118 resultados para High-Grade Thorium


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Telomerase activity (TA) is detected in most human cancers but, with few exceptions, not in normal somatic cells. Little is known about TA in soft tissue tumors. We have examined a series of benign and malignant soft tissue tumors for TA using the telomerase repeat amplification protocol assay. Analysis of the expression of the human telomerase reverse transcriptase was also carried out using RT-PCR. TA was undetectable in benign lesions (15 of 15) and low-grade sarcomas (6 of 6) and was detectable in 50% (19 of 38) of intermediate-/high-grade sarcomas. Although the presence of TA in soft tissue tumors is synonymous with malignancy, it is neither a reliable method in making the distinction between reactive/benign and malignant (especially low-grade) lesions nor a reliable marker of tumor aggressiveness. Leiomyosarcomas and storiform/pleomorphic malignant fibrous histiocytomas rarely showed TA, irrespective of their grade. A strong correlation between human telomerase reverse transcriptase mRNA expression and TA was observed, supporting the close relationship between both parameters. No significant relationship was observed between proliferative activity (as assessed by MIB-1 immunolabeling) and TA. We verified that the absence of telomerase expression was not due to the presence of telomerase inhibitors and therefore alternative mechanism(s) for cell immortalization, yet to be determined, seem to be involved in the development and/or maintenance of some soft tissue sarcomas.

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Low-grade osteosarcoma is a rare malignancy that may be subdivided into two main subgroups on the basis of location in relation to the bone cortex, that is, parosteal osteosarcoma and low-grade central osteosarcoma. Their histological appearance is quite similar and characterized by spindle cell stroma with low-to-moderate cellularity and well-differentiated anastomosing bone trabeculae. Low-grade osteosarcomas have a simple genetic profile with supernumerary ring chromosomes comprising amplification of chromosome 12q13-15, including the cyclin-dependent kinase 4 (CDK4) and murine double-minute type 2 (MDM2) gene region. Low-grade osteosarcoma can be confused with fibrous and fibro-osseous lesions such as fibromatosis and fibrous dysplasia on radiological and histological findings. We investigated MDM2-CDK4 immunohistochemical expression in a series of 72 low-grade osteosarcomas and 107 fibrous or fibro-osseous lesions of the bone or paraosseous soft tissue. The MDM2-CDK4 amplification status of low-grade osteosarcoma was also evaluated by comparative genomic hybridization array in 18 cases, and the MDM2 amplification status was evaluated by fluorescence in situ hybridization or quantitative real-time polymerase chain reaction in 31 cases of benign fibrous and fibro-osseous lesions. MDM2-CDK4 immunostaining and MDM2 amplification by fluorescence in situ hybridization or quantitative real-time polymerase chain reaction were investigated in a control group of 23 cases of primary high-grade bone sarcoma, including 20 conventional high-grade osteosarcomas, two pleomorphic spindle cell sarcomas/malignant fibrous histiocytomas and one leiomyosarcoma. The results showed that MDM2 and/or CDK4 immunoreactivity was present in 89% of low-grade osteosarcoma specimens. All benign fibrous and fibro-osseous lesions and the tumors of the control group were negative for MDM2 and CDK4. These results were consistent with the MDM2 and CDK4 amplification results. In conclusion, immunohistochemical expression of MDM2 and CDK4 is specific and provides sensitive markers for the diagnosis of low-grade osteosarcomas, helping to differentiate them from benign fibrous and fibro-osseous lesions, particularly in cases with atypical radio-clinical presentation and/or limited biopsy samples.

