112 resultados para 37.018.51


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Introduction: Measures of the degree of lumbar spinal stenosis (LSS) such as antero-posterior diameter of the canal, and dural sac cross sectional area vary, and do not correlate with symptoms or results of surgery. We created a grading system, comprised of seven categories, based on the morphology of the dural sac and its contents as seen on T2 axial images. The categories take into account the ratio of rootlet/ CSF content. Grade A indicates no significant compression, grade D is equivalent to a total myelograhic block. We compared this classification with commonly used criteria of severity of stenosis. Methods: Fifty T2 axial MRI images taken at disc level from 27 symptomatic LSS patients undergoing decompressive surgery were classified twice by two radiologists and three spinal surgeons working at different institutions and countries. Dural sac cross-sectional surface area and AP diameter of the canal were measured both at disc and pedicle level from DICOM images using OsiriX software. Intraand inter-observer reliability were assessed using Cohen's, Fleiss' kappa statistics, and t test. Results: For the morphological grading the average intra-and inter observer kappas were 0.76 and 0.69+, respectively, for physicians working in the study originating country. Combining all observers the kappa values were 0.57 ± 0.19. and 0.44 ± 0.19, respectively. AP diameter and dural sac cross-sectional area measurements showed no statistically significant differences between observers. No correlation between morphological grading and AP diameter or dural sac crosssectional areawas observed in 13 (26%) and 8 cases (16%), respectively. Discussion: The proposed morphological grading relies on the identification of the dural sac and CSF better seen on full MRI series. This was not available to the external observers, which might explain the lower overall kappa values. Since no specific measurement tools are needed the grading suits everyday clinical practice and favours communication of degree of stenosis between practising physicians. The absence of a strict correlation with the dural sac surface suggests that measuring the surface alone might be insufficient in defining LSS as it is essentially a mismatch between the spinal canal and its contents. This grading is now adopted in our unit and further studies concentrating on relation between morphology, clinical symptoms and surgical results are underway.

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Background: Gout patients initiating urate lowering therapy have an increased risk of flares. Inflammation in gouty arthritis is induced by interleukin (IL)-1b. Canakinumab inhibits IL-1b effectively in clinical studies. This study compared different doses of canakinumab vs colchicine in preventing flares in gout patients initiating allopurinol therapy.Methods: In this 24 wk double blind study, gout patients (20-79 years) initiating allopurinol were randomized (1:1:1:1:1:1:2) to canakinumab s.c. single doses of 25, 50, 100, 200, 300 mg, or 150mg divided in doses every 4 wks (50þ50þ25þ25mg [q4wk]) or colchicine 0.5mg p.o. daily for 16 wks. Primary outcome was to determine the canakinumab dose giving comparable efficacy to colchicine with respect to number of flares occurring during first 16 wks. Secondary outcomes included number of patients with flares and C-reactive protein (CRP) levels during the first 16 wks.Results: 432 patients were randomized and 391 (91%) completed the study. All canakinumab doses were better than colchicine in preventing flares and therefore, a canakinumab dose comparable to colchicine couldn't be determined. Based on a negative binomialmodel, all canakinumab groups, except 25 mg, reduced the flare rate ratio per patient significantly compared to colchicine group (rate ratio estimates 25mg 0.60, 50mg 0.34, 100mg 0.28, 200mg 0.37, 300mg 0.29, q4wk 0.38; p_0.05). Percentage of patients with flares was lower for all canakinumab groups (25mg 27.3%, 50mg 16.7%, 100mg 14.8%, 200mg 18.5%, 300mg 15.1%, q4wk 16.7%) compared to colchicine group (44.4%). All patients taking canakinumab were significantly less likely to experience at least one gout flare than patients taking colchicine (odds ratio range [0.22 - 0.47]; p_0.05 for all). Median baseline CRP levels were 2.86 mg/L for 25 mg, 3.42 mg/L for 50 mg, 1.76 mg/L for 100 mg, 3.66 mg/L for 200 mg, 3.21 mg/L for 300 mg, 3.23 mg/L for q4wk canakinumab groups and 2.69 mg/L for colchicine group. In all canakinumab groups with median CRP levels above the normal range at baseline, median levels declined within 15 days of treatment and were maintained at normal levels (ULN¼3 mg/L) throughout the 16 wk period. Adverse events (AEs) occurred in 52.7% (25 mg), 55.6% (50 mg), 51.9% (100 mg), 51.9% (200 mg), 54.7% (300 mg), 58.5% (q4wk) of patients on canakinumab vs 53.7% of patients on colchicine. Serious AEs (SAE) were reported in 2 (3.6%; 25 mg), 2 (3.7%, 50 mg), 3 (5.6%, 100 mg), 3 (5.6%, 200 mg), 3 (5.7%, 300 mg), 1 (1.9%, q4wk) patients on canakinumab and in 5 (4.6%) patients on colchicine. 1 fatal SAE (myocardial infarction, not related to study drug) occurred in colchicine group.Conclusions: In this randomized, double-blind active controlled study of flare prevention in gout patients initiating allopurinol therapy, treatment with canakinumab led to a statistically significant reduction in flares compared with colchicine and was well tolerated.Disclosure statement: U.A., A.B., G.K., D.R. and P.S. are employees of and have stock options or bold holdings with Novartis Pharma AG. E.M. is a principal investigator for Novartis Pharmaceuticals Corporation. E.N. has received consulting fees from Roche. N.S. has received research grants from Novartis Pharmaceuticals Corporation. A.S. has received consultancy fees from Novartis Pharma AG, Abbott, Bristol-Myers Squibb, Essex, Pfizer, MSD, Roche, UCB and Wyeth. All other authors have declared no conflicts of interest.

