77 resultados para cocoa butter equivalent
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An intercomparison of the response of different photon and neutron detectors was performed in several measurement positions around a spent fuel cask (type TN 12/2B) filled with 4 MOX and 8 UO2 15 x 15 PWR fuel assemblies at the nuclear power plant Gosgen (KKG) in Switzerland. The instruments used in the study were both active and passive, photon and neutron detectors calibrated either for ambient or personal dose equivalent. The aim of the measurement campaign was to compare the responses of the radiation instruments to routinely used detectors. It has been shown that especially the indications of the neutron detectors are strongly dependent on the neutron spectra around the cask due to their different energy responses. However, routinely used active photon and neutron detectors were shown to be reliable instruments. (C) 2012 Elsevier Ltd. All rights reserved.
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Geochemical and petrographical studies of lavas and ignimbrites from the Quaternary Nisyros-Yali volcanic system in the easternmost part of the Hellenic arc (Greece) reveal insight into magma generating processes. A compositional gap between 61 and 68 wt.% SiO2 is recognized that coincides with the stratigraphic distinction between pre-caldera and postcaldera volcanic units. Trace element systematics support the subdivision of Nisyros and Yali volcanic units into two distinct suites of rocks. The variation of Nd and Hf present day isotope data and the fact that they are distinct from the isotope compositions of MORB rule out an origin by pure differentiation and require assimilation of a crustal component. Lead isotope ratios of Nisyros and Yali volcanic rocks support mixing of mantle material with a lower crust equivalent. However, Sr-87/Sr-86 ratios of 0.7036-0.7048 are incompatible with a simple binary mixing scenario and give low depleted mantle extraction ages (< 0.1 Ga), in contrast with Pb model ages of 0.3 Ga and Hf and Nd model ages of ca. 0.8 Ga. The budget of fluid-mobile elements Sr and Pb is likely to be dominated by abundant hydrous fluids characterised by mantle-like Sr isotope ratios. Late stage fluids probably were enriched in CO2, needed to explain the high Th concentrations. The occurrence of hydrated minerals (e.g., amphibole) in the first post-caldera unit with the lowermost Sr-87/Sr-86 ratio of 0.7036 +/- 2 can be interpreted as the result of the increased water activity in the source. The presence of two different plagioclase phenocryst generations in the first lava subsequent to the caldera-causing event is indicative for a longer storage time of this magma at a shallower level. A model capable of explaining these observations involves three evolutionary stages. First stage, assimilation of lower crustal material by a primitive magma of mantle origin (as modelled by Nd-Hf isotope systematics). This stage ended by an interruption in replenishment that led to an increase of crystallization and, hence, an increase in viscosity, suppressing eruption. During this time gap, differentiation by fractional crystallization led to enrichment of incompatible species, especially aqueous fluids, to silica depolymerisation and to a decrease in viscosity, finally enabling eruption again in the third stage. (c) 2005 Elsevier B.V. All rights reserved.
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PURPOSE: To evaluate the diagnostic value of previously described MR features used for detecting suspected placental invasion according to observers' experience. MATERIALS AND METHODS: Our population included 25 pregnant women (mean age 35.16) investigated by prenatal MRI (1.5T, T1- and T2-weighted MR-sequences without i.v. contrast), among them 12 with histopathologically proven placental invasion and 13 women (52%) without placental invasion used as control group. Two senior and two junior radiologists blindly and independently reviewed MR-examinations in view of 6 previously defined MR-features indicating presence and degree of placental invasion (placenta increta, accreta or percreta). For each reader the sensibility, specificity, and receiver operating curve (ROC) were calculated. Interobserver agreements between senior and junior readers were determined. Stepwise logistic regression was performed including the 6 MR-features predictive of placental invasion. RESULTS: Demographics between both groups were statistically equivalent. Overall sensitivity and specificity for placental invasion was 90.9% and 75.0% for seniors and 81.8% and 61.8% for juniors, respectively. The best single MR-feature indicating placental invasion was T2-hypointense placental bands (r(2)=0.28), followed by focally interrupted myometrial border, infiltration of pelvic organs and tenting of the bladder (r(2)=0.36). Interobserver agreement for detecting placental invasion was 0.64 for seniors and 0.41 for juniors, thus substantial and moderate, respectively. Seniors detected placental invasion and depth of infiltration with significantly higher diagnostic certitude than juniors (p=0.0002 and p=0.0282, respectively). CONCLUSION: MRI can be a reliable and reproducible tool for the detection of suspected placental invasion, but the diagnostic value significantly depends on observers' experience.
