409 resultados para diagnostic markers
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BACKGROUND: The availability of a rapid diagnostic test for malaria (RDTm) allows accurate diagnosis at all levels of health facilities. The objective of the present study was to evaluate the safety of withholding antimalarials in febrile children who have a negative test result. METHODS: We conducted a prospective 2-arm longitudinal study in areas of Tanzania that are moderately and highly endemic for malaria. Children with a history of fever were managed routinely by resident clinicians of 2 health facilities, except that no antimalarials were prescribed if the RDTm result was negative. Children were followed up at home on day 7. The main outcome was the occurrence of complications in children with negative RDTm results; children with positive RDTm results were followed up for the same outcomes for indirect comparison. RESULTS: One thousand children (median age, 24 months) were recruited. Six hundred three children (60%) had a negative RDTm result. Five hundred seventy-three (97%) of these children were cured on day 7. Forty-nine (8%) of the children with negative RDTm results spontaneously visited the dispensary before day 7, compared with 10 (3%) of the children with positive RDTm results. All children who had negative initial results had negative results again when they were tested either at spontaneous attendance or on day 7 because they were not cured clinically, except for 3 who gave positive results on days 2, 4, and 7 respectively but who did not experience any complication. Four children who had negative initial results were admitted to the hospital subsequently, all with negative results for malaria tests upon admission. Two of them died, of causes other than malaria. CONCLUSIONS: Not giving antimalarial drugs in febrile children who had a negative RDTm result was safe, even in an area highly endemic for malaria. Our study provides evidence for treatment recommendations based on parasitological diagnosis in children <5 years old.
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We proceeded to an extensive etiologic search in a young women with a hepatosplenomegaly and a chronic persistent fever. We discuss the differential diagnosis of this situation with a final diagnosis of sarcoidosis.
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The recent roll-out of rapid diagnostic tests (RDTs) for malaria has highlighted the decreasing proportion of malaria-attributable illness in endemic areas. Unfortunately, once malaria is excluded, there are few accessible diagnostic tools to guide the management of severe febrile illnesses in low resource settings. This review summarizes the current state of RDT development for several key infections, including dengue fever, enteric fever, leptospirosis, brucellosis, visceral leishmaniasis and human African trypanosomiasis, and highlights many remaining gaps. Most RDTs for non-malarial tropical infections currently rely on the detection of host antibodies against a single infectious agent. The sensitivity and specificity of host-antibody detection tests are both inherently limited. Moreover, prolonged antibody responses to many infections preclude the use of most serological RDTs for monitoring response to treatment and/or for diagnosing relapse. Considering these limitations, there is a pressing need for sensitive pathogen-detection-based RDTs, as have been successfully developed for malaria and dengue. Ultimately, integration of RDTs into a validated syndromic approach to tropical fevers is urgently needed. Related research priorities are to define the evolving epidemiology of fever in the tropics, and to determine how combinations of RDTs could be best used to improve the management of severe and treatable infections requiring specific therapy.
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Microtubule-associated protein 2 (MAP2), a protein linked to the neuronal cytoskeleton in the mature central nervous system (CNS), has recently been identified in glial precursors indicating a potential role during glial development. In the present study, we systematically analyzed the expression of MAP2 in a series of 237 human neuroepithelial tumors including paraffin-embedded specimens and tumor tissue microarrays from oligodendrogliomas, mixed gliomas, astrocytomas, glioblastomas, ependymomas, as well as dysembryoplastic neuroepithelial tumors (DNT), and central neurocytomas. In addition, MAP2-immunoreactive precursor cells were studied in the developing human brain. Three monoclonal antibodies generated against MAP2A-B or MAP2A-D isoforms were used. Variable immunoreactivity for MAP2 could be observed in all gliomas with the exception of ependymomas. Oligodendrogliomas exhibited a consistently strong and distinct pattern of expression characterized by perinuclear cytoplasmic staining without significant process labeling. Tumor cells with immunoreactive bi- or multi-polar processes were mostly encountered in astroglial neoplasms, whereas the small cell component in neurocytomas and DNT was not labeled. These features render MAP2 immunoreactivity a helpful diagnostic tool for the distinction of oligodendrogliomas and other neuroepithelial neoplasms. RT-PCR, Western blot analysis, and in situ hybridization confirmed the expression of MAP2A-C (including the novel MAP2+ 13 transcript) in both oligodendrogliomas and astrocytomas. Double fluorescent laser scanning microscopy showed that GFAP and MAP2 labeled different tumor cell populations. In embryonic human brains, MAP2-immunoreactive glial precursor cells were identified within the subventricular or intermediate zones. These precursors exhibit morphology closely resembling the immunolabeled neoplastic cells observed in glial tumors. Our findings demonstrate MAP2 expression in astrocytic and oligodendroglial neoplasms. The distinct pattern of immunoreactivity in oligodendrogliomas may be useful as a diagnostic tool. Since MAP2 expression occurs transiently in migrating immature glial cells, our findings are in line with an assumed origin of diffuse gliomas from glial precursors.
