Acid inhibition on the first day of dosing : comparison of four proton pump inhibitors

RESUME Introduction: Les inhibiteurs de la pompe à protons sont actuellement considérés comme les médicaments de choix pour le traitement des affections peptiques comme l'ulcère gastroduodénal et l'oesophagite de reflux. La rapidité, ainsi que le degré d'inhibition de la sécrétion gastrique acide sont importants pour le contrôle optimal des symptômes ainsi que pour le traitement de ces affections. But : Le but principal de cette étude a été de comparer, chez les sujets asymptomatiques non infectés par H. pylori, par pH-métrie intragastrique de 24 heures, la rapidité et la durée de l'action antisécrétoire de doses uniques de rabéprazole 20 mg, d'oméprazole capsule 20 mg, d'oméprazole en comprimé MUPS (« Multiple Unit Pellet System ») 20 mg, de pantoprazole 40 mg et de lansoprazole 30 mg, respectivement. Matériel et méthodes : Cette étude, effectuée en double aveugle et randomisée, a été conduite de manière croisée chez 18 sujets H. pylori-négatifs. Une pH-métrie de 24 heures a été effectuée le jour de l'administration du médicament (dose unique de rabéprazole 20 mg, de lansoprazole 30mg, de pantoprazole 40 mg, d'oméprazole capsule 20 mg, d'oméprazole MUPS comprimé 20mg, ou de placebo). Résultats : Le pH intragastrique médian (3.4 vs. 2.9, 2.2, 1.9 et 1.8, respectivement; p≤ 0.03) et le temps avec un pH supérieur à 4 pendant les 24 heures suivant la prise du médicament (8.0 heures vs. 7.4, 4.9, 2.9, et 3.0, respectivement; p≤ 0.003) ont été statistiquement plus élevés avec le rabéprazole qu'avec le lansoprazole, le pantoprazole, l'oméprazole capsule, l'oméprazole comprimé MUPS, ou le placebo. Les valeurs du pH pendant les périodes diurnes et nocturnes étaient plus hautes avec le rabeprazole et le lansoprazole qu'avec le pantoprazole, l'oméprazole capsule, et l'oméprazole comprimé MUPS (p≤0.04). Conclusion : Le rabéprazole s'est montré le plus efficace de tous les inhibiteurs de pompe à protons étudiés durant le premier jour de l'administration du médicament. SUMMARY Background: Rapid and consistent acid suppression on the first day of dosing may be important in treating acid-related disorders. Aim: To compare the antisecretory activity and onset of action of single doses of rabeprazole, lansoprazole, pantoprazole, omeprazole capsule, omeprazole multiple unit pellet system (MUPS) tablet and placebo in healthy Helicobacter pylori-negative subjects. Methods: This cross-over, double-blind, randomized study was performed in 18 H. pylori-negative subjects. Twenty-four-hour intragastric pH monitoring was performed on the day of treatment (once-daily dose of rabeprazole 20 mg, lansoprazole 30 mg, pantoprazole 40 mg, omeprazole capsule 20 mg, omeprazole MUPS tablet 20 mg or placebo). Results: The intragastric pH (3.4) and time at pH > 4 during the 24 h post-dose (8.0 h) were significantly greater with rabeprazole than with lansoprazole, pantoprazole, omeprazole capsule, omeprazole MUPS tablet or placebo (P ≤ 0.04 for rabeprazole vs. the others). Daytime and night-time pH values were higher with rabeprazole and lansoprazole than with pantoprazole, omeprazole capsule and omeprazole MUPS tablet (P ≤ 0.04). Conclusion: Rabeprazole was the most potent acid inhibitor of all the proton pump inhibitors tested during the first day of dosing.

