Prevalence of positive tuberculosis skin tests during 5 years of screening in a Swiss remand prison

BACKGROUND: Tuberculosis (TB) screening in prisons is recommended, but the appropriate methods remain controversial. Studies evaluating screening in remand prisons arc scarce. METHOD: Between 1997 and 2001, voluntary screening based on the tuberculin skin test (TST) was offered to all prisoners on entry into the largest remand prison in Switzerland. Prisoners with positive results underwent chest X-rays. We analysed this information collected in an anonymous database. RESULTS: A total of 4890 prisoners entered the prison and were eligible for screening; 3779 (77.3%) had TST performed on average 9 days after arrival: 46.9% were positive (induration >= 10 mm). Positive TST rates were similar over the 5 years. Women were more likely to have a negative TST (60.4%) than men (47.7%; P < 0.001, Pearson's chi(2) 16.5). Positive TSTs varied according to the prisoner's country of origin (64% for sub-Saharan Africa, 57% for Eastern Europe, 56% for North Africa, 51% for Asia and 34% for North and West Europe). CONCLUSION: The percentage of TST-positive subjects was high, and most did not receive preventive treatment for latent TB. The usefulness of systematic TST for all prisoners on entry is limited, as diagnosis of TB disease usually remains the priority in prisons. Keywords

Automated quantitative pupillometry for the prognostication of coma after cardiac arrest.

BACKGROUND: Sedation and therapeutic hypothermia (TH) delay neurological responses and might reduce the accuracy of clinical examination to predict outcome after cardiac arrest (CA). We examined the accuracy of quantitative pupillary light reactivity (PLR), using an automated infrared pupillometry, to predict outcome of post-CA coma in comparison to standard PLR, EEG, and somato-sensory evoked potentials (SSEP). METHODS: We prospectively studied over a 1-year period (June 2012-June 2013) 50 consecutive comatose CA patients treated with TH (33 °C, 24 h). Quantitative PLR (expressed as the % of pupillary response to a calibrated light stimulus) and standard PLR were measured at day 1 (TH and sedation; on average 16 h after CA) and day 2 (normothermia, off sedation: on average 46 h after CA). Neurological outcome was assessed at 90 days with Cerebral Performance Categories (CPC), dichotomized as good (CPC 1-2) versus poor (CPC 3-5). Predictive performance was analyzed using area under the ROC curves (AUC). RESULTS: Patients with good outcome [n = 23 (46 %)] had higher quantitative PLR than those with poor outcome [n = 27; 16 (range 9-23) vs. 10 (1-30) % at day 1, and 20 (13-39) vs. 11 (1-55) % at day 2, both p < 0.001]. Best cut-off for outcome prediction of quantitative PLR was <13 %. The AUC to predict poor outcome was higher for quantitative than for standard PLR at both time points (day 1, 0.79 vs. 0.56, p = 0.005; day 2, 0.81 vs. 0.64, p = 0.006). Prognostic accuracy of quantitative PLR was comparable to that of EEG and SSEP (0.81 vs. 0.80 and 0.73, respectively, both p > 0.20). CONCLUSIONS: Quantitative PLR is more accurate than standard PLR in predicting outcome of post-anoxic coma, irrespective of temperature and sedation, and has comparable prognostic accuracy than EEG and SSEP.

Management of fragility fractures in Switzerland: results of a nationwide survey.