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As the evolutionary significance of hybridization is largely dictated by its extent beyond the first generation, we broadly surveyed patterns of introgression across a sympatric zone of two native poplars (Populus balsamifera, Populus deltoides) in Quebec, Canada within which European exotic Populus nigra and its hybrids have been extensively planted since the 1800s. Single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) that appeared fixed within each species were characterized by DNA-sequencing pools of pure individuals. Thirty-five of these diagnostic SNPs were employed in a high-throughput assay that genotyped 635 trees of different age classes, sampled from 15 sites with various degrees of anthropogenic disturbance. The degree of admixture within sampled trees was then assessed through Bayesian clustering of genotypes. Hybrids were present in seven of the populations, with 2.4% of all sampled trees showing spontaneous admixture. Sites with hybrids were significantly more disturbed than pure stands, while hybrids comprised both immature juveniles and trees of reproductive age. All three possible F1s were detected. Advanced-generation hybrids were consistently biased towards P. balsamifera regardless of whether hybridization had occurred with P. deltoides or P. nigra. Gene exchange between P. deltoides and P. nigra was not detected beyond the F1 generation; however, detection of a trihybrid demonstrates that even this apparent reproductive isolation does not necessarily result in an evolutionary dead end. Collectively, results demonstrate the natural fertility of hybrid poplars and suggest that introduced genes could potentially affect the genetic integrity of native trees, similar to that arising from introgression between natives.
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The expression of Ia-like antigen (Ia) has been studied in 55 cases of acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) in correlation with the expression of both Sudan Black (SB) and naphthol AS-D chloroacetate esterase (NCAE) stains. Operationally the AML cases were divided into three groups using only NCAE expression on the leukaemic cells: the first group with early maturation stage (MS1) consisted of 30 cases with less than 10% NCAE positive cells (SB: 15-100%): the MS2 group of 14 cases with 10-70% NCAE positive cells (SB: 65-100%) and the MS3 group of 11 cases with 70-100% NCAE positive cells (SB: 89-100%). Ia expression was determined by complement-dependent cytotoxicity, immunofluorescence and immunoperoxidase methods. A similar high percentage (80%) of patients from both group MS1 and MS2 expressed Ia on the surface of 32-100% of the cells. Furthermore, individual comparison of all cases from these two groups showed no correlation between Ia, NCAE and SB expression. Only in the 11 cases from the MS3 group, which included nine cases of promyelocytic leukaemias, was there a correlation between very low expression of Ia antigen with the high NCAE expression. Thus, for AML with a low degree of differentiation the expression of Ia seems to be independent of conventional cytochemical markers of cell maturation.
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Candida albicans and Candida dubliniensis are pathogenic fungi that are highly related but differ in virulence and in some phenotypic traits. During in vitro growth on certain nutrient-poor media, C. albicans and C. dubliniensis are the only yeast species which are able to produce chlamydospores, large thick-walled cells of unknown function. Interestingly, only C. dubliniensis forms pseudohyphae with abundant chlamydospores when grown on Staib medium, while C. albicans grows exclusively as a budding yeast. In order to further our understanding of chlamydospore development and assembly, we compared the global transcriptional profile of both species during growth in liquid Staib medium by RNA sequencing. We also included a C. albicans mutant in our study which lacks the morphogenetic transcriptional repressor Nrg1. This strain, which is characterized by its constitutive pseudohyphal growth, specifically produces masses of chlamydospores in Staib medium, similar to C. dubliniensis. This comparative approach identified a set of putatively chlamydospore-related genes. Two of the homologous C. albicans and C. dubliniensis genes (CSP1 and CSP2) which were most strongly upregulated during chlamydospore development were analysed in more detail. By use of the green fluorescent protein as a reporter, the encoded putative cell wall related proteins were found to exclusively localize to C. albicans and C. dubliniensis chlamydospores. Our findings uncover the first chlamydospore specific markers in Candida species and provide novel insights in the complex morphogenetic development of these important fungal pathogens.