Increased eeg synchronization in schizophrenia patients by the glutathione precursor, n-acetyl-cysteine

Background: Glutathione (GSH) dysregulation at the gene, protein and functional levels observed in schizophrenia patients, and schizophrenia-like anomalies in GSH deficit experimental models, suggest that genetic glutathione synthesis impairments represent one major risk factor for the disease (Do et al., 2009). In a randomized, double blind, placebo controlled, add-on clinical trial of 140 patients, the GSH precursor N-Acetyl-Cysteine (NAC, 2 g/day, 6 months) significantly improved the negative symptoms and reduced side-effects due to antipsychotics (Berk et al., 2008). In a subset of patients (n=7), NAC (2 g/day, 2 months, cross-over design) also improved auditory evoked potentials, the NMDAdependent mismatch negativity (Lavoie et al, 2008). Methods: To determine whether increased GSH levels would modulate the topography of functional brain connectivity, we applied a multivariate phase synchronization (MPS) estimator (Knyazeva et al, 2008) to dense-array EEGs recorded during rest with eyes closed at the protocol onset, the point of crossover, and at its end. Phase synchronization phenomena are appealing because they can be associated to synchronized phases while the amplitudes stay uncorrelated. MPS measures the degree of interactions among the recorded neuronal oscillators by quantifiying to what extent they behave like a macro-oscillator (i.e. the oscillators are phase synchronous). To assess the whole-head synchronization topography, we computed the MPS sensor-wise over the cluster of locations defined by the sensor itself and he surrounding ones belonging to its second-order neighborhood (Carmeli et al, 2005). Such a cluster spans about 12 cm on average. Abstracts 245 Results: The whole-head imaging revealed a specific synchronization landscape in NAC compared to placebo condition. In particular, NAC increased MPS over frontal and left temporal regions in a frequency-specific manner. Importantly, the topography and direction of MPS changes were similar and robust in all 7 patients. Moreover, these changes correlated with the changes in the Liddle's score of disorganization (Liddle, 1987) thus linking EEG synchronization to the improvement of clinical picture. Discussion: The data suggest an important pathway towards new therapeutic strategies that target GSH dysregulation in schizophrenia. They also show the utility of MPS mapping as a marker of treatment efficacy.

A single dose of intravenous esomeprazole decreases gastric secretion in healthy volunteers.

BACKGROUND: Data suggest that esomeprazole decreases gastric secretion. AIMS: To assess the effect of a single i.v. esomeprazole dose on gastric secretion volume 3 h after drug administration, as a primary endpoint, and to evaluate, as secondary endpoints, the reduction 1 and 5 h after dosing; time when the gastric pH was <2.5 and esomeprazole's safety. METHODS: In all, 23 healthy Helicobacter pylori-negative volunteers (10 men, 13 women, mean age 28.2 +/- 6) participated in this single-centre, randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled, 2-way, single-dose cross-over study. In different sessions, volunteers received i.v. either esomeprazole 40 mg or placebo. An inserted double-lumen nasogastric tube perfused and aspirated gastric liquid. Mechanical fractioned aspiration measured secretion volume; aliquot spectrophotometry assessed gastric secretion volume lost to the duodenum. RESULTS: Three hours post-i.v. esomeprazole, average gastric secretion decreased by 77.6% (vs. baseline) compared to placebo. Values 1 and 5 h after dosing were 73.5% and 74.5%. Five hours after esomeprazole, the gastric pH was <2.5 3.9% of the time and 73.3% after placebo (P < 0.002). Esomeprazole was well-tolerated. No serious adverse events occurred. CONCLUSIONS: Intravenous esomeprazole decreases gastric secretions. The potential clinical impact in averting bronchoaspiration during anaesthesia induction and in intensive care patients should be investigated in further studies.

Rivastigmine for HIV-associated neurocognitive disorders: A randomized crossover pilot study.