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Deformation of the Circum-Rhodope Belt Mesozoic (Middle Triassic to earliest Lower Cretaceous) low-grade schists underneath an arc-related ophiolitic magmatic suite and associated sedimentary successions in the eastern Rhodope-Thrace region occurred as a two-episode tectonic process: (i) Late Jurassic deformation of arc to margin units resulting from the eastern Rhodope-Evros arc-Rhodope terrane continental margin collision and accretion to that margin, and (ii) Middle Eocene deformation related to the Tertiary crustal extension and final collision resulting in the closure of the Vardar ocean south of the Rhodope terrane. The first deformational event D-1 is expressed by Late Jurassic NW-N vergent fold generations and the main and subsidiary planar-linear structures. Although overprinting, these structural elements depict uniform bulk north-directed thrust kinematics and are geometrically compatible with the increments of progressive deformation that develops in same greenschist-facies metamorphic grade. It followed the Early-Middle Jurassic magmatic evolution of the eastern Rhodope-Evros arc established on the upper plate of the southward subducting Maliac-Meliata oceanic lithosphere that established the Vardar Ocean in a supra-subduction back-arc setting. This first event resulted in the thrust-related tectonic emplacement of the Mesozoic schists in a supra-crustal level onto the Rhodope continental margin. This Late Jurassic-Early Cretaceous tectonic event related to N-vergent Balkan orogeny is well-constrained by geochronological data and traced at a regional-scale within distinct units of the Carpatho-Balkan Belt. Following subduction reversal towards the north whereby the Vardar Ocean was subducted beneath the Rhodope margin by latest Cretaceous times, the low-grade schists aquired a new position in the upper plate, and hence, the Mesozoic schists are lacking the Cretaceous S-directed tectono-metamorphic episode whose effects are widespread in the underlying high-grade basement. The subduction of the remnant Vardar Ocean located behind the colliding arc since the middle Cretaceous was responsible for its ultimate closure, Early Tertiary collision with the Pelagonian block and extension in the region caused the extensional collapse related to the second deformational event D-2. This extensional episode was experienced passively by the Mesozoic schists located in the hanging wall of the extensional detachments in Eocene times. It resulted in NE-SW oriented open folds representing corrugation antiforms of the extensional detachment surfaces, brittle faulting and burial history beneath thick Eocene sediments as indicated by 42.1-39.7 Ma Ar-40/Ar-39 mica plateau ages obtained in the study. The results provide structural constraints for the involvement components of Jurassic paleo-subduction zone in a Late Jurassic arc-continental margin collisional history that contributed to accretion-related crustal growth of the Rhodope terrane. (C) 2011 Elsevier Ltd. All rights reserved.

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In the NW Himalaya of India, high-grade metamorphic rocks of the High Himalayan Crystalline Zone (HHCZ) are exposed as a 50 km large dome along the Miyar and Gianbul valleys. This Gianbul dome is cored by migmatitic paragneiss formed at peak conditions around 750 degreesC and 8 kbar, and symmetrically surrounded by sillimanite, kyanite +/- staurolite, garnet, biotite, and chlorite Barrovian mineral zones. Thermobarometric and structural investigations reveal that the Gianbul dome results from a polyphase tectono-metamorphic evolution. The first phase corresponds to the NE-directed thrusting of the Shikar Beh nappe, that is responsible for the Barrovian prograde metamorphic field gradient in the southern limb of the dome. In the northern limb of the dome, the Barrovian prograde metamorphism is the consequence of a second tectonic phase, associated with the SW-directed thrusting of the Nyimaling-Tsarap nappe. Following these crustal thickening events, exhumation and doming of the HHCZ high-grade rocks were controlled by extension along the north-dipping Zanskar Shear Zone, in the frontal part of the Nyimaling-Tsarap nappe, as well as by coeval to late extension along the south-dipping Khanjar Shear Zone, in the southern limb of the Gianbul dome. Rapid syn-convergence extension along both of these detachments induced a nearly isothermal decompression, resulting in a high-temperature/low-pressure metamorphic overprint, as well as enhanced partial melting. Such a rapid exhumation within a compressional orogenic context appears unlikely to be controlled solely by granitic diapirism. Alternatively, large-scale doming in the Himalaya could reflect a sub-vertical ductile extrusion of partially melted rocks.

