169 resultados para automated correlation optimized warping


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Anti-angiogenic therapies are currently in cancer clinical trials, but to date there are no established tests for evaluating the angiogenic status of a patient. We measured 11 circulating angiogenesis-associated molecules in cancer patients before and after local treatment. The purpose of our study was to screen for possible relationships among the different molecules and between individual molecules and tumor burden. We measured VEGF-A, PlGF, SCF, MMP-9, EDB+ -fibronectin, sVEGFR-2, sVEGFR-1, salphaVbeta3, sTie-2, IL-8 and CRP in the blood of 22 healthy volunteers, 17 early breast, 17 early colorectal, and 8 advanced sarcoma/melanoma cancer patients. Breast cancer patients had elevated levels of VEGF-A and sTie-2, colorectal cancer patients of VEGF-A, MMP-9, sTie-2, IL-8 and CRP, and melanoma/sarcoma patients of sVEGFR-1. salphaVbeta3 was decreased in colorectal cancer patients. A correlation between VEGF-A and MMP-9 was found. After tumor removal, MMP-9 and salphaVbeta3 significantly decreased in breast and CRP in colorectal cancer, whereas sVEGFR-1 increased in colorectal cancer patients. In sarcoma/melanoma patients treated regionally with TNF and chemotherapy we observed a rise in VEGF-A, SCF, VEGFR-2, MMP-9, Tie-2 and CRP, a correlation between CRP and IL-8, and a decreased in sVEGFR-1 levels. In conclusion, among all factors measured, only VEGF-A and MMP-9 consistently correlated to each other, elevated CRP levels were associated with tumor burden, whereas sVEGF-R1 increased after tumor removal in colorectal cancer. Treatment with chemotherapy and TNF induced changes consistent with an angiogenic switch. These results warrant a prospective study to compare the effect of surgical tumor removal vs. chemotherapy on some of these markers and to evaluate their prognostic/predictive value.

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CodeML (part of the PAML package) im- plements a maximum likelihood-based approach to de- tect positive selection on a specific branch of a given phylogenetic tree. While CodeML is widely used, it is very compute-intensive. We present SlimCodeML, an optimized version of CodeML for the branch-site model. Our performance analysis shows that SlimCodeML substantially outperforms CodeML (up to 9.38 times faster), especially for large-scale genomic analyses.

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Object The purpose of this study was to investigate whether diffusion tensor imaging (DTI) of the corticospinal tract (CST) is a reliable surrogate for intraoperative macrostimulation through the deep brain stimulation (DBS) leads. The authors hypothesized that the distance on MRI from the DBS lead to the CST as determined by DTI would correlate with intraoperative motor thresholds from macrostimulations through the same DBS lead. Methods The authors retrospectively reviewed pre- and postoperative MRI studies and intraoperative macrostimulation recordings in 17 patients with Parkinson disease (PD) treated by DBS stimulation. Preoperative DTI tractography of the CST was coregistered with postoperative MRI studies showing the position of the DBS leads. The shortest distance and the angle from each contact of each DBS lead to the CST was automatically calculated using software-based analysis. The distance measurements calculated for each contact were evaluated with respect to the intraoperative voltage thresholds that elicited a motor response at each contact. Results There was a nonsignificant trend for voltage thresholds to increase when the distances between the DBS leads and the CST increased. There was a significant correlation between the angle and the voltage, but the correlation was weak (coefficient of correlation [R] = 0.36). Conclusions Caution needs to be exercised when using DTI tractography information to guide DBS lead placement in patients with PD. Further studies are needed to compare DTI tractography measurements with other approaches such as microelectrode recordings and conventional intraoperative MRI-guided placement of DBS leads.