OBJECTIVE: To assess the efficacy and safety of rivastigmine for the treatment of HIV-associated neurocognitive disorders (HAND) in a cohort of long-lasting aviremic HIV+ patients. METHODS: Seventeen aviremic HIV+ patients with HAND were enrolled in a randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled, crossover study to receive either oral rivastigmine (up to 12 mg/day for 20 weeks) followed by placebo (20 weeks) or placebo followed by rivastigmine. Efficacy endpoints were improvement on rivastigmine in the Alzheimer's Disease Assessment Scale-Cognitive subscale (ADAS-Cog) and individual neuropsychological scores of information processing speed, attention/working memory, executive functioning, and motor skills. Measures of safety included frequency and nature of adverse events and abnormalities on laboratory tests and on plasma concentrations of antiretroviral drugs. Analyses of variance with repeated measures were computed to look for treatment effects. RESULTS: There was no change on the primary outcome ADAS-Cog on drug. For secondary outcomes, processing speed improved on rivastigmine (Trail Making Test A: F(1,13) = 5.57, p = 0.03). One measure of executive functioning just failed to reach significance (CANTAB Spatial Working Memory [strategy]: F(1,13) = 3.94, p = 0.069). No other change was observed. Adverse events were frequent, but not different from those observed in other populations treated with rivastigmine. No safety issues were recorded. CONCLUSIONS: Rivastigmine in aviremic HIV+ patients with HAND seemed to improve psychomotor speed. A larger trial with the better tolerated transdermal form of rivastigmine is warranted. CLASSIFICATION OF EVIDENCE: This study provides Class III evidence that rivastigmine is ineffective for improving ADAS-Cog scores, but is effective in improving some secondary outcome measures in aviremic HIV+ patients with HAND.

Can MRI replace CT in evaluating semicircular canal dehiscence?

BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: Patients with symptoms of semicircular canal dehiscence often undergo both CT and MR imaging. We assessed whether FIESTA can replace temporal bone CT in evaluating patients for SC dehiscence. MATERIALS AND METHODS: We retrospectively reviewed 112 consecutive patients (224 ears) with vestibulocochlear symptoms who underwent concurrent MR imaging and CT of the temporal bones between 2007 and 2009. MR imaging protocol included a FIESTA sequence covering the temporal bone (axial 0.8-mm section thickness, 0.4-mm spacing, coronal/oblique reformations; 41 patients at 1.5T, 71 patients at 3T). CT was performed on a 64-row multidetector row scanner (0.625-mm axial acquisition, with coronal/oblique reformations). Both ears of each patient were evaluated for dehiscence of the superior and posterior semicircular canals in consensual fashion by 2 neuroradiologists. Analysis of the FIESTA sequence and reformations was performed first for the MR imaging evaluation. CT evaluation was performed at least 2 weeks after the MR imaging review, resulting in a blinded comparison of CT with MR imaging. CT was used as the reference standard to evaluate the MR imaging results. RESULTS: For SSC dehiscence, MR imaging sensitivity was 100%, specificity was 96.5%, positive predictive value was 61.1%, and negative predictive value was 100% in comparison with CT. For PSC dehiscence, MR imaging sensitivity was 100%, specificity was 99.1%, positive predictive value was 33.3%, and negative predictive value was 100% in comparison with CT. CONCLUSIONS: MR imaging, with a sensitivity and negative predictive value of 100%, conclusively excludes SSC or PSC dehiscence. Negative findings on MR imaging preclude the need for CT to detect SC dehiscence. Only patients with positive findings on MR imaging should undergo CT evaluation.

Virosome-Formulated Plasmodium falciparum AMA-1 & CSP Derived Peptides as Malaria Vaccine: Randomized Phase 1b Trial in Semi-Immune Adults & Children.