A nationwide survey was conducted in Switzerland to assess the quality level of osteoporosis management in patients aged 50 years or older presenting with a fragility fracture to the emergency ward of the participating hospitals. Eight centres recruited 4966 consecutive patients who presented with one or more fractures between 2004 and 2006. Of these, 3667 (2797 women, 73.8 years old and 870 men, 73.0 years old in average) were considered as having a fragility fracture and included in the survey. Included patients presented with a fracture of the upper limbs (30.7%), lower limbs (26.4%), axial skeleton (19.5%) or another localisation, including malleolar fractures (23.4%). Thirty-two percent reported one or more previous fractures during adulthood. Of the 2941 (80.2%) hospitalised women and men, only half returned home after discharge. During diagnostic workup, dual x-ray absorptiometry (DXA) measurement was performed in 31.4% of the patients only. Of those 46.0% had a T-score < or =-2.5 SD and 81.1% < or =-1.0 SD. Osteoporosis treatment rate increased from 26.3% before fracture to 46.9% after fracture in women and from 13.0% to 30.3% in men. However, only 24.0% of the women and 13.8% of the men were finally adequately treated with a bone active substance, generally an oral bisphosphonate, with or without calcium / vitamin D supplements. A positive history of previous fracture vs none increased the likelihood of getting treatment with a bone active substance (36.6 vs 17.9%, ? 18.7%, 95% CI 15.1 to 22.3, and 22.6 vs 9.9%, ? 12.7%, CI 7.3 to 18.5, in women and men, respectively). In Switzerland, osteoporosis remains underdiagnosed and undertreated in patients aged 50 years and older presenting with a fragility fracture.

Assessment of letrozole and tamoxifen alone and in sequence for postmenopausal women with steroid hormone receptor-positive breast cancer: the BIG 1-98 randomised clinical trial at 8·1 years median follow-up.

BACKGROUND: Postmenopausal women with hormone receptor-positive early breast cancer have persistent, long-term risk of breast-cancer recurrence and death. Therefore, trials assessing endocrine therapies for this patient population need extended follow-up. We present an update of efficacy outcomes in the Breast International Group (BIG) 1-98 study at 8·1 years median follow-up. METHODS: BIG 1-98 is a randomised, phase 3, double-blind trial of postmenopausal women with hormone receptor-positive early breast cancer that compares 5 years of tamoxifen or letrozole monotherapy, or sequential treatment with 2 years of one of these drugs followed by 3 years of the other. Randomisation was done with permuted blocks, and stratified according to the two-arm or four-arm randomisation option, participating institution, and chemotherapy use. Patients, investigators, data managers, and medical reviewers were masked. The primary efficacy endpoint was disease-free survival (events were invasive breast cancer relapse, second primaries [contralateral breast and non-breast], or death without previous cancer event). Secondary endpoints were overall survival, distant recurrence-free interval (DRFI), and breast cancer-free interval (BCFI). The monotherapy comparison included patients randomly assigned to tamoxifen or letrozole for 5 years. In 2005, after a significant disease-free survival benefit was reported for letrozole as compared with tamoxifen, a protocol amendment facilitated the crossover to letrozole of patients who were still receiving tamoxifen alone; Cox models and Kaplan-Meier estimates with inverse probability of censoring weighting (IPCW) are used to account for selective crossover to letrozole of patients (n=619) in the tamoxifen arm. Comparison of sequential treatments to letrozole monotherapy included patients enrolled and randomly assigned to letrozole for 5 years, letrozole for 2 years followed by tamoxifen for 3 years, or tamoxifen for 2 years followed by letrozole for 3 years. Treatment has ended for all patients and detailed safety results for adverse events that occurred during the 5 years of treatment have been reported elsewhere. Follow-up is continuing for those enrolled in the four-arm option. BIG 1-98 is registered at clinicaltrials.govNCT00004205. FINDINGS: 8010 patients were included in the trial, with a median follow-up of 8·1 years (range 0-12·4). 2459 were randomly assigned to monotherapy with tamoxifen for 5 years and 2463 to monotherapy with letrozole for 5 years. In the four-arm option of the trial, 1546 were randomly assigned to letrozole for 5 years, 1548 to tamoxifen for 5 years, 1540 to letrozole for 2 years followed by tamoxifen for 3 years, and 1548 to tamoxifen for 2 years followed by letrozole for 3 years. At a median follow-up of 8·7 years from randomisation (range 0-12·4), letrozole monotherapy was significantly better than tamoxifen, whether by IPCW or intention-to-treat analysis (IPCW disease-free survival HR 0·82 [95% CI 0·74-0·92], overall survival HR 0·79 [0·69-0·90], DRFI HR 0·79 [0·68-0·92], BCFI HR 0·80 [0·70-0·92]; intention-to-treat disease-free survival HR 0·86 [0·78-0·96], overall survival HR 0·87 [0·77-0·999], DRFI HR 0·86 [0·74-0·998], BCFI HR 0·86 [0·76-0·98]). At a median follow-up of 8·0 years from randomisation (range 0-11·2) for the comparison of the sequential groups with letrozole monotherapy, there were no statistically significant differences in any of the four endpoints for either sequence. 8-year intention-to-treat estimates (each with SE ≤1·1%) for letrozole monotherapy, letrozole followed by tamoxifen, and tamoxifen followed by letrozole were 78·6%, 77·8%, 77·3% for disease-free survival; 87·5%, 87·7%, 85·9% for overall survival; 89·9%, 88·7%, 88·1% for DRFI; and 86·1%, 85·3%, 84·3% for BCFI. INTERPRETATION: For postmenopausal women with endocrine-responsive early breast cancer, a reduction in breast cancer recurrence and mortality is obtained by letrozole monotherapy when compared with tamoxifen montherapy. Sequential treatments involving tamoxifen and letrozole do not improve outcome compared with letrozole monotherapy, but might be useful strategies when considering an individual patient's risk of recurrence and treatment tolerability. FUNDING: Novartis, United States National Cancer Institute, International Breast Cancer Study Group.