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OBJECTIVE: To elucidate the diagnostic accuracy of granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF), interleukin-8 (IL-8), and interleukin-1 receptor antagonist (IL-1ra) in identifying patients with sepsis among critically ill pediatric patients with suspected infection. DESIGN AND SETTING: Nested case-control study in a multidisciplinary neonatal and pediatric intensive care unit (PICU) PATIENTS: PICU patients during a 12-month period with suspected infection, and plasma available from the time of clinical suspicion (254 episodes, 190 patients). MEASUREMENTS AND RESULTS: Plasma levels of G-CSF, IL-8, and IL-1ra. Episodes classified on the basis of clinical and bacteriological findings into: culture-confirmed sepsis, probable sepsis, localized infection, viral infection, and no infection. Plasma levels were significantly higher in episodes of culture-confirmed sepsis than in episodes with ruled-out infection. The area under the receiver operating characteristic curve was higher for IL-8 and G-CSF than for IL-1ra. Combining IL-8 and G-CSF improved the diagnostic performance, particularly as to the detection of Gram-negative sepsis. Sensitivity was low (<50%) in detecting Staphylococcus epidermidis bacteremia or localized infections. CONCLUSIONS: In this heterogeneous population of critically ill children with suspected infection, a model combining plasma levels of IL-8 and G-CSF identified patients with sepsis. Negative results do not rule out S. epidermidis bacteremia or locally confined infectious processes. The model requires validation in an independent data-set.
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PURPOSE OF REVIEW: This article presents an overview of the common and various kinds of pupillary disorders that can be encountered in an outpatient setting. RECENT FINDINGS: The dorsal midbrain is a site where lesions may produce either an afferent or an efferent pupillary defect. The classic pupillary syndrome secondary to a dorsal midbrain lesion is bilateral light-near dissociation. Another recognized deficit is bilateral mydriasis. Recent reports have documented unilateral mydriasis, unilateral light-near dissociation, and a relative afferent pupillary defect without visual loss in association with lesions of the dorsal midbrain. These are rare syndromes. SUMMARY: Careful history and examination can often identify and localize the pupillary disorder, as well as guide appropriate evaluation.
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Eosinophilic esophagitis (EoE) is a clinicopathologic condition of increasing recognition and prevalence. In 2007, a consensus recommendation provided clinical and histopathologic guidance for the diagnosis and treatment of EoE; however, only a minority of physicians use the 2007 guidelines, which require fulfillment of both histologic and clinical features. Since 2007, the number of EoE publications has doubled, providing new disease insight. Accordingly, a panel of 33 physicians with expertise in pediatric and adult allergy/immunology, gastroenterology, and pathology conducted a systematic review of the EoE literature (since September 2006) using electronic databases. Based on the literature review and expertise of the panel, information and recommendations were provided in each of the following areas of EoE: diagnostics, genetics, allergy testing, therapeutics, and disease complications. Because accumulating animal and human data have provided evidence that EoE appears to be an antigen-driven immunologic process that involves multiple pathogenic pathways, a new conceptual definition is proposed highlighting that EoE represents a chronic, immune/antigen-mediated disease characterized clinically by symptoms related to esophageal dysfunction and histologically by eosinophil-predominant inflammation. The diagnostic guidelines continue to define EoE as an isolated chronic disorder of the esophagus diagnosed by the need of both clinical and pathologic features. Patients commonly have high rates of concurrent allergic diatheses, especially food sensitization, compared with the general population. Proved therapeutic options include chronic dietary elimination, topical corticosteroids, and esophageal dilation. Important additions since 2007 include genetic underpinnings that implicate EoE susceptibility caused by polymorphisms in the thymic stromal lymphopoietin protein gene and the description of a new potential disease phenotype, proton pump inhibitor-responsive esophageal eosinophila. Further advances and controversies regarding diagnostic methods, surrogate disease markers, allergy testing, and treatment approaches are discussed.