Background: This trial was conducted to evaluate the safety and immunogenicity of two virosome formulated malaria peptidomimetics derived from Plasmodium falciparum AMA-1 and CSP in malaria semi-immune adults and children.Methods: The design was a prospective randomized, double-blind, controlled, age-deescalating study with two immunizations. 10 adults and 40 children (aged 5-9 years) living in a malaria endemic area were immunized with PEV3B or virosomal influenza vaccine Inflexal (R) V on day 0 and 90.Results: No serious or severe adverse events (AEs) related to the vaccines were observed. The only local solicited AE reported was pain at injection site, which affected more children in the Inflexal (R) V group compared to the PEV3B group (p = 0.014). In the PEV3B group, IgG ELISA endpoint titers specific for the AMA-1 and CSP peptide antigens were significantly higher for most time points compared to the Inflexal (R) V control group. Across all time points after first immunization the average ratio of endpoint titers to baseline values in PEV3B subjects ranged from 4 to 15 in adults and from 4 to 66 in children. As an exploratory outcome, we found that the incidence rate of clinical malaria episodes in children vaccinees was half the rate of the control children between study days 30 and 365 (0.0035 episodes per day at risk for PEV3B vs. 0.0069 for Inflexal (R) V; RR = 0.50 [95%-CI: 0.29-0.88], p = 0.02).Conclusion: These findings provide a strong basis for the further development of multivalent virosomal malaria peptide vaccines.

Efficacy Of Canakinumab (Acz885), A Fully Human Anti-Interleukin (Il)-1beta Monoclonal Antibody, In The Prevention Of Flares In Gout Patients Initiating Allopurinol Therapy

Background: Gout patients initiating urate lowering therapy have an increased risk of flares. Inflammation in gouty arthritis is induced by IL-1b. Canakinumab targets and inhibits IL-1b effectively in clinical studies. This study compared different doses of canakinumab vs colchicine in preventing flares in gout patients initiating allopurinol therapy.Methods: In this 24 week double blind study, gout patients (20-79 years) initiating allopurinol were randomized (1:1:1:1:1:1:2) to canakinumab s.c. single doses of 25, 50, 100, 200, 300 mg, or 150 mg divided in doses every 4 weeks (50+50+25+25 mg [q4wk]) or colchicine 0.5 mg p.o. daily for 16 weeks. Primary outcome was to determine the canakinumab dose giving comparable efficacy to colchicine with respect to the number of gout flares occurring during first 16 weeks. Secondary outcomes included number of patients with gout flares and C-reactive protein (CRP) levels during the first 16 weeks.Results: 432 patients were randomized and 391 (91%) completed the study. All canakinumab doses were better than colchicine in preventing flares and therefore, a canakinumab dose comparable to colchicine could not be determined. Based on a negative binomial model, all canakinumab groups, except 25 mg, reduced the flare rate ratio per patient significantly compared to colchicine group (rate ratio estimates 25 mg 0.60, 50 mg 0.34, 100 mg 0.28, 200 mg 0.37, 300 mg 0.29, q4wk 0.38; p<=0.05). The percentage of patients with flares was lower for all canakinumab groups (25 mg 27.3%, 50 mg 16.7%, 100 mg 14.8%, 200 mg 18.5%, 300 mg 15.1%, q4wk 16.7%) compared to colchicine group (44.4%). All patients taking canakinumab were significantly less likely to experience at least one gout flare than patients taking colchicine (odds ratio range [0.22 - 0.47]; p<=0.05 for all). The median baseline CRP levels were 2.86 mg/L for 25 mg, 3.42 mg/L for 50 mg, 1.76 mg/L for 100 mg, 3.66 mg/L for 200 mg, 3.21 mg/L for 300 mg, 3.23 mg/L for q4wk canakinumab groups and 2.69 mg/L for colchicine group. In all canakinumab groups with median CRP levels above the normal range at baseline, median levels declined within 15 days of treatment and were maintained at normal levels (ULN=3 mg/L) throughout the 16 week period. Adverse events (AEs) occurred in 52.7% (25 mg), 55.6% (50 mg), 51.9% (100 mg), 51.9% (200 mg), 54.7% (300 mg), and 58.5% (q4wk) of patients on canakinumab vs 53.7% of patients on colchicine. Serious AEs (SAE) were reported in 2 (3.6%; 25 mg), 2 (3.7%, 50 mg), 3 (5.6%, 100 mg), 3 (5.6%, 200 mg), 3 (5.7%, 300 mg) and 1 (1.9%, q4wk) patients on canakinumab and in 5 (4.6%) patients on colchicine. One fatal SAE (myocardial infarction, not related to study drug) occurred in colchicine group.Conclusion: In this large randomized, double-blind active controlled study of flare prevention in gout patients initiating allopurinol therapy, treatment with canakinumab led to a statistically significant reduction in flares compared with colchicine (standard of care), and was well tolerated.