Physiological traits affecting the distribution and wintering strategy of the bat Tadarida teniotis

The ability to enter torpor at low ambient temperature, which enables insectivorous bats to survive seasonal food shortage, is often seen as a prerequisite for colonizing cold environments. Free-tailed bats (Molossidae) show a distribution with a maximum latitudinal extension that appears to be intermediate between truly tropical and temperate-zone bat families. We therefore tested the hypothesis that Tadarida teniotis, the molossid species reaching the highest latitude worldwide (46 degrees N), lacks the extreme physiological adaptations to cold that enable other sympatric bats to enter further into the temperate zone. We studied the metabolism of individuals subjected to various ambient temperatures in the laboratory by respirometry, and we monitored the body temperature of free-ranging individuals in winter and early spring in the Swiss Alps using temperature-sensitive radio-tags. For comparison, metabolic data were obtained from Nyctalus noctula, a typically hibernating vespertilionid bat of similar body size and convergent foraging tactics. The metabolic data support the hypothesis that T. teniotis cannot experience such low ambient temperatures as sympatric temperate-zone vespertilionid bats without incurring much higher energetic costs for thermogenesis. The minimum rate of metabolism in torpor was obtained at 7.5 degrees-10 degrees C in T. teniotis, as compared to 2.5 degrees-5 degrees C in N. noctula. Field data showed that T. teniotis behaves as a classic thermo-conforming hibernator in the Alps, with torpor bouts lasting up to 8 d. This contradicts the widely accepted opinion that Molossidae are nonhibernating bars. However, average body temperature (10 degrees-13 degrees C) and mean arousal frequency (3.4 d in one bat in January) appear to be markedly higher than in other temperate-zone bat species. At the northern border of its range T. teniotis selects relatively warm roosts (crevices in tall, south-exposed limestone cliffs) in winter where temperatures oscillate around 10 degrees C. By this means, T. teniotis apparently avoids the risk of prolonged exposure to energetically critical ambient temperatures in torpor (<6.5 degrees-7.5 degrees C) during cold spells. Possibly shared by other Molossidae, the physiological pattern observed in T. teniotis may clearly be linked to the intermediate latitudinal extension of this bat family.