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Transient high-grade bacteremia following invasive procedures carries a risk of infective endocarditis (IE). This is supported by experimental endocarditis. On the other hand, case-control studies showed that IE could be caused by cumulative exposure to low-grade bacteremia occurring during daily activities. However, no experimental demonstration of this latter possibility exists. This study investigated the infectivity in animals of continuous low-grade bacteremia compared to that of brief high-grade bacteremia. Rats with aortic vegetations were inoculated with Streptococcus intermedius, Streptococcus gordonii or Staphylococcus aureus (strains Newman and P8). Animals were challenged with 10(3) to 10(6) CFU. Identical bacterial numbers were given by bolus (1 ml in 1 min) or continuous infusion (0.0017 ml/min over 10 h). Bacteremia was 50 to 1,000 times greater after bolus than during continuous inoculation. Streptococcal bolus inoculation of 10(5) CFU infected 63 to 100% vegetations compared to 30 to 71% infection after continuous infusion (P > 0.05). When increasing the inoculum to 10(6) CFU, bolus inoculation infected 100% vegetations and continuous infusion 70 to 100% (P > 0.05). S. aureus bolus injection of 10(3) CFU infected 46 to 57% valves. This was similar to the 53 to 57% infection rates produced by continuous infusion (P > 0.05). Inoculation of 10(4) CFU of S. aureus infected 80 to 100% vegetations after bolus and 60 to 75% after continuous infusion (P > 0.05). These results show that high-level bacteremia is not required to induce experimental endocarditis and support the hypothesis that cumulative exposure to low-grade bacteremia represents a genuine risk of IE in humans.

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The geologic structures and metamorphic zonation of the northwestern Indian Himalaya contrast significantly with those in the central and eastern parts of the range, where the high-grade metamorphic rocks of the High Himalayan Crystalline (HHC) thrust southward over the weakly metamorphosed sediments of the Lesser Himalaya along the Main Central Thrust (MCT). Indeed, the hanging wall of the MCT in the NW Himalaya mainly consists of the greenschist facies metasediments of the Chamba zone, whereas HHC high-grade rocks are exposed more internally in the range as a large-scale dome called the Gianbul dome. This Gianbul dome is bounded by two oppositely directed shear zones, the NE-dipping Zanskar Shear Zone (ZSZ) on the northern flank and the SW-dipping Miyar Shear Zone (MSZ) on the southern limb. Current models for the emplacement of the HHC in NW India as a dome structure differ mainly in terms of the roles played by both the ZSZ and the MSZ during the tectonothermal evolution of the HHC. In both the channel flow model and wedge extrusion model, the ZSZ acts as a backstop normal fault along which the high-grade metamorphic rocks of the HHC of Zanskar are exhumed. In contrast, the recently proposed tectonic wedging model argues that the ZSZ and the MSZ correspond to one single detachment system that operates as a subhorizontal backthrust off of the MCT. Thus, the kinematic evolution of the two shear zones, the ZSZ and the MSZ, and their structural, metamorphic and chronological relations appear to be diagnostic features for discriminating the different models. In this paper, structural, metamorphic and geochronological data demonstrate that the MSZ and the ZSZ experienced two distinct kinematic evolutions. As such, the data presented in this paper rule out the hypothesis that the MSZ and the ZSZ constitute one single detachment system, as postulated by the tectonic wedging model. Structural, metamorphic and geochronological data are used to present an alternative tectonic model for the large-scale doming in the NW Indian Himalaya involving early NE-directed tectonics, weakness in the upper crust, reduced erosion at the orogenic front and rapid exhumation along both the ZSZ and the MSZ.