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BACKGROUND: Increasing the appropriateness of use of upper gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy is important to improve quality of care while at the same time containing costs. This study explored whether detailed explicit appropriateness criteria significantly improve the diagnostic yield of upper GI endoscopy. METHODS: Consecutive patients referred for upper GI endoscopy at 6 centers (1 university hospital, 2 district hospitals, 3 gastroenterology practices) were prospectively included over a 6-month period. After controlling for disease presentation and patient characteristics, the relationship between the appropriateness of upper GI endoscopy, as assessed by explicit Swiss criteria developed by the RAND/UCLA panel method, and the presence of relevant endoscopic lesions was analyzed. RESULTS: A total of 2088 patients (60% outpatients, 57% men) were included. Analysis was restricted to the 1681 patients referred for diagnostic upper GI endoscopy. Forty-six percent of upper GI endoscopies were judged to be appropriate, 15% uncertain, and 39% inappropriate by the explicit criteria. No cancer was found in upper GI endoscopies judged to be inappropriate. Upper GI endoscopies judged appropriate or uncertain yielded significantly more relevant lesions (60%) than did those judged to be inappropriate (37%; odds ratio 2.6: 95% CI [2.2, 3.2]). In multivariate analyses, the diagnostic yield of upper GI endoscopy was significantly influenced by appropriateness, patient gender and age, treatment setting, and symptoms. CONCLUSIONS: Upper GI endoscopies performed for appropriate indications resulted in detecting significantly more clinically relevant lesions than did those performed for inappropriate indications. In addition, no upper GI endoscopy that resulted in a diagnosis of cancer was judged to be inappropriate. The use of such criteria improves patient selection for upper GI endoscopy and can thus contribute to efforts aimed at enhancing the quality and efficiency of care. (Gastrointest Endosc 2000;52:333-41).
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Rapport de synthèse: Enjeux de la recherche : La pneumonie communautaire chez l'enfant est un problème de santé publique considérable. Elle est responsable de 2 millions de mort par année, 70% survenant dans les pays en voie de développement. Sous nos latitudes son incidence est de 40/1000 enfants par année, ce qui représente une morbidité importante. Deux difficultés surviennent lorsqu'on cherche à diagnostiquer une pneumonie. La première est de distinguer une pneumonie bactérienne d'une virale, particulièrement chez les petits enfants où les infections virales des voies respiratoires inférieures sont fréquentes. L'OMS a définit la pneumonie selon des critères exclusivement cliniques et une étude effectuée à Lausanne en 2000 a montré que ces critères peuvent être utilisés dans nos contrées. La seconde difficulté est de définir l'agent causal de la pneumonie, ceci pour plusieurs raisons : L'aspiration endotrachéale, seul examen fiable, ne peut être obtenue de routine chez l'enfant vu son caractère invasif, la culture des secrétions nasopharyngées reflète la flore physiologique de la sphère ORL et une bactériémie n'est présente que dans moins de 10% des pneumonies. L'étiologie de la pneumonie reste souvent inconnue, et de ce fait plusieurs enfants reçoivent des antibiotiques pour une infection non bactérienne ce qui contribue au développement de résistances. L'objectif de cette étude était d'effectuer une recherche extensive de l'agent causal de la pneumonie et de déterminer quels facteurs pourraient aider le clinicien à différencier une pneumonie virale de bactérienne, en corrélant l'étiologie avec la sévérité clinique et les marqueurs de l'inflammation. Contexte de la recherche : II s'agissait d'une étude prospective, multicentrique, incluant les enfants âgés de 2 mois à 5 ans hospitalisés pour une pneumonie, selon les critères de l'OMS, dans le service de pédiatrie de Lausanne et Genève entre mars 2003 et Décembre 2005, avant l'implantation de la vaccination antipneumococcique de routine. Chaque enfant, en plus des examens usuels, bénéficiait d'une recherche étiologique extensive : Culture virale et bactérienne, PCR (Mycoplasma Pneumoniae, Chlamydia Pneumoniae, Virus Influenza A et B, RSV A et B, Rhinovirus, Parainfluenza 1-3, enterovirus, human metapneumovirus, coronavirus OC43, E229 ; et NL 63) et détection d'AG viraux dans les sécrétions nasopharyngées ; sérologies virales et bactériennes à l'entrée et 3 semaines après la sortie (AG Influenza A et B, Parainfluenza 1,2 et 3, RSV, Adenovirus, M.Pneumoniae et S.Pneumoniae). Conclusions : Un agent pathogène a été découvert chez 86% des 99 patients retenus confirmant le fait que plus la recherche étiologique est étendue plus le pourcentage d'agent causal trouvé est élevé. Une infection bactérienne a été découverte chez 53% des patients dont 45% avaient une infection à S. Pneumoniae confirmant l'importance d'une vaccination antipneumococcique de routine. La déshydratation et les marqueurs de l'inflammation tels que la C-Reactive Protein et la Procalcitonine étaient significativement plus élevés dans les pneumonies bactériennes. Aucune corrélation n'a été trouvée entre le degré de sévérité de la pneumonie et l'étiologie. L'étude a confirmé la haute prévalence d'infections virales (67%) et de co-infection (33%) dans la pneumonie de l'enfant sans que l'on connaisse le rôle réel du virus dans la pathogenèse de la pneumonie. Perspectives : d'autres études à la suite de celle-ci devraient être effectuées en incluant les patients ambulatoires afin de déterminer, avec un collectif plus large de patient, une éventuelle corrélation entre sévérité clinique et étiologie. Abstract : Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is a major cause of death in developing countries and of morbidity in developed countries. The objective of the study was to define the causative agents among children hospitalized for CAP defined by WHO guidelines and to correlate etiology with clinical severity and surrogate markers. Investigations included an extensive etiological workup. A potential causative agent was detected in 86% of the 99 enrolled patients, with evidence of bacterial (53%), viral (67%), and mixed (33%) infections. Streptococcus pneumoniae was accounted for in 46% of CAP. Dehydration was the only clinical sign associated with bacterial pneumonia. CRP and PCT were significantly higher in bacterial infections. Increasing the number of diagnostic tests identifies potential causes of CAP in up to 86% of children, indicating a high prevalence of viruses and frequent co-infections. The high proportion of pneumococcal infections re-emphasizes the importance of pneumococcal immunization.