Accuracy of four cardiovascular risk scores in a Swiss population-based cohort

Purpose: To assess the global cardiovascular (CV) risk of an individual, several scores have been developed. However, their accuracy and comparability need to be evaluated in populations others from which they were derived. The aim of this study was to compare the predictive accuracy of 4 CV risk scores using data of a large population-based cohort. Methods: Prospective cohort study including 4980 participants (2698 women, mean age± SD: 52.7±10.8 years) in Lausanne, Switzerland followed for an average of 5.5 years (range 0.2 - 8.5). Two end points were assessed: 1) coronary heart disease (CHD), and 2) CV diseases (CVD). Four risk scores were compared: original and recalibrated Framingham coronary heart disease scores (1998 and 2001); original PROCAM score (2002) and its recalibrated version for Switzerland (IAS-AGLA); Reynolds risk score. Discrimination was assessed using Harrell's C statistics, model fitness using Akaike's information criterion (AIC) and calibration using pseudo Hosmer-Lemeshow test. The sensitivity, specificity and corresponding 95% confidence intervals were assessed for each risk score using the highest risk category ([20+ % at 10 years) as the "positive" test. Results: Recalibrated and original 1998 and original 2001 Framingham scores show better discrimination (>0.720) and model fitness (low AIC) for CHD and CVD. All 4 scores are correctly calibrated (Chi2<20). The recalibrated Framingham 1998 score has the best sensitivities, 37.8% and 40.4%, for CHD and CVD, respectively. All scores present specificities >90%. Framingham 1998, PROCAM and IAS-AGLA scores include the greatest proportion of subjects (>200) in the high risk category whereas recalibrated Framingham 2001 and Reynolds include <=44 subjects. Conclusion: In this cohort, we see variations of accuracy between risk scores, the original Framingham 2001 score demonstrating the best compromise between its accuracy and its limited selection of subjects in the highest risk category. We advocate that national guidelines, based on independently validated data, take into account calibrated CV risk scores for their respective countries.

Assessment of early-stage optic nerve invasion in retinoblastoma using high-resolution 1.5 Tesla MRI with surface coils: a multicentre, prospective accuracy study with histopathological correlation.

OBJECTIVES: To assess the accuracy of high-resolution (HR) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) in diagnosing early-stage optic nerve (ON) invasion in a retinoblastoma cohort. METHODS: This IRB-approved, prospective multicenter study included 95 patients (55 boys, 40 girls; mean age, 29 months). 1.5-T MRI was performed using surface coils before enucleation, including spin-echo unenhanced and contrast-enhanced (CE) T1-weighted sequences (slice thickness, 2 mm; pixel size <0.3 × 0.3 mm(2)). Images were read by five neuroradiologists blinded to histopathologic findings. ROC curves were constructed with AUC assessment using a bootstrap method. RESULTS: Histopathology identified 41 eyes without ON invasion and 25 with prelaminar, 18 with intralaminar and 12 with postlaminar invasion. All but one were postoperatively classified as stage I by the International Retinoblastoma Staging System. The accuracy of CE-T1 sequences in identifying ON invasion was limited (AUC = 0.64; 95 % CI, 0.55 - 0.72) and not confirmed for postlaminar invasion diagnosis (AUC = 0.64; 95 % CI, 0.47 - 0.82); high specificities (range, 0.64 - 1) and negative predictive values (range, 0.81 - 0.97) were confirmed. CONCLUSION: HR-MRI with surface coils is recommended to appropriately select retinoblastoma patients eligible for primary enucleation without the risk of IRSS stage II but cannot substitute for pathology in differentiating the first degrees of ON invasion. KEY POINTS: • HR-MRI excludes advanced optic nerve invasion with high negative predictive value. • HR-MRI accurately selects patients eligible for primary enucleation. • Diagnosis of early stages of optic nerve invasion still relies on pathology. • Several physiological MR patterns may mimic optic nerve invasion.

Free-breathing 3D coronary MRA: the impact of "isotropic" image resolution.