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Background Working in a teaching hospital is a highly stressful occupation, which can lead to burnout. The consequences of burnout in health professionals can be very serious, both for themselves and patients. The aim of this cross-sectional study was to assess the extent of burnout and associated factors in hospital employees. Methods In the Fall of 2007, all employees of a Swiss teaching hospital were invited to complete a job satisfaction survey. It included the work-related burnout scale (scored 0-100) of the Copenhagen Burnout Inventory (CBI-French version), measuring the degree of physical and psychological fatigue and exhaustion perceived as related to the person's work; a high degree of burnout was defined as a score _50. Logistic regression analyses were used to determine factors associated with a high degree of burnout. Results A total of 4575 individuals returned the questionnaire (response rate 54%). Of them, 1503 (33%) had a high degree of burnout. The rate of burnout was higher among women (34.3% versus 30.5%, P = 0.012) and respondents younger than 40 years (37.7% versus 28.6%, P < 0.001). Executives were less prone to burnout than employees (27.1% versus 33.9%, P < 0.0019). Rates of burnout differed by profession: nurses and physicians had higher rates than administrative and logistic staff (42.8% and 37.4% versus 25.6% and 20.9%, respectively P < 0.001). Burnout was inversely associated with job satisfaction. In multivariate analysis, factors associated with burnout were overall dissatisfaction (OR 3.23; 95% CI 2.66-3.91), dissatisfaction with workload (OR 2.09; 95% CI 1.74-2.51) and work-life balance (OR 2.25; 95% CI 1.83-2.77), being a woman (OR 1.56; 95% CI 1.28-1.90), working fulltime (OR 1.41; 95% CI 1.08-1.85) and working as a nurse, a physician or in the psychosocial sector. Conclusions One-third of respondents, mostly nurses and physicians, experienced burnout and had lower levels of job satisfaction. The factors associated with burnout may help to tailor programmes aiming at reducing burnout at both the individual and organizational level within the hospital.