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Since Staphylococcus aureus expresses multiple pathogenic factors, studying their individual roles in single-gene-knockout mutants is difficult. To circumvent this problem, S. aureus clumping factor A (clfA) and fibronectin-binding protein A (fnbA) genes were constitutively expressed in poorly pathogenic Lactococcus lactis using the recently described pOri23 vector. The recombinant organisms were tested in vitro for their adherence to immobilized fibrinogen and fibronectin and in vivo for their ability to infect rats with catheter-induced aortic vegetations. In vitro, both clfA and fnbA increased the adherence of lactococci to their specific ligands to a similar extent as the S. aureus gene donor. In vivo, the minimum inoculum size producing endocarditis in > or =80% of the rats (80% infective dose [ID80]) with the parent lactococcus was > or =10(7) CFU. In contrast, clfA-expressing and fnbA-expressing lactococci required only 10(5) CFU to infect the majority of the animals (P < 0.00005). This was comparable to the infectivities of classical endocarditis pathogens such as S. aureus and streptococci (ID80 = 10(4) to 10(5) CFU) in this model. The results confirmed the role of clfA in endovascular infection, but with a much higher degree of confidence than with single-gene-inactivated staphylococci. Moreover, they identified fnbA as a critical virulence factor of equivalent importance. This was in contrast to previous studies that produced controversial results regarding this very determinant. Taken together, the present observations suggest that if antiadhesin therapy were to be developed, at least both of the clfA and fnbA products should be blocked for the therapy to be effective.
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Although active personal dosemeters (APDs) are not used quite often in hospital environments, the possibility to assess the dose and/or dose rate in real time is particularly interesting in interventional radiology and cardiology (IR/IC) since operators can receive relatively high doses while standing close to the primary radiation field.A study concerning the optimization of the use of APDs in IR/IC was performed in the framework of the ORAMED project, a Collaborative Project (2008-2011) supported by the European Commission within its 7th Framework Program. This paper reports on tests performed with APDs on phantoms using an X-ray facility in a hospital environment and APDs worn by interventionalists during routine practice in different European hospitals.The behaviour of the APDs is more satisfactory in hospitals than in laboratories with respect to the influence of the tube peak high voltage and pulse width, because the APDs are tested in scattered fields with dose equivalent rates generally lower than 1 Sv.h(-1).
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The antennal lobe is the primary olfactory center in the insect brain and represents the anatomical and functional equivalent of the vertebrate olfactory bulb. Olfactory information in the external world is transmitted to the antennal lobe by olfactory sensory neurons (OSNs), which segregate to distinct regions of neuropil called glomeruli according to the specific olfactory receptor they express. Here, OSN axons synapse with both local interneurons (LNs), whose processes can innervate many different glomeruli, and projection neurons (PNs), which convey olfactory information to higher olfactory brain regions. Optical imaging of the activity of OSNs, LNs and PNs in the antennal lobe - traditionally using synthetic calcium indicators (e.g. calcium green, FURA-2) or voltage-sensitive dyes (e.g. RH414) - has long been an important technique to understand how olfactory stimuli are represented as spatial and temporal patterns of glomerular activity in many species of insects. Development of genetically-encoded neural activity reporters, such as the fluorescent calcium indicators G-CaMP and Cameleon, the bioluminescent calcium indicator GFP-aequorin, or a reporter of synaptic transmission, synapto-pHluorin has made the olfactory system of the fruitfly, Drosophila melanogaster, particularly accessible to neurophysiological imaging, complementing its comprehensively-described molecular, electrophysiological and neuroanatomical properties. These reporters can be selectively expressed via binary transcriptional control systems (e.g. GAL4/UAS, LexA/LexAop, Q system) in defined populations of neurons within the olfactory circuitry to dissect with high spatial and temporal resolution how odor-evoked neural activity is represented, modulated and transformed. Here we describe the preparation and analysis methods to measure odor-evoked responses in the Drosophila antennal lobe using G-CaMP. The animal preparation is minimally invasive and can be adapted to imaging using wide-field fluorescence, confocal and two-photon microscopes.
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The aim of the present study was to develop a short form of the Zuckerman-Kuhlman Personality Questionnaire (ZKPQ) with acceptable psychometric properties in four languages: English (United States), French (Switzerland), German (Germany), and Spanish (Spain). The total sample (N = 4,621) was randomly divided into calibration and validation samples. An exploratory factor analysis was conducted in the calibration sample. Eighty items, with loadings equal or higher than 0.30 on their own factor and lower on the remaining factors, were retained. A confirmatory factor analysis was performed over the survival items in the validation sample in order to select the best 10 items for each scale. This short version (named ZKPQ-50-CC) presents psychometric properties strongly similar to the original version in the four countries. Moreover, the factor structure are near equivalent across the four countries since the congruence indices were all higher than 0.90. It is concluded that the ZKPQ-50-CC presented a high cross-language replicability, and it could be an useful questionnaire that may be used for personality research.