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Introduction : Les tumeurs solides pseudo-papillaires du pancréas (SPT) sont des tumeurs rares, d'étiopathogénie encore incertaine.Le but de notre travail était de décrire les caractéristiques radiologiques des SPT dans le groupe d'âge pédiatrique et d'étudier leur corrélation avec les études anatomopathologiques en vue d'établir un diagnostic.Patients et Méthodes : Nous avons étudié rétrospectivement trois malades pédiatriques pour lesquelles le diagnostic de tumeur solide pseudo-papillaire du pancréas a été porté à l'examen d'une pièce opératoire. Ce groupe comprenait 3 jeunes filles et femmes (âge médian: 13 ans).Résultats : La tumeur a été découverte pendant le bilan de symptômes digestifs non spécifiques. Les examens biologiques n'étaient pas informatifs. Des investigations radiologiques complètes ont été réalisées y compris les ultrasons (US), la tomodensitométrie (CT) et l'imagerie par résonance magnétique (IRM).Celles-ci ont montré de volumineuses lésions nodulaires, peu vascularisées, de compositions habituellement hétérogènes, avec des composantes kystiques et hémorragiques identifiées dans les 3 cas. Un traitement chirurgical a été pratiqué chez toute les patientes. L'étude de la pièce opératoire a montré une tumeur encapsulée dans les 3 cas. Aucune métastase n'a été mise en évidence.Conclusion : Les SPT doivent être considérées dans le diagnostic différentiel des masses pancréatiques pédiatriques, en particulier chez les adolescentes. Certaines caractéristiques radiologiques comme des masses volumineuses bien circonscrites, des lésions hétérogènes avec des zones kystiques et hémorragiques, de plus entourées d'une pseudocapsule fibreuse réactive, suggèrent fortement le diagnostic de SPT. Celui-ci devrait ensuite être confirmé par une biopsie avant que la résection chirurgicale soit effectuée. Chez les enfants, Γ écho graphie abdominale reste la méthode de première intention, suivie par l'IRM comme technique d'imagerie de choix pour évaluer les caractéristiques et l'extension de la lésion, tout en évitant l'exposition des patients aux rayonnements ionisants.

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The diagnosis of idiopathic Parkinson's disease (IPD) is entirely clinical. The fact that neuronal damage begins 5-10 years before occurrence of sub-clinical signs, underlines the importance of preclinical diagnosis. A new approach for in-vivo pathophysiological assessment of IPD-related neurodegeneration was implemented based on recently developed neuroimaging methods. It is based on non- invasive magnetic resonance data sensitive to brain tissue property changes that precede macroscopic atrophy in the early stages of IPD. This research aims to determine the brain tissue property changes induced by neurodegeneration that can be linked to clinical phenotypes which will allow us to create a predictive model for early diagnosis in IPD. We hypothesized that the degree of disease progression in IPD patients will have a differential and specific impact on brain tissue properties used to create a predictive model of motor and non-motor impairment in IPD. We studied the potential of in-vivo quantitative imaging sensitive to neurodegeneration- related brain tissue characteristics to detect changes in patients with IPD. We carried out methodological work within the well established SPM8 framework to estimate the sensitivity of tissue probability maps for automated tissue classification for detection of early IPD. We performed whole-brain multi parameter mapping at high resolution followed by voxel-based morphometric (VBM) analysis and voxel-based quantification (VBQ) comparing healthy subjects to IPD patients. We found a trend demonstrating non-significant tissue property changes in the olfactory bulb area using the MT and R1 parameter with p<0.001. Comparing to the IPD patients, the healthy group presented a bilateral higher MT and R1 intensity in this specific functional region. These results did not correlate with age, severity or duration of disease. We failed to demonstrate any changes with the R2* parameter. We interpreted our findings as demyelination of the olfactory tract, which is clinically represented as anosmia. However, the lack of correlation with duration or severity complicates its implications in the creation of a predictive model of impairment in IPD.