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BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: We previously reported increased benefit and reduced mortality after ultra-early stroke thrombolysis in a single center. We now explored in a large multicenter cohort whether extra benefit of treatment within 90 minutes from symptom onset is uniform across predefined stroke severity subgroups, as compared with later thrombolysis. METHODS: Prospectively collected data of consecutive ischemic stroke patients who received IV thrombolysis in 10 European stroke centers were merged. Logistic regression tested association between treatment delays, as well as excellent 3-month outcome (modified Rankin scale, 0-1), and mortality. The association was tested separately in tertiles of baseline National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale. RESULTS: In the whole cohort (n=6856), shorter onset-to-treatment time as a continuous variable was significantly associated with excellent outcome (P<0.001). Every fifth patient had onset-to-treatment time≤90 minutes, and these patients had lower frequency of intracranial hemorrhage. After adjusting for age, sex, admission glucose level, and year of treatment, onset-to-treatment time≤90 minutes was associated with excellent outcome in patients with National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale 7 to 12 (odds ratio, 1.37; 95% confidence interval, 1.11-1.70; P=0.004), but not in patients with baseline National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale>12 (odds ratio, 1.00; 95% confidence interval, 0.76-1.32; P=0.99) and baseline National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale 0 to 6 (odds ratio, 1.04; 95% confidence interval, 0.78-1.39; P=0.80). In the latter, however, an independent association (odds ratio, 1.51; 95% confidence interval, 1.14-2.01; P<0.01) was found when considering modified Rankin scale 0 as outcome (to overcome the possible ceiling effect from spontaneous better prognosis of patients with mild symptoms). Ultra-early treatment was not associated with mortality. CONCLUSIONS: IV thrombolysis within 90 minutes is, compared with later thrombolysis, strongly and independently associated with excellent outcome in patients with moderate and mild stroke severity.

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Objective: To determine the role of the surgeon in the occurrence of surgical site infection (SSI) following colon surgery, with respect to his or her adherence to guidelines and his or her experience.Design, Setting, and Patients: Prospective cohort study of 2393 patients who underwent colon surgery performed by 31 surgeons in 9 secondary and tertiary care public Swiss hospitals, recruited from a surveillance program for SSI between March 1, 1998, and December 31, 2008, and followed up for 1 month after their operation.Main Outcome Measures: Risk factors for SSI were identified in univariate and multivariate analyses that included the patients' and procedures' characteristics, the hospitals, and the surgeons as candidate covariates. Correlations were sought between surgeons' individual adjusted risks, their self-reported adherence to guidelines, and the delay since their board certification.Results: A total of 428 SSIs (17.9%) were identified, with hospital rates varying from 4.0% to 25.2% and individual surgeon rates varying from 3.7% to 36.1%. Features of the patients and procedures associated with SSI in univariate analyses were male sex, age, American Society of Anesthesiologists score, contamination class, operation duration, and emergency procedure. Correctly timed antibiotic prophylaxis and laparoscopic approach were protective. Multivariate analyses adjusting for these features and for the hospitals found 4 surgeons with higher risk of SSI (odds ratio [OR] = 2.37, 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.51-3.70; OR = 2.19, 95% CI, 1.41-3.39; OR = 2.15, 95% CI, 1.02-4.53; and OR = 1.97, 95% CI, 1.18-3.30) and 2 surgeons with lower risk of SSI (OR = 0.43, 95% CI, 0.19-0.94; and OR = 0.19, 95% CI, 0.04-0.81). No correlation was found between surgeons' individual adjusted risks and their adherence to guidelines or their experience.Conclusion: For reasons beyond adherence to guidelines or experience, the surgeon may constitute an independent risk factor for SSI after colon surgery.

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BACKGROUND: Survival after pancreatic head adenocarcinoma surgery is determined by tumor characteristics, resection margins, and adjuvant chemotherapy. Few studies have analyzed the long-term impact of postoperative morbidity. The aim of the present study was to assess the impact of postoperative complications on long-term survival after pancreaticoduodenectomy for cancer. METHODS: Of 294 consecutive pancreatectomies performed between January 2000 and July 2011, a total of 101 pancreatic head resections for pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma were retrospectively analyzed. Postoperative complications were classified on a five-grade validated scale and were correlated with long-term survival. Grade IIIb to IVb complications were defined as severe. RESULTS: Postoperative mortality and morbidity were 5 and 57 %, respectively. Severe postoperative complications occurred in 16 patients (16 %). Median overall survival was 1.4 years. Significant prognostic factors of survival were the N-stage of the tumor (median survival 3.4 years for N0 vs. 1.3 years for N1, p = 0.018) and R status of the resection (median survival 1.6 years for R0 vs. 1.2 years for R1, p = 0.038). Median survival after severe postoperative complications was decreased from 1.9 to 1.2 years (p = 0.06). Median survival for N0 or N1 tumor or after R0 resection was not influenced by the occurrence and severity of complications, but patients with a R1 resection and severe complications showed a worsened median survival of 0.6 vs. 2.0 years without severe complications (p = 0.0005). CONCLUSIONS: Postoperative severe morbidity per se had no impact on long-term survival except in patients with R1 tumor resection. These results suggest that severe complications after R1 resection predict poor outcome.