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BACKGROUND: There are only scarce data about the benefit of adjunctive chemotherapy in patients with localized synovial sarcoma (SS). PATIENTS AND METHODS: Data from 237 SS patients recorded in the database of the French Sarcoma Group were retrospectively analyzed. The respective impact of radiotherapy, neo-adjuvant chemotherapy and adjuvant chemotherapy on overall survival (OS), local recurrence-free survival (LRFS) and distant recurrence-free survival (DRFS) were assessed after adjustment to prognostic factors. RESULTS: The median follow-up was 58 months (range 1-321). Adjuvant, neo-adjuvant chemotherapy and postoperative radiotherapy were administered in 112, 45 and 181 cases, respectively. In all, 59% of patients treated with chemotherapy received an ifosfamide-containing regimen. The 5-year OS, LRFS and DRFS rates were 64.0%, 70% and 57%, respectively. On multivariate analysis, age >35 years old, grade 3 and not-R0 margins were highly significant independent predictors of worse OS. After adjustment to prognostic factors, radiotherapy significantly improved LRFS but not DRFS or OS. Neither neo-adjuvant nor adjuvant chemotherapy had significant impact on OS, LRFS or DRFS. CONCLUSION: As for other high-grade soft-tissue sarcomas, well-planned wide surgical excision with adjuvant radiotherapy remains the cornerstone of treatment for SS. Neo-adjuvant or adjuvant chemotherapy should not be delivered outside a clinical trial setting.

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Permo-Mesozoic Canavese sediments are pinched in between the pre-Alpine high-grade metamorphic Ivrea Zone and the Alpine metamorphosed Sesia Zone along the Insubric Line W of Locarno. According to the ``illite crystallinity'' these sediments were deformed under anchi- and epizonal conditions. Synkinematically formed white mica in the mylonitized Canavese sediments yields the following K-Ar age ranges: 60-76 Ma at the southwestern end, 28-43 Ma in the central part and 19-26 Ma in the northeastern part of the Insubric Line W of Locarno. The youngest age group dates the main uplift and dextral strike-slip movements of the Insubric Line, comprising mylonites in the NE and cataclasites in the SW. This activity correlates with Late Oligocene to Early Miocene rapid cooling and uplift of the Central Alps.

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PRINCIPLES: Patients with carotid artery stenosis (CAS) are at risk of ipsilateral stroke and chronic compromise of cerebral blood flow. It is under debate whether the hypo-perfusion or embolism in CAS is directly related to cognitive impairment. Alternatively, CAS may be a marker for underlying risk factors, which themselves influence cognition. We aimed to determine cognitive performance level and the emotional state of patients with CAS. We hypo-thesised that patients with high grade stenosis, bilateral stenosis, symptomatic patients and/or those with relevant risk factors would suffer impairment of their cognitive performance and emotional state. METHODS: A total of 68 patients with CAS of ≥70% were included in a prospective exploratory study design. All patients underwent structured assessment of executive functions, language, verbal and visual memory, motor speed, anxiety and depression. RESULTS: Significantly more patients with CAS showed cognitive impairments (executive functions, word production, verbal and visual memory, motor speed) and anxiety than expected in a normative sample. Bilateral and symptomatic stenosis was associated with slower processing speed. Cognitive performance and anxiety level were not influenced by the side and the degree of stenosis or the presence of collaterals. Factors associated with less co-gnitive impairment included higher education level, female gender, ambidexterity and treated hypercholesterolemia. CONCLUSIONS: Cognitive impairment and increased level of anxiety are frequent in patients with carotid stenosis. The lack of a correlation between cognitive functioning and degree of stenosis or the presence of collaterals, challenges the view that CAS per se leads to cognitive impairment.

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Barrett's esophagus (BE) is an acquired condition in which the normal lining of the esophagus is replaced by intestinal metaplastic epithelium. BE can evolve to esophageal adenocarcinoma (EAC) through low-grade dysplasia (LGD) and high-grade dysplasia (HGD). The only generally accepted marker for increased risk of EAC is the presence of HGD, diagnosed on endoscopic biopsies. More specific markers for the prediction of EAC risk are needed. A tissue microarray was constructed comprising tissue samples from BE, LGD, HGD, and EAC. Marker expression was studied by immunohistochemistry using antibodies against CD44, DKK1, CDX2, COX2, SOX9, OCT1, E-cadherin, and beta-catenin. Immunostaining was evaluated semi-quantitatively. CD44 expression decreased in HGD and EAC relative to BE and LGD. DKK1 expression increased in HGD and EAC relative to BE and LDG. CDX2 expression increased in HGD but decreased in EAC. COX2 expression decreased in EAC, and SOX9 expression increased only in the upper crypt epithelial cells in HGD. E-cadherin expression decreased in EAC. Nuclear beta-catenin was not significantly different between BE, LGD, and HGD. Loss of CD44 and gain of DKK1 expression characterizes progression from BE and LGD to HGD and EAC, and their altered expression might indicate an increased risk for developing an EAC. This observation warrants inclusion of these immunohistochemically detectable markers in a study with a long patient follow-up.