During conventional x-ray coronary angiography, multiple projections of the coronary arteries are acquired to define coronary anatomy precisely. Due to time constraints, coronary magnetic resonance angiography (MRA) usually provides only one or two views of the major coronary vessels. A coronary MRA approach that allowed for reconstruction of arbitrary isotropic orientations might therefore be desirable. The purpose of the study was to develop a three-dimensional (3D) coronary MRA technique with isotropic image resolution in a relatively short scanning time that allows for reconstruction of arbitrary views of the coronary arteries without constraints given by anisotropic voxel size. Eight healthy adult subjects were examined using a real-time navigator-gated and corrected free-breathing interleaved echoplanar (TFE-EPI) 3D-MRA sequence. Two 3D datasets were acquired for the left and right coronary systems in each subject, one with anisotropic (1.0 x 1.5 x 3.0 mm, 10 slices) and one with "near" isotropic (1.0 x 1.5 x 1.0 mm, 30 slices) image resolution. All other imaging parameters were maintained. In all cases, the entire left main (LM) and extensive portions of the left anterior descending (LAD) and the right coronary artery (RCA) were visualized. Objective assessment of coronary vessel sharpness was similar (41% +/- 5% vs. 42% +/- 5%; P = NS) between in-plane and through-plane views with "isotropic" voxel size but differed (32% +/- 7% vs. 23% +/- 4%; P < 0.001) with nonisotropic voxel size. In reconstructed views oriented in the through-plane direction, the vessel border was 86% more defined (P < 0.01) for isotropic compared with anisotropic images. A smaller (30%; P < 0.001) improvement was seen for in-plane reconstructions. Vessel diameter measurements were view independent (2.81 +/- 0.45 mm vs. 2.66 +/- 0.52 mm; P = NS) for isotropic, but differed (2.71 +/- 0.51 mm vs. 3.30 +/- 0.38 mm; P < 0.001) between anisotropic views. Average scanning time was 2:31 +/- 0:57 minutes for anisotropic and 7:11 +/- 3:02 minutes for isotropic image resolution (P < 0.001). We present a new approach for "near" isotropic 3D coronary artery imaging, which allows for reconstruction of arbitrary views of the coronary arteries. The good delineation of the coronary arteries in all views suggests that isotropic 3D coronary MRA might be a preferred technique for the assessment of coronary disease, although at the expense of prolonged scan times. Comparative studies with conventional x-ray angiography are needed to investigate the clinical utility of the isotropic strategy.

CDK9 regulates AR promoter selectivity and cell growth through serine 81 phosphorylation.

Previously we determined that S81 is the highest stoichiometric phosphorylation on the androgen receptor (AR) in response to hormone. To explore the role of this phosphorylation on growth, we stably expressed wild-type and S81A mutant AR in LHS and LAPC4 cells. The cells with increased wild-type AR expression grow faster compared with parental cells and S81A mutant-expressing cells, indicating that loss of S81 phosphorylation limits cell growth. To explore how S81 regulates cell growth, we tested whether S81 phosphorylation regulates AR transcriptional activity. LHS cells stably expressing wild-type and S81A mutant AR showed differences in the regulation of endogenous AR target genes, suggesting that S81 phosphorylation regulates promoter selectivity. We next sought to identify the S81 kinase using ion trap mass spectrometry to analyze AR-associated proteins in immunoprecipitates from cells. We observed cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK)9 association with the AR. CDK9 phosphorylates the AR on S81 in vitro. Phosphorylation is specific to S81 because CDK9 did not phosphorylate the AR on other serine phosphorylation sites. Overexpression of CDK9 with its cognate cyclin, Cyclin T, increased S81 phosphorylation levels in cells. Small interfering RNA knockdown of CDK9 protein levels decreased hormone-induced S81 phosphorylation. Additionally, treatment of LNCaP cells with the CDK9 inhibitors, 5,6-dichloro-1-β-D-ribofuranosylbenzimidazole and Flavopiridol, reduced S81 phosphorylation further, suggesting that CDK9 regulates S81 phosphorylation. Pharmacological inhibition of CDK9 also resulted in decreased AR transcription in LNCaP cells. Collectively these results suggest that CDK9 phosphorylation of AR S81 is an important step in regulating AR transcriptional activity and prostate cancer cell growth.