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PURPOSE: Studies of diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL) are typically evaluated by using a time-to-event approach with relapse, re-treatment, and death commonly used as the events. We evaluated the timing and type of events in newly diagnosed DLBCL and compared patient outcome with reference population data. PATIENTS AND METHODS: Patients with newly diagnosed DLBCL treated with immunochemotherapy were prospectively enrolled onto the University of Iowa/Mayo Clinic Specialized Program of Research Excellence Molecular Epidemiology Resource (MER) and the North Central Cancer Treatment Group NCCTG-N0489 clinical trial from 2002 to 2009. Patient outcomes were evaluated at diagnosis and in the subsets of patients achieving event-free status at 12 months (EFS12) and 24 months (EFS24) from diagnosis. Overall survival was compared with age- and sex-matched population data. Results were replicated in an external validation cohort from the Groupe d'Etude des Lymphomes de l'Adulte (GELA) Lymphome Non Hodgkinien 2003 (LNH2003) program and a registry based in Lyon, France. RESULTS: In all, 767 patients with newly diagnosed DLBCL who had a median age of 63 years were enrolled onto the MER and NCCTG studies. At a median follow-up of 60 months (range, 8 to 116 months), 299 patients had an event and 210 patients had died. Patients achieving EFS24 had an overall survival equivalent to that of the age- and sex-matched general population (standardized mortality ratio [SMR], 1.18; P = .25). This result was confirmed in 820 patients from the GELA study and registry in Lyon (SMR, 1.09; P = .71). Simulation studies showed that EFS24 has comparable power to continuous EFS when evaluating clinical trials in DLBCL. CONCLUSION: Patients with DLBCL who achieve EFS24 have a subsequent overall survival equivalent to that of the age- and sex-matched general population. EFS24 will be useful in patient counseling and should be considered as an end point for future studies of newly diagnosed DLBCL.
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PURPOSE: To report both the functional and anatomic outcome and safety profile of 23-gauge pars plana vitrectomy combined with membrane peeling and intravitreal injection of triamcinolone acetonide in eyes with idiopathic macular epiretinal membranes. METHODS: Retrospective study of 39 consecutive patients who underwent 23-gauge transconjunctival sutureless vitrectomy, membrane peeling, and intravitreal triamcinolone acetonide injection for an idiopathic macular epiretinal membrane between February 2007 and February 2008. Minimum follow-up was 6 months. RESULTS: Thirty-nine eyes of 39 patients were included in the study. The mean follow-up was 7 +/- 2.2 months (range, 6-15 months). Twenty-two eyes (56%) were pseudophakic and 17 (44%) were phakic at the time of surgery. Five of the phakic eyes (29.4%) had worsening of cataracts during the follow-up period. Mean preoperative intraocular pressure was 14 +/- 3.5 mmHg. At the final follow-up, mean intraocular pressure was 14.5 +/- 2.7 mmHg, which did not differ significantly from the intraocular pressure at baseline (P = 0.14, two-tailed t-test). Five (13%) patients needed topical antiglaucoma treatment. Mean preoperative best-corrected visual acuity (BCVA) was 0.28 decimal equivalent (20/71 Snellen equivalent; logarithm of the minimum angle of resolution 0.54 +/- 0.2, range: 1.0-0.2) and improved significantly (P < 0.0001, two-tailed t-test) to a mean of 0.6 decimal equivalent (20/33 Snellen equivalent; logarithm of the minimum angle of resolution 0.22 +/- 0.16, range: 0.6-0) at the final follow-up. The BCVA improved by a mean of 3.2 +/- 2.1 lines (range: 0-8). Twenty-nine patients (74%) demonstrated a gain of > or =3 lines. Mean central macular thickness was 456 +/- 77 microm (mean +/- SD) at baseline, which was significantly reduced at the final follow-up to 327 +/- 79 microm (mean +/- SD; P < 0.0001, two-tailed t-test). Average central macular thickness reduction was 131 +/- 77 microm (mean +/- SD; range: 36-380 microm). A subgroup analysis of 15 selected cases, which had central macular thickness and BCVA measurements after the first postoperative week, demonstrated that 84% of the total final reduction in central macular thickness and 84% of the total final improvement in BCVA occurred already during the first postoperative week. CONCLUSION: Twenty-three-gauge sutureless transconjunctival vitrectomy is a safe and effective technique for the treatment of idiopathic macular epiretinal membranes. The concomitant administration of intravitreal triamcinolone acetonide after pars plana vitrectomy may speed up and improve the anatomic and functional outcome.