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BACKGROUND/AIMS: For many therapeutic decisions in Crohn's disease (CD), high-grade evidence is lacking. To assist clinical decision-making, explicit panel-based appropriateness criteria were developed by an international, multidisciplinary expert panel. METHODS: 10 gastroenterologists, 3 surgeons and 2 general practitioners from 12 European countries assessed the appropriateness of therapy for CD using the RAND Appropriateness Method. Their assessment was based on the study of a recent literature review of the subject, combined with their own expert clinical judgment. Panelists rated clinical indications and treatment options using a 9-point scale (1 = extremely inappropriate; 9 = extremely appropriate). These scenarios were then discussed in detail at the panel meeting and re-rated. Median ratings and disagreement were used to aggregate ratings into three assessment categories: appropriate (A), uncertain (U) and inappropriate (I). RESULTS: 569 specific indications were rated, dealing with 9 clinical presentations: mild/moderate luminal CD (n = 104), severe CD (n = 126), steroid-dependent CD (n = 25), steroid-refractory CD (n = 37), fistulizing CD (n = 49), fibrostenotic CD (n = 35), maintenance of medical remission of CD (n = 84), maintenance of surgical remission (n = 78), drug safety in pregnancy (n = 24) and use of infliximab (n = 7). Overall, 146 indications (26%) were judged appropriate, 129 (23%) uncertain and 294 (52%) inappropriate. Frank disagreement was low (14% overall) with the greatest disagreement (54% of scenarios) being observed for treatment of steroid-refractory disease. CONCLUSIONS: Detailed explicit appropriateness criteria for the appropriate use of therapy for CD were developed for the first time by a European expert panel. Disease location, severity and previous treatments were the main factors taken into account. User-friendly access to EPACT criteria is available via an Internet site, www.epact.ch, allowing prospective evaluation and improvement of appropriateness of current CD therapy.

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The impact of curative radiotherapy depends mainly on the total dose delivered homogenously in the targeted volume. Nevertheless, the dose delivered to the surrounding healthy tissues may reduce the therapeutic ratio of many radiation treatments. Two different side effects (acute and late) can occur during and after radiotherapy. Of particular interest are the radiation-induced sequelae due to their irreversibility and the potential impact on daily quality of life. In a same population treated in one centre with the same technique, it appears that individual radiosensitivity clearly exists. In the hypothesis that genetic is involved in this area of research, lymphocytes seem to be the tissue of choice due to easy accessibility. Recently, low percentage of CD4 and CD8 lymphocyte apoptosis were shown to be correlated with high grade of sequelae. In addition, recent data suggest that patients with severe radiation-induced late side effects possess four or more single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNP) in candidate genes (ATM, SOD2, TGFB1, XRCC1, and XRCC3) and low radiation-induced CD8 lymphocyte apoptosis in vitro. On-going studies are being analyzing the entire genome using a Genome-wide association study (GWAS) analysis.