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Aim: We asked whether myocardial flow reserve (MFR) by Rb-82 cardiac PET improve the selection of patients eligible for invasive coronary angiography (ICA). Material and Methods: We enrolled 26 consecutive patients with suspected or known coronary artery disease who performed dynamic Rb-82 PET/CT and (ICA) within 60 days; 4 patients who underwent revascularization or had any cardiovascular events between PET and ICA were excluded. Myocardial blood flow at rest (rMBF), at stress with adenosine (sMBF) and myocardial flow reserve (MFR=sMBF/rMBF) were estimated using the 1-compartment Lortie model (FlowQuant) for each coronary arteries territories. Stenosis severity was assessed using computer-based automated edge detection (QCA). MFR was divided in 3 groups: G1:MFR<1.5, G2:1.5≤MFR<2 and G3:2≤MFR. Stenosis severity was graded as non-significant (<50% or FFR ≥0.8), intermediate (50%≤stenosis<70%) and severe (≥70%). Correlation between MFR and percentage of stenosis were assessed using a non-parametric Spearman test. Results: In G1 (44 vessels), 17 vessels (39%) had a severe stenosis, 11 (25%) an intermediate one, and 16 (36%) no significant stenosis. In G2 (13 vessels), 2 (15%) vessels presented a severe stenosis, 7 (54%) an intermediate one, and 4 (31%) no significant stenosis. In G3 (9 vessels), 0 vessel presented a severe stenosis, 1 (11%) an intermediate one, and 8 (89%) no significant stenosis. Of note, among 11 patients with 3-vessel low MFR<1.5 (G1), 9/11 (82%) had at least one severe stenosis and 2/11 (18%) had at least one intermediate stenosis. There was a significant inverse correlation between stenosis severity and MFR among all 66 territories analyzed (rho= -0.38, p=0.002). Conclusion: Patients with MFR>2 could avoid ICA. Low MFR (G1, G2) on a vessel-based analysis seems to be a poor predictor of severe stenosis severity. Patients with 3-vessel low MFR would benefit from ICA as they are likely to present a significant stenosis in at least one vessel.

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Purpose: To examine the relationship of functional measurements with structural measures. Methods: 146 eyes of 83 test subjects underwent Heidelberg Retinal Tomography (HRTIII) (disc area<2.43, mphsd<40), and perimetry testing with Octopus (SAP; Dynamic), Pulsar (PP; TOP) and Moorfields MDT (ESTA). Glaucoma was defined as progressive structural or functional loss (20 eyes). Perimetry test points were grouped into 6 sectors based on the estimated optic nerve head angle into which the associated nerve fiber bundle enters (Garway-Heath map). Perimetry summary measures (PSM) (MD SAP/ MD PP/ PTD MDT) were calculated from the average total deviation of each measured threshold from the normal for each sector. We calculated the 95% significance level of the sectorial PSM from the respective normative data. We calculated the percentage agreement with group1 (G1), healthy on HRT and within normal perimetric limits, and group 2 (G2), abnormal on HRT and outside normal perimetric limits. We also examined the relationship of PSM and rim area (RA) in those sectors classified as abnormal by MRA (Moorfields Regression Analysis) of HRT. Results: The mean age was 65 (range= [37, 89]). The global sensitivity versus specificity of each instrument in detecting glaucomatous eyes was: MDT 80% vs. 88%, SAP 80% vs. 80%, PP 70% vs. 89% and HRT 80% vs. 79%. Highest percentage agreement of HRT (respectively G1, G2, sector) with PSM were MDT (89%, 57%, nasal superior), SAP (83%, 74%, temporal superior), PP (74%, 63%, nasal superior). Globally percentage agreement (respectively G1, G2) was MDT (92%, 28%), SAP (87%, 40%) and PP (77%, 49%). Linear regression showed there was no significant trend globally associating RA and PSM. However, sectorally the supero-nasal sector had a statistically significant (p<0.001) trend with each instrument, the associated r2 coefficients are (MDT 0.38 SAP 0.56 and PP 0.39). Conclusions: There were no significant differences in global sensitivity or specificity between instruments. Structure-function relationships varied significantly between instruments and were consistently strongest supero-nasally. Further studies are required to investigate these relationships in detail.