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Background: The increasing prevalence of obesity worldwide is associated with a massive increase in the number of yearly performed bariatric procedures, many of them purely restrictive. Consequently, a growing number of surgical revisions are necessary, and conversion to Roux-en-Y gastric bypass (RYGBP) is a common option. So far, few series including mostly patients reoperated using open surgery,and limited follow-up, have been reported.Patients and methods: Retrospective analysis of prospectively collected data of all patients undergoing revisional RYGBP in our two departments.Results: Between June 1999 and February 2011, 186 patients were submitted to revisional RYGBP, 161 women and 25 men with a mean age of 43 years. Their mean initial BMI was 45,3 kg/m2, their mean nadir BMI between the index operation and revision was 34, and their mean pre-revision BMI was 38,5. The initial procedure was gastric banding in 134 (72 %) patients, VBG in 48 (25,8 %), RYGBP in 5 (2,7 %), and others in 3. The main indications for revision were complications from the primary procedure with or without weight regain. A laparoscopic approach was usedin 137 (73,7 %) cases. Overall early morbidity was 18,8 %, and major morbidity was 3,2 %. Comparing patients in the first, second and last third of our experience, the percentage of patients operated using a laparoscopic approach increased from 53,2 % to 71 % and finally 96,7 %, and overall morbidity decreased from 27,4 % to 24,2 % and then 4,8 %. There were more wound infections after laparotomy (22,4 versus 2,9 %, p<0,001). There was no mortality. The mean BMI remained between 30 and 32 up to nine years after revision. Up to this limit, a BMI of <35 was maintained in between 75 and 83 % of the patients.Conclusions: Revisional RYGBP proves to be an effective and safe procedure. It can be performed by laparoscopy in most cases, especially as experience increases., It is associated with an acceptable morbidity, though higher than with primary RYGBP. Long-term results are equivalent to those of primary RYGBP, and can be considered as very satisfactory considering the fact that, on average, patients requiring redo surgery represent a sub-selection of difficult bariatric patients.
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Given the significant impact the use of glucocorticoids can have on fracture risk independent of bone density, their use has been incorporated as one of the clinical risk factors for calculating the 10-year fracture risk in the World Health Organization's Fracture Risk Assessment Tool (FRAX(®)). Like the other clinical risk factors, the use of glucocorticoids is included as a dichotomous variable with use of steroids defined as past or present exposure of 3 months or more of use of a daily dose of 5 mg or more of prednisolone or equivalent. The purpose of this report is to give clinicians guidance on adjustments which should be made to the 10-year risk based on the dose, duration of use and mode of delivery of glucocorticoids preparations. A subcommittee of the International Society for Clinical Densitometry and International Osteoporosis Foundation joint Position Development Conference presented its findings to an expert panel and the following recommendations were selected. 1) There is a dose relationship between glucocorticoid use of greater than 3 months and fracture risk. The average dose exposure captured within FRAX(®) is likely to be a prednisone dose of 2.5-7.5 mg/day or its equivalent. Fracture probability is under-estimated when prednisone dose is greater than 7.5 mg/day and is over-estimated when the prednisone dose is less than 2.5 mg/day. 2) Frequent intermittent use of higher doses of glucocorticoids increases fracture risk. Because of the variability in dose and dosing schedule, quantification of this risk is not possible. 3) High dose inhaled glucocorticoids may be a risk factor for fracture. FRAX(®) may underestimate fracture probability in users of high dose inhaled glucocorticoids. 4) Appropriate glucocorticoid replacement in individuals with adrenal insufficiency has not been found to increase fracture risk. In such patients, use of glucocorticoids should not be included in FRAX(®) calculations.