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Objectives: The aim of this study was to compare specificity and sensitivity of different biological markers that can be used in a forensic field to identify potentially dangerous drivers because of their alcohol habits. Methods: We studied 280 Swiss drivers after driving while under the alcohol influence. 33 were excluded for not having CDT N results, 247 were included (218 men (88%) and 29 women (12%). Mean age was 42,4 (SD:12, min: 20 max: 76). The evaluation of the alcohol consumption concerned the month before the CDT test and was considered as such after the interview: Heavy drinkers (>3 drinks per day): 60 (32.7%), < 3 drinks per day and moderate: 127 (51.4%) 114 (46.5%), abstinent: 60 (24.3%) 51 (21%). Alcohol intake was monitored by structured interviews, self-reported drinking habits and the C-Audit questionnaire as well as information provided by their family and general practitioner. Consumption was quantified in terms of standard drinks, which contain approximately 10 grams of pure alcohol (Ref. WHO). Results: comparison between moderate (less or equal to 3 drinks per day) and excessive drinkers (more than 3 drinks) Marker ROC area 95% CI cut-off sensitivity specificity CDT TIA 0.852 0.786-0917 2.6* 0.93 LR+1.43 0.35 LR-0.192 CDT N latex 0.875 0.821-0.930 2.5* 0.66 LR+ 6.93 0.90 LR- 0.369 Asialo+disialo-tf 0.881 0.826-0.936 1.2* 0.78 LR+4.07 0.80 LR-0.268 1.7° 0.66 LR+8.9 0.93 LR-0.360 GGT 0.659 0.580-0.737 85* 0.37 LR+2.14 0.83 LR-0.764 * cut-off point suggested by the manufacturer ° cut-off point suggested by our laboratory Conclusion: With the cut-off point established by the manufacturer, CDT TIA performed poorly in term of specificity. N latex CDT and CZE CDT were better, especially if a 1.7 cut-off is used with CZE

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BACKGROUND: Higher nighttime blood pressure (BP) and the loss of nocturnal dipping of BP are associated with an increased risk for cardiovascular events. However, the determinants of the loss of nocturnal BP dipping are only beginning to be understood. We investigated whether different indicators of physical activity were associated with the loss of nocturnal dipping of BP. METHODS: We conducted a cross-sectional study of 103 patients referred for 24-hour ambulatory monitoring of BP. We measured these patients' step count (SC), active energy expenditure (AEE), and total energy expenditure simultaneously, using actigraphs. RESULTS: In our study population of 103 patients, most of whom were hypertensive, SC and AEE were associated with nighttime systolic BP in univariate (SC, r = -0.28, P < 0.01; AEE, r = -0.20, P = 0.046) and multivariate linear regression analyses (SC, coefficient beta = -5.37, P < 0.001; AEE, coefficient beta = -0.24, P < 0.01). Step count was associated with both systolic (r = 0.23, P = 0.018) and diastolic (r = 0.20, P = 0.045) BP dipping. Nighttime systolic BP decreased progressively across the categories of sedentary, moderately active, and active participants (125mm Hg, 116mm Hg, 112mm Hg, respectively; P = 0.002). The degree of BP dipping of BP increased progressively across the same three categories of activity (respectively 8.9%, 14.6%, and 18.6%, P = 0.002, for systolic BP and respectively 12.8%, 18.1%, and 22.2%, P = 0.006, for diastolic BP). CONCLUSIONS: Step count is continuously associated with nighttime systolic BP and with the degree of BP dipping independently of 24-hour mean BP. The combined use of an actigraph for measuring indicators of physical activity and a device for 24-hour measurement of ambulatory BP may help identify patients at increased risk for cardiovascular events in whom increased physical activity toward higher target levels may be recommended.