Patterns of Adherence to Raltegravir-Based Regimens and the Risk of Virological Failure Among HIV-Infected Patients: The RALTECAPS Cohort Study.

ABSTRACT:: Adherence patterns and their influence on virologic outcome are well characterized for protease inhibitor (PI)- and non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI)-based regimens. We aimed to determine how patterns of adherence to raltegravir influence the risk of virological failure. We conducted a prospective multicenter cohort following 81 HIV-infected antiretroviral-naive or experienced subjects receiving or starting twice-a-day raltegravir-based antiretroviral therapy. Their adherence patterns were monitored using the Medication Events Monitoring System. During follow-up (188 days, ±77), 12 (15%) of 81 subjects experienced virological failure. Longer treatment interruption [adjusted odds ratio per 24-hour increase: 2.4; 95% confidence interval: 1.2 to 6.9; P < 0.02] and average adherence (odds ratio per 5% increase: 0.68; 95% confidence interval: 0.46 to 1.00, P < 0.05) were both independently associated with virological failure controlling for prior duration of viral suppression. Timely interdose intervals and high levels of adherence to raltegravir are both necessary to control HIV replication.

Vancomycin exposure from active calcium sulfate bone filler

Objective: Bone cements and substitutes are commonly used in surgery to deliver antibiotics locally. The objective of this study was to assess the systemic absorption and disposition of vancomycin in patients treated with active calcium sulfate bone filler and to predict systemic concentrations under various conditions. Method: 277 blood samples were taken from 42 patients receiving vancomycin in bone cement during surgery. Blood samples were collected from 3h to 10 days after implantation. Vancomycin was measured by immunoenzymatic assay. Population pharmacokinetic (PK) analysis was performed using NONMEM to assess average estimates and variability of PK parameters. Based on the final model, simulations with various doses and renal function levels were performed. Results: The patients were 64 ± 20 years old, their body weight was 81 ± 22 kg and Cockcroft-Gault creatinine clearance (CLcr) 98 ± 55 mL/min. Vancomycin doses ranged from 200 mg to 6000 mg and implantation sites were hip (n=16), tibia (10) or others (16). Concentration profiles remained low and consistent with absorption rate-limited first-order release, while showing prominent variability. Mean clearance (CL) was 3.87 L/h (CV 35%), absorption rate constant (ka) 0.004 h-1 (66%) and volume of distribution (V) 9.5 L. Simulations with up to 8000 mg vancomycin implant showed systemic concentrations exceeding 20 mg/L for 3.5 days in 43% of the patients with CLcr 15 mL/min, whereas 7% of the patients with normal renal function had a concentration above 20 mg/L for 1.1 days. Subtherapeutic concentrations (0.4-4 mg/L) were predicted during a median of 22 days in patients with normal renal function and 4000 mg vancomycin implant, with limited influence of dose or renal function. Conclusion: Vancomycin-laden calcium sulfate implant does not raise toxicity concern. Selection of resistant bacteria, such as Enterococcus and Staphylococcus species, might however be a concern, as simulations show persistent subtherapeutic systemic concentrations during 3 to 4 weeks in these patients.

Natural gene-expression variation in Down syndrome modulates the outcome of gene-dosage imbalance.