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ABSTRACT: BACKGROUND: Cardiovascular magnetic resonance (CMR) has favorable characteristics for diagnostic evaluation and risk stratification of patients with known or suspected CAD. CMR utilization in CAD detection is growing fast. However, data on its cost-effectiveness are scarce. The goal of this study is to compare the costs of two strategies for detection of significant coronary artery stenoses in patients with suspected coronary artery disease (CAD): 1) Performing CMR first to assess myocardial ischemia and/or infarct scar before referring positive patients (defined as presence of ischemia and/or infarct scar to coronary angiography (CXA) versus 2) a hypothetical CXA performed in all patients as a single test to detect CAD. METHODS: A subgroup of the European CMR pilot registry was used including 2,717 consecutive patients who underwent stress-CMR. From these patients, 21% were positive for CAD (ischemia and/or infarct scar), 73% negative, and 6% uncertain and underwent additional testing. The diagnostic costs were evaluated using invoicing costs of each test performed. Costs analysis was performed from a health care payer perspective in German, United Kingdom, Swiss, and United States health care settings. RESULTS: In the public sectors of the German, United Kingdom, and Swiss health care systems, cost savings from the CMR-driven strategy were 50%, 25% and 23%, respectively, versus outpatient CXA. If CXA was carried out as an inpatient procedure, cost savings were 46%, 50% and 48%, respectively. In the United States context, cost savings were 51% when compared with inpatient CXA, but higher for CMR by 8% versus outpatient CXA. CONCLUSION: This analysis suggests that from an economic perspective, the use of CMR should be encouraged as a management option for patients with suspected CAD.
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The 22q11.2 deletion syndrome (22q11DS) is a widely recognized genetic model allowing the study of neuroanatomical biomarkers that underlie the risk for developing schizophrenia. Recent advances in magnetic resonance image analyses enable the examination of structural connectivity integrity, scarcely used in the 22q11DS field. This framework potentially provides evidence for the disconnectivity hypothesis of schizophrenia in this high-risk population. In the present study, we quantify the whole brain white matter connections in 22q11DS using deterministic tractography. Diffusion Tensor Imaging was acquired in 30 affected patients and 30 age- and gender-matched healthy participants. The Human Connectome technique was applied to register white matter streamlines with cortical anatomy. The number of fibers (streamlines) was used as a measure of connectivity for comparison between groups at the global, lobar and regional level. All statistics were corrected for age and gender. Results showed a 10% reduction of the total number of fibers in patients compared to controls. After correcting for this global reduction, preserved connectivity was found within the right frontal and right parietal lobes. The relative increase in the number of fibers was located mainly in the right hemisphere. Conversely, an excessive reduction of connectivity was observed within and between limbic structures. Finally, a disproportionate reduction was shown at the level of fibers connecting the left fronto-temporal regions. We could therefore speculate that the observed disruption to fronto-temporal connectivity in individuals at risk of schizophrenia implies that fronto-temporal disconnectivity, frequently implicated in the pathogenesis of schizophrenia, could precede the onset of symptoms and, as such, constitutes a biomarker of the vulnerability to develop psychosis. On the contrary, connectivity alterations in the limbic lobe play a role in a wide range of psychiatric disorders and therefore seem to be less specific in defining schizophrenia.