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Background: Interventional catheterization is being increasingly used for relief of residual lesions in congenital heart disease. Exact anatomical imaging is crucial in the planning of an intervention. This can be provided non-invasively and without radiation by contrast-enhanced MR angiography (CEMRA). Aim: To evaluate the accuracy of the measurements of the vessels obtained by CEMRA in comparison to those obtained by conventional X-ray angiography (CXA). Methods: Retrospective blinded measurement of the diameters of aorta and pulmonary arteries on the CEMRA and CXA images, in the same locations. Comparison of the results by Pearson correlation and by calculating the limits of agreement. Results: Twenty-one children with congenital heart disease, mean age 5.6 +- 5.2 years, weight 21.1 +- 18.4 kg, underwent CEMRA and catheterization for assessment or treatment of a residual lesion. The time interval between the CEMRA and the CXA examination was 2.6 +- 2.3 months. A total of 98 measurements, 37 of the aorta and 61 of the pulmonary arteries were performed on the images obtained by each technique. The correlation between CEMRA and CXA measurements was excellent, r = 0.97, p < 0.0001. The mean difference between the two techniques was 0.018 +- 1.1mm; the limits of agreement were -2.14 and +2.18mm. Similar agreement was found for measures of the aorta (r +- 0.97, mean difference 0.20 = 1.08 mm) and of the pulmonary arteries (r +- 0.97, mean difference 0.048 = 0.89 mm). Conclusions: CEMRA provide accurate quantitative anatomical information, which highly agrees with CXA data, and can therefore be used for planning interventional catheterization.

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PURPOSE: To report feasibility and potential benefits of high-frequency jet ventilation (HFJV) in tumor ablations techniques in liver, kidney, and lung lesions. METHODS: This prospective study included 51 patients (14 women, mean age 66 years) bearing 66 tumors (56 hepatic, 5 pulmonary, 5 renal tumors) with a median size of 16 ± 8.7 mm, referred for tumor ablation in an intention-to-treat fashion before preoperative anesthesiology visit. Cancellation and complications of HFJV were prospectively recorded. Anesthesia and procedure duration, as well as mean CO2 capnea, were recorded. When computed tomography guidance was used, 3D spacial coordinates of an anatomical target <2 mm in diameter on 8 slabs of 4 slices of 3.75-mm slice thickness were registered. RESULTS: HFJV was used in 41 of 51 patients. Of the ten patients who were not candidate for HFJV, two patients had contraindication to HFJV (severe COPD), three had lesions invisible under HFJV requiring deep inspiration apnea for tumor targeting, and five patients could not have HFJV because of unavailability of a trained anesthetic team. No specific complication or hypercapnia related to HFJV were observed despite a mean anesthetic duration of 2 h and ventilation performed in procubitus (n = 4) or lateral decubitus (n = 6). Measured internal target movement was 0.3 mm in x- and y-axis and below the slice thickness of 3.75 mm in the z-axis in 11 patients. CONCLUSIONS: HFJV is feasible in 80 % of patients allowing for near immobility of internal organs during liver, kidney, and lung tumor ablation.

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We assessed the safety, tolerability, and immunogenicity of a mixture of three synthetic peptides derived from the Plasmodium vivax circumsporozoite protein formulated in Montanide ISA 720 or Montanide ISA 51. Forty healthy malaria-naive volunteers were allocated to five experimental groups (A-E): four groups (A-D) were immunized intramuscularly with 50 and 100 μg/dose injections of a mixture of N, R, and C peptides formulated in the two different adjuvants at 0, 2, and 4 months and one group was administered placebo. Vaccines were immunogenic, safe, well tolerated, and no serious adverse events related to the vaccine occurred. Seroconversion occurred in > 90% of the vaccines and antibodies recognized the sporozoite protein on immunofluorescent antibody test. Vaccines in Montanide ISA 51 showed a higher sporozoite protein recognition and interferon production. Results encourage further testing of the vaccine protective efficacy.