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Levofloxacin is the L isomer of ofloxacin, a racemic mixture in which the L stereochemical form carries the antimicrobial activity. Levofloxacin is more active than former quinolones against gram-positive bacteria, making it potentially useful against such pathogens. In this study, levofloxacin was compared to ciprofloxacin, flucloxacillin, and vancomycin for the treatment of experimental endocarditis due to two methicillin-susceptible Staphylococcus aureus (MSSA) and two methicillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA) isolates. The four test organisms were susceptible to ciprofloxacin, the levofloxacin MICs for the organisms were low (0.12 to 0.25 mg/liter), and the organisms were killed in vitro by drug concentrations simulating both the peak and trough levels achieved in human serum (5 and 0.5 mg/liter, respectively) during levofloxacin therapy. Rats with aortic endocarditis were treated for 3 days. Antibiotics were injected with a programmable pump to simulate the kinetics of either levofloxacin (350 mg orally once a day), ciprofloxacin (750 mg orally twice a day), flucloxacillin (2 g intravenously four times a day), or vancomycin (1 g intravenously twice a day). Levofloxacin tended to be superior to ciprofloxacin in therapeutic experiments (P = 0.08). More importantly, levofloxacin did not select for resistance in the animals, in contrast to ciprofloxacin. The lower propensity of levofloxacin than ciprofloxacin to select for quinolone resistance was also clearly demonstrated in vitro. Finally, the effectiveness of this simulation of oral levofloxacin therapy was at least equivalent to that of standard treatment for MSSA or MRSA endocarditis with either flucloxacillin or vancomycin. This is noteworthy, because oral antibiotics are not expected to succeed in the treatment of severe staphylococcal infections. These good results obtained with animals suggest that levofloxacin might deserve consideration for further study in the treatment of infections due to ciprofloxacin-susceptible staphylococci in humans.
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This retrospective study compared 100 consecutive non-cancer (NC) patients referred to a palliative care consult team (PCT) in a Swiss university hospital to 506 cancer (C) patients referred during the same period. The frequencies of reported symptoms were similar in both groups. The main reasons for referral in the NC group were symptom control, global evaluation, and assistance with discharge. Requests for symptom control predominated in the C group. Prior to the first visit, 50% of NC patients were on opioids, compared to 58% of C patients. After the first visit, the proportion of NC patients on opioids increased to 64% and the proportion of C patients to 73%. The median daily oral morphine equivalent dose for NC patients taking opioids prior to the first PCT visit was higher than that for C patients (60 mg versus 45 mg). At the time of death or discharge, the percentage of NC patients on opioids was 64%, while that of C patients was 76%. Moreover, NC patients were on significantly lower median doses of opioids than C patients (31 mg versus 60 mg). Over half the NC patients died during hospitalization, as compared to 33% of C patients. Only 6% of NC patients were discharged to palliative care units, as compared to 22% of C patients.
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Auditory evoked potentials are informative of intact cortical functions of comatose patients. The integrity of auditory functions evaluated using mismatch negativity paradigms has been associated with their chances of survival. However, because auditory discrimination is assessed at various delays after coma onset, it is still unclear whether this impairment depends on the time of the recording. We hypothesized that impairment in auditory discrimination capabilities is indicative of coma progression, rather than of the comatose state itself and that rudimentary auditory discrimination remains intact during acute stages of coma. We studied 30 post-anoxic comatose patients resuscitated from cardiac arrest and five healthy, age-matched controls. Using a mismatch negativity paradigm, we performed two electroencephalography recordings with a standard 19-channel clinical montage: the first within 24 h after coma onset and under mild therapeutic hypothermia, and the second after 1 day and under normothermic conditions. We analysed electroencephalography responses based on a multivariate decoding algorithm that automatically quantifies neural discrimination at the single patient level. Results showed high average decoding accuracy in discriminating sounds both for control subjects and comatose patients. Importantly, accurate decoding was largely independent of patients' chance of survival. However, the progression of auditory discrimination between the first and second recordings was informative of a patient's chance of survival. A deterioration of auditory discrimination was observed in all non-survivors (equivalent to 100% positive predictive value for survivors). We show, for the first time, evidence of intact auditory processing even in comatose patients who do not survive and that progression of sound discrimination over time is informative of a patient's chance of survival. Tracking auditory discrimination in comatose patients could provide new insight to the chance of awakening in a quantitative and automatic fashion during early stages of coma.
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The treatment of essential hypertension is based essentially on the prescription of four major classes of antihypertensive drugs, i.e. blockers of the renin-angiotensin system, calcium channel blockers, diuretics and beta-blockers. In recent years, very few new drug therapies of hypertension have become available. Therefore, it is crucial for physicians to optimize their antihypertensive therapies with the drugs available on the market. In each of the classes of antihypertensive drugs, questions have recently been raised: are angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors superior to angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARB)? Is it possible to reduce the incidence of peripheral oedema with calcium antagonists? Is hydrochlorothiazide really the good diuretic to use in combination therapies? The purpose of this review is to discuss these various questions in the light of the most recent clinical studies and meta-analyses. These latter suggest that ACE inhibitors and ARB are equivalent except for a better tolerability profile of ARB. Third generation calcium channel blockers enable to reduce the incidence of peripheral oedema and chlorthalidone is certainly more effective than hydrochlorothiazide in preventing cardiovascular events in hypertension. At last, studies suggest that drug adherence and long-term persistence under therapy is one of the major issues in the actual management of essential hypertension.