Down syndrome (DS) is characterized by extensive phenotypic variability, with most traits occurring in only a fraction of affected individuals. Substantial gene-expression variation is present among unaffected individuals, and this variation has a strong genetic component. Since DS is caused by genomic-dosage imbalance, we hypothesize that gene-expression variation of human chromosome 21 (HSA21) genes in individuals with DS has an impact on the phenotypic variability among affected individuals. We studied gene-expression variation in 14 lymphoblastoid and 17 fibroblast cell lines from individuals with DS and an equal number of controls. Gene expression was assayed using quantitative real-time polymerase chain reaction on 100 and 106 HSA21 genes and 23 and 26 non-HSA21 genes in lymphoblastoid and fibroblast cell lines, respectively. Surprisingly, only 39% and 62% of HSA21 genes in lymphoblastoid and fibroblast cells, respectively, showed a statistically significant difference between DS and normal samples, although the average up-regulation of HSA21 genes was close to the expected 1.5-fold in both cell types. Gene-expression variation in DS and normal samples was evaluated using the Kolmogorov-Smirnov test. According to the degree of overlap in expression levels, we classified all genes into 3 groups: (A) nonoverlapping, (B) partially overlapping, and (C) extensively overlapping expression distributions between normal and DS samples. We hypothesize that, in each cell type, group A genes are the most dosage sensitive and are most likely involved in the constant DS traits, group B genes might be involved in variable DS traits, and group C genes are not dosage sensitive and are least likely to participate in DS pathological phenotypes. This study provides the first extensive data set on HSA21 gene-expression variation in DS and underscores its role in modulating the outcome of gene-dosage imbalance.

Development of fluid conduits in the auriferous shear zones of the Hutti Gold Mine, India: evidence for spatially and temporally heterogeneous fluid flow

The gold mineralization of the Hutti Mine is hosted by nine parallel, N - S trending, steeply dipping, 2 - 10 m wide shear zones, that transect Archaean amphibolites. The shear zones were formed after peak metamorphism during retrograde ductile D, shearing in the lower amphibolite facies. They were reactivated in the lower to mid greenschist facies by brittle-ductile D-3 shearing and intense quartz veining. The development of a S-2-S-3 crenulation cleavage facilitates the discrimination between the two deformation events and contemporaneous alteration and gold mineralization. Ductile D, shearing is associated with a pervasively developed distal chlorite - sed cite alteration assemblage in the outer parts of the shear zones and the proximal biotite-plagioclase alteration in the center of the shear zones. D3 is characterized by development of the inner chlorite-K-feldspar alteration, which forms a centimeter-scale alteration halo surrounding the laminated quartz veins and replaces earlier biotite along S-3. The average size of the laminated vein systems is 30-50 m along strike as well as down-dip and 2-6 m in width. Mass balance calculations suggest strong metasomatic changes for the proximal biotite-plagioclase alteration yielding mass and volume increase of ca. 16% and 12%, respectively. The calculated mass and volume changes of the distal chlorite-sericite alteration (ca. 11%, ca. 8%) are lower. The decrease in 6180 values of the whole rock from around 7.5 parts per thousand for the host rocks to 6-7 parts per thousand for the distal chlorite-sericite and the proximal biotite-plagioclase alteration and around 5 parts per thousand for the inner chlorite-K-feldspar alteration suggests hydrothermal alteration during two-stage deformation and fluid flow. The ductile D-2 deformation in the lower amphibolite facies has provided grain scale porosities by microfracturing. The pervasive, steady-state fluid flow resulted in a disseminated style of gold-sulfide mineralization and a penetrative alteration of the host rocks. Alternating ductile and brittle D3 deformation during lower to mid greenschist facies conditions followed the fault-valve process. Ductile creep in the shear zones resulted in a low permeability environment leading to fluid pressure build-up. Strongly episodic fluid advection and mass transfer was controlled by repeated seismic fracturing during the formation of laminated quartz(-gold) veins. The limitation of quartz veins to the extent of earlier shear zones indicate the importance of preexisting anisotropies for fault-valve action and economic gold mineralization. (C) 2003 Elsevier B.V. All rights reserved.