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BACKGROUND: We aimed to compare panitumumab, a fully human monoclonal antibody against EGFR, plus radiotherapy with chemoradiotherapy in patients with unresected, locally advanced squamous-cell carcinoma of the head and neck. METHODS: In this international, open-label, randomised, controlled, phase 2 trial, we recruited patients with locally advanced squamous-cell carcinoma of the head and neck from 22 sites in eight countries worldwide. Patients aged 18 years and older with stage III, IVa, or IVb, previously untreated, measurable (≥10 mm for at least one dimension), locally advanced squamous-cell carcinoma of the head and neck (non-nasopharygeal) and an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group performance status of 0-1 were randomly assigned (2:3) by an independent vendor to open-label chemoradiotherapy (two cycles of cisplatin 100 mg/m(2) during radiotherapy) or to radiotherapy plus panitumumab (three cycles of panitumumab 9 mg/kg every 3 weeks administered with radiotherapy) using a stratified randomisation with a block size of five. All patients received 70-72 Gy to gross tumour and 54 Gy to areas of subclinical disease with accelerated fractionation radiotherapy. The primary endpoint was local-regional control at 2 years, analysed in all randomly assigned patients who received at least one dose of their assigned protocol-specific treatment (chemotherapy, radiation, or panitumumab). The trial is closed and this is the final analysis. This study is registered with ClinicalTrials.gov, number NCT00547157. FINDINGS: Between Nov 30, 2007, and Nov 16, 2009, 152 patients were enrolled, and 151 received treatment (61 in the chemoradiotherapy group and 90 in the radiotherapy plus panitumumab group). Local-regional control at 2 years was 61% (95% CI 47-72) in the chemoradiotherapy group and 51% (40-62) in the radiotherapy plus panitumumab group. The most frequent grade 3-4 adverse events were mucosal inflammation (25 [40%] of 62 patients in the chemoradiotherapy group vs 37 [42%] of 89 patients in the radiotherapy plus panitumumab group), dysphagia (20 [32%] vs 36 [40%]), and radiation skin injury (seven [11%] vs 21 [24%]). Serious adverse events were reported in 25 (40%) of 62 patients in the chemoradiotherapy group and in 30 (34%) of 89 patients in the radiotherapy plus panitumumab group. INTERPRETATION: Panitumumab cannot replace cisplatin in the combined treatment with radiotherapy for unresected stage III-IVb squamous-cell carcinoma of the head and neck, and the role of EGFR inhibition in locally advanced squamous-cell carcinoma of the head and neck needs to be reassessed. FUNDING: Amgen.

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Etude de cohorte en France et en Suisse (7 centres). Analyse sémiologique des cas de maladie de Fabry (MF). Les cas index étaient 12 H, 5 F : âgemoyen au diagnostic 30 (9-58) et 34 ans (10-49), resp. Chez les H, le 1er symptôme était : acroparesthésies (acroP) (n=9) en moyenne à 8 ans (4-19). Le délai moyen premier symptôme-MF était de 17 ans (0-51), plus court en cas d'acroP qu'en cas d'autre symptôme révélateur (12.3 vs 19.6 ans). Les acroP « négligées » retardaient le diagnostic : angiokératomes (n=1, délai 28 ans), AVC du sujet jeune (n=2, délais 20 et 24 ans), insuffisance rénale terminale (n=1, délai 51 ans). Deux patients avaient une sémiologie complète : acroP, angiokératomes, hypohidrose, cornée verticillée, atteinte cérébrale, rénale (2 transplantations), cardiaque. Une hypoacousie était fréquente (n=6). Les errances diagnostiques ont été : SEP, neurobrucellose, PAN, cardiomyopathie hypertensive malgré l'absence d'HTA. Chez les F, le 1er symptôme était : acroP (n=3), cornée verticillée (n=1), angiokératomes (n=1). Le délai premier symptôme-MF était en moyenne de 15.6 ans (0-37). Tous les patients, à l'exception d'1 F, sont sous traitement enzymatique. Dans leurs familles, 47 autres cas (27H/20F) ont été diagnostiqués. La MF est à transmission dominante liée à l'X, avec expressivité variable. Elle atteint l'homme et la femme. Le diagnostic est trop tardif : l'interniste doit connaître la MF pour laquelle existe un traitement par alpha-galactosidase.