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BACKGROUND AND STUDY AIMS: To summarize the published literature on assessment of appropriateness of colonoscopy for surveillance after polypectomy and after curative-intent resection of colorectal cancer (CRC), and report appropriateness criteria developed by an expert panel, the 2008 European Panel on the Appropriateness of Gastrointestinal Endoscopy, EPAGE II. METHODS: A systematic search of guidelines, systematic reviews and primary studies regarding the evaluation and management of surveillance colonoscopy after polypectomy and after resection of CRC was performed. The RAND/UCLA Appropriateness Method was applied to develop appropriateness criteria for colonoscopy for these conditions. RESULTS: Most CRCs arise from adenomatous polyps. The characteristics of removed polyps, especially the distinction between low-risk adenomas (1 or 2, small [< 1 cm], tubular, no high-grade dysplasia) vs. high-risk adenomas (large [> or = 1 cm], multiple [> 3], high-grade dysplasia or villous features), have an impact on advanced adenoma recurrence. Most guidelines recommend a 3-year follow-up colonoscopy for high-risk adenomas and a 5-year colonoscopy for low-risk adenomas. Despite the lack of evidence to support or refute any survival benefit for follow-up colonoscopy after curative-intent CRC resection, surveillance colonoscopy is recommended by most guidelines. The timing of the first surveillance colonoscopy differs. The expert panel considered that 56 % of the clinical indications for colonoscopy for surveillance after polypectomy were appropriate. For surveillance after CRC resection, it considered colonoscopy appropriate 1 year after resection. CONCLUSIONS: Colonoscopy is recommended as a first-choice procedure for surveillance after polypectomy by all published guidelines and by the EPAGE II criteria. Despite the limitations of the published studies, colonoscopy is also recommended by most of the guidelines and by EPAGE II criteria for surveillance after curative-intent CRC resection.

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Evidence has emerged that the initiation and growth of gliomas is sustained by a subpopulation of cancer-initiating cells (CICs). Because of the difficulty of using markers to tag CICs in gliomas, we have previously exploited more robust phenotypic characteristics, including a specific morphology and intrincic autofluorescence, to identify and isolate a subpopulation of glioma CICs, called FL1(+). The objective of this study was to further validate our method in a large cohort of human glioma and a mouse model of glioma. Seventy-four human gliomas of all grades and the GFAP-V(12)HA-ras B8 mouse model were analyzed for in vitro self-renewal capacity and their content of FL1(+). Nonneoplastic brain tissue and embryonic mouse brain were used as control. Genetic traceability along passages was assessed with microsatellite analysis. We found that FL1(+) cells from low-grade gliomas and from control nonneoplasic brain tissue show a lower level of autofluorescence and undergo a restricted number of cell divisions before dying in culture. In contrast, we found that FL1(+) cells derived from many but not all high-grade gliomas acquire high levels of autofluorescence and can be propagated in long-term cultures. Moreover, FL1(+) cells show a remarkable traceability over time in vitro and in vivo. Our results show that FL1(+) cells can be found in all specimens of a large cohort of human gliomas of different grades and in a model of genetically induced mouse glioma as well as nonneoplastic brain. However, their self-renewal capacity is variable and seems to be dependent on the tumor grade.

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The development of targeted treatment strategies adapted to individual patients requires identification of the different tumor classes according to their biology and prognosis. We focus here on the molecular aspects underlying these differences, in terms of sets of genes that control pathogenesis of the different subtypes of astrocytic glioma. By performing cDNA-array analysis of 53 patient biopsies, comprising low-grade astrocytoma, secondary glioblastoma (respective recurrent high-grade tumors), and newly diagnosed primary glioblastoma, we demonstrate that human gliomas can be differentiated according to their gene expression. We found that low-grade astrocytoma have the most specific and similar expression profiles, whereas primary glioblastoma exhibit much larger variation between tumors. Secondary glioblastoma display features of both other groups. We identified several sets of genes with relatively highly correlated expression within groups that: (a). can be associated with specific biological functions; and (b). effectively differentiate tumor class. One prominent gene cluster discriminating primary versus nonprimary glioblastoma comprises mostly genes involved in angiogenesis, including VEGF fms-related tyrosine kinase 1 but also IGFBP2, that has not yet been directly linked to angiogenesis. In situ hybridization demonstrating coexpression of IGFBP2 and VEGF in pseudopalisading cells surrounding tumor necrosis provided further evidence for a possible involvement of IGFBP2 in angiogenesis. The separating groups of genes were found by the unsupervised coupled two-way clustering method, and their classification power was validated by a supervised construction of a nearly perfect glioma classifier.