysis demonstrated that female gender was independently associated with bleeding (odds ratio [OR] 4.3, 95% confidence interval [95% C1] 1.1-17.8). Age, history of major bleeding, value of the index INR, and concomitant treatment with platelet inhibitors were not independent predictors of bleeding. CONCLUSIONS: We found that hospitalized women experiencing an episode of excessive oral AC have a 4-fold increased risk of bleeding compared with men. Whether overanticoagulated women require more aggressive measures of AC reversal must be examined in further studies.

Different PTH response to oral peptone load and oral calcium load in patients with normocalcemic primary hyperparathyroidism, primary hyperparathyroidism, and healthy subjects.

BACKGROUND: Normocalcemic primary hyperparathyroidism (PHPT-N) is a condition that may have similar long-term implications to primary hyperparathyroidism (PHPT); however, differential diagnosis and treatment for parathyroid disorders are not clearly defined. We investigated the effect of an oral peptone and an oral calcium load on calcium-regulating hormones in PHPT-N compared with PHPT and healthy controls to provide a new potential diagnostic tool. DESIGN: Case-control study. METHODS: We evaluated serum gastrin, PTH, ionized calcium, and phosphate responses to oral calcium (1 g) and peptone (10 g) load in 22 PHPT and 20 PHPT-N patients matched for PTH serum values. Moreover, 30 healthy subjects were enrolled as controls. In 12 patients for each group, we also performed the oral peptone test adding aluminum hydroxide (AH) to suppress phosphate absorption. RESULTS: In PHPT patients, PTH increased significantly 30 min after the oral peptone load, while no significant increase was found in PHPT-N and controls. After oral calcium load, PTH remained stable in PHPT while it decreased dramatically in PHPT-N patients, and ionized calcium increased significantly in each of the three groups. Peptones plus AH induced a blunted PTH increase in the three groups. CONCLUSIONS: Considering the marked difference in PTH response elicited by peptones in PHPT compared with PHPT-N, we suggest that the oral peptone test could be added to the diagnostic evaluation of PHPT patients. In case of absent response to peptones, patients should have their serum calcium levels assessed twice a year in accordance with recent guidelines.

Oral pregabalin as an add-on treatment for status epilepticus.

Oral antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) represent possible add-on options in refractory status epilepticus (SE). In this setting, pregabalin (PGB) has not been reported before. Over the last 42 months, we identified 11 SE episodes (10 patients) treated with PGB in our hospital. Its use was prompted by the favorable pharmacokinetic profile, devoid of drug-drug interactions. The patients mostly had refractory, partial SE. Only two patients were managed in the intensive care unit (ICU). We found a definite electroclinical response in 5 of 11, already evident 24 h after PGB introduction, and a possible response (concomitantly with other AEDs) in 3 of 11 of the episodes; 3/11 did not respond. The treatment was well tolerated. Partial SE appeared to better respond than generalized convulsive SE. PGB appears to be an interesting option as add-on treatment in refractory partial SE.