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Our paper aims to give a thorough description of the infra-ophiolitic melanges associated with the Mersin ophiolite. We propose new regional correlations of the Mersin melanges with other melange-like units or similar series, located both in southern Turkey and adjacent regions. The palaeotectonic implications of the correlations are also discussed. The main results may be summarized as follows: the infra-ophiolitic melange is subdivided into two units, the Upper Cretaceous Sorgun ophiolitic melange and the Ladinian-Carnian Hacialani melange. The Mersin melanges, together with the Antalya and Mamonia domains, are represented by a series of exotic units now found south of the main Taurus range, and are characteristic of the South-Taurides Exotic Units. These melanges clearly show the mixed origin of the different blocks and broken formations. Some components have a Palaeotethyan origin and are characterized by Pennsylvanian and Lower to Middle Permian pelagic and slope deposits. These Palaeotethyan remnants, found exclusively in the Hacialani melange, were reworked as major olistostromes in the Neotethys basin during the Eo-Cimmerian orogenic event. Neotethyan elements are represented by Middle Triassic seamounts and by broken formations containing typical Neotethyan conodont faunas such as Metapolygnathus mersinensis Kozur & Moix and M. primitius s. s., both present in the latest Carnian interval, as well as the occurrence of the middle Norian Epigondolella praeslovakensis Kozur, Masset & Moix. Other elements are clearly derived from the former north Anatolian passive margin and are represented by Huglu-type series including the Upper Triassic syn-rift volcanic event. These sequences attributed to the Huglu-Pindos back-arc ocean were displaced southward during the Late Cretaceous obduction event. The Tauric elements are represented by Eo-Cimmerian flysch-like and molasse sequences intercalated in Neotethyan series. Additionally, some shallow-water blocks might be derived from the Bolkardag para-autochthonous and the Taurus-Beydaglari marginal sequences.

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Abstract We introduce a label-free technology based on digital holographic microscopy (DHM) with applicability for screening by imaging, and we demonstrate its capability for cytotoxicity assessment using mammalian living cells. For this first high content screening compatible application, we automatized a digital holographic microscope for image acquisition of cells using commercially available 96-well plates. Data generated through both label-free DHM imaging and fluorescence-based methods were in good agreement for cell viability identification and a Z'-factor close to 0.9 was determined, validating the robustness of DHM assay for phenotypic screening. Further, an excellent correlation was obtained between experimental cytotoxicity dose-response curves and known IC values for different toxic compounds. For comparable results, DHM has the major advantages of being label free and close to an order of magnitude faster than automated standard fluorescence microscopy.

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BACKGROUND: Sedation and therapeutic hypothermia (TH) delay neurological responses and might reduce the accuracy of clinical examination to predict outcome after cardiac arrest (CA). We examined the accuracy of quantitative pupillary light reactivity (PLR), using an automated infrared pupillometry, to predict outcome of post-CA coma in comparison to standard PLR, EEG, and somato-sensory evoked potentials (SSEP). METHODS: We prospectively studied over a 1-year period (June 2012-June 2013) 50 consecutive comatose CA patients treated with TH (33 °C, 24 h). Quantitative PLR (expressed as the % of pupillary response to a calibrated light stimulus) and standard PLR were measured at day 1 (TH and sedation; on average 16 h after CA) and day 2 (normothermia, off sedation: on average 46 h after CA). Neurological outcome was assessed at 90 days with Cerebral Performance Categories (CPC), dichotomized as good (CPC 1-2) versus poor (CPC 3-5). Predictive performance was analyzed using area under the ROC curves (AUC). RESULTS: Patients with good outcome [n = 23 (46 %)] had higher quantitative PLR than those with poor outcome [n = 27; 16 (range 9-23) vs. 10 (1-30) % at day 1, and 20 (13-39) vs. 11 (1-55) % at day 2, both p < 0.001]. Best cut-off for outcome prediction of quantitative PLR was <13 %. The AUC to predict poor outcome was higher for quantitative than for standard PLR at both time points (day 1, 0.79 vs. 0.56, p = 0.005; day 2, 0.81 vs. 0.64, p = 0.006). Prognostic accuracy of quantitative PLR was comparable to that of EEG and SSEP (0.81 vs. 0.80 and 0.73, respectively, both p > 0.20). CONCLUSIONS: Quantitative PLR is more accurate than standard PLR in predicting outcome of post-anoxic coma, irrespective of temperature and sedation, and has comparable prognostic accuracy than EEG and SSEP.

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Acute brain slices are slices of brain tissue that are kept vital in vitro for further recordings and analyses. This tool is of major importance in neurobiology and allows the study of brain cells such as microglia, astrocytes, neurons and their inter/intracellular communications via ion channels or transporters. In combination with light/fluorescence microscopies, acute brain slices enable the ex vivo analysis of specific cells or groups of cells inside the slice, e.g. astrocytes. To bridge ex vivo knowledge of a cell with its ultrastructure, we developed a correlative microscopy approach for acute brain slices. The workflow begins with sampling of the tissue and precise trimming of a region of interest, which contains GFP-tagged astrocytes that can be visualised by fluorescence microscopy of ultrathin sections. The astrocytes and their surroundings are then analysed by high resolution scanning transmission electron microscopy (STEM). An important aspect of this workflow is the modification of a commercial cryo-ultramicrotome to observe the fluorescent GFP signal during the trimming process. It ensured that sections contained at least one GFP astrocyte. After cryo-sectioning, a map of the GFP-expressing astrocytes is established and transferred to correlation software installed on a focused ion beam scanning electron microscope equipped with a STEM detector. Next, the areas displaying fluorescence are selected for high resolution STEM imaging. An overview area (e.g. a whole mesh of the grid) is imaged with an automated tiling and stitching process. In the final stitched image, the local organisation of the brain tissue can be surveyed or areas of interest can be magnified to observe fine details, e.g. vesicles or gold labels on specific proteins. The robustness of this workflow is contingent on the quality of sample preparation, based on Tokuyasu's protocol. This method results in a reasonable compromise between preservation of morphology and maintenance of antigenicity. Finally, an important feature of this approach is that the fluorescence of the GFP signal is preserved throughout the entire preparation process until the last step before electron microscopy.

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OBJECTIVE: To study the correlation between the bacteriological and histopathological findings in placentas from women with suspected or proven chorioamnionitis (CA). METHODS: Over a 1-year period, 376 placentas were prospectively collected and processed for bacteriological and pathological studies in cases of confirmed or suspected maternal or neonatal infection. RESULTS: Histological CA was diagnosed in 26.9% of placentas (101/376), and 27.7% (28/101) of these placentas had positive bacteriological cultures. A monomicrobial culture, mainly represented by Gram-positive cocci and Gram-negative bacilli, was identified in 27% of the positive bacterial cultures. The proportion of positive cultures was higher (p=0.03) when CA was associated with funisitis, as compared with placental samples with early CA. In placentas without histological CA, bacteriological cultures were mostly negative (230/275), although pathogenic bacteria were identified in 16.3% of them (45/275). CONCLUSIONS: The histological and bacteriological results were concordant in about 70% of the examined placentas, with 61.1% negative cases (CA absent and negative bacterial cultures), and only 7.4% placentas with positive histological and bacteriological results. Discordant results (positive histology with negative bacteriology) were obtained in placentas with early CA documented by histology although possibly in relation with antibiotic prophylaxis and the presence of fastidious bacteria. Conversely, negative histology with positive bacteriology could be explained by the presence of an early-stage bacterial infection that has not yet led to detectable microscopic lesions.

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Previous work has shown that aggregating fetal brain cell cultures are able to attain a highly differentiated state, and that their development is greatly enhanced by growth and/or differentiation factors such as epidermal growth factor (EGF), basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF), and the protein kinase C-activating tumor promoter mezerein. The present study shows that in these 3-dimensional cultures the peptide growth factors EGF and bFGF as well as mezerein are able to induce the expression of the proto-oncogene c-fos. This induction was rapid and transient, in good agreement with observations reported from a wide variety of cell types in vitro. The maximal levels of c-fos mRNA found after stimulation were low in immature cultures and increased greatly as maturation progressed. Of the three factors tested, mezerein was the most potent inducer of c-fos. In contrast to the peptide growth factors EGF and bFGF which were found to induce c-fos only in glial cells, mezerein was stimulatory in glial cells as well as in neurons. A similar cell type specificity has been observed previously for the maturation-enhancing response in immature aggregate cultures. However, in the present study no correlation was found between the degree of c-fos induction and the extent of the maturation-enhancing stimulation. Immature cultures known to be most sensitive and responsive to these maturation-enhancing agents required relatively high doses of peptide growth factors for the induction of c-fos, and the maximal levels of c-fos mRNA elicited were much lower than those in differentiated cultures which did not show any long-term response to these stimuli.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)