Transcranial direct current stimulation for the treatment of focal hand dystonia.

The treatment of writer's cramp, a task-specific focal hand dystonia, needs new approaches. A deficiency of inhibition in the motor cortex might cause writer's cramp. Transcranial direct current stimulation modulates cortical excitability and may provide a therapeutic alternative. In this randomized, double-blind, sham-controlled study, we investigated the efficacy of cathodal stimulation of the contralateral motor cortex in 3 sessions in 1 week. Assessment over a 2-week period included clinical scales, subjective ratings, kinematic handwriting analysis, and neurophysiological evaluation. Twelve patients with unilateral dystonic writer's cramp were investigated; 6 received transcranial direct current and 6 sham stimulation. Cathodal transcranial direct current stimulation had no favorable effects on clinical scales and failed to restore normal handwriting kinematics and cortical inhibition. Subjective worsening remained unexplained, leading to premature study termination. Repeated sessions of cathodal transcranial direct current stimulation of the motor cortex yielded no favorable results supporting a therapeutic potential in writer's cramp.

A randomized trial of glutamine and antioxidants in critically ill patients.

BACKGROUND: Critically ill patients have considerable oxidative stress. Glutamine and antioxidant supplementation may offer therapeutic benefit, although current data are conflicting. METHODS: In this blinded 2-by-2 factorial trial, we randomly assigned 1223 critically ill adults in 40 intensive care units (ICUs) in Canada, the United States, and Europe who had multiorgan failure and were receiving mechanical ventilation to receive supplements of glutamine, antioxidants, both, or placebo. Supplements were started within 24 hours after admission to the ICU and were provided both intravenously and enterally. The primary outcome was 28-day mortality. Because of the interim-analysis plan, a P value of less than 0.044 at the final analysis was considered to indicate statistical significance. RESULTS: There was a trend toward increased mortality at 28 days among patients who received glutamine as compared with those who did not receive glutamine (32.4% vs. 27.2%; adjusted odds ratio, 1.28; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.00 to 1.64; P=0.05). In-hospital mortality and mortality at 6 months were significantly higher among those who received glutamine than among those who did not. Glutamine had no effect on rates of organ failure or infectious complications. Antioxidants had no effect on 28-day mortality (30.8%, vs. 28.8% with no antioxidants; adjusted odds ratio, 1.09; 95% CI, 0.86 to 1.40; P=0.48) or any other secondary end point. There were no differences among the groups with respect to serious adverse events (P=0.83). CONCLUSIONS: Early provision of glutamine or antioxidants did not improve clinical outcomes, and glutamine was associated with an increase in mortality among critically ill patients with multiorgan failure. (Funded by the Canadian Institutes of Health Research; ClinicalTrials.gov number, NCT00133978.).

Aliskiren monotherapy does not cause paradoxical blood pressure rises: meta-analysis of data from 8 clinical trials.

Angiotensin receptor blockers, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, and diuretics all cause reactive rises in plasma renin concentration, but particularly high levels have been reported with aliskiren. This prompted speculation that blockade of plasma renin activity with aliskiren could be overwhelmed, leading to paradoxical increases in blood pressure. This meta-analysis of data from 4877 patients from 8 randomized, double-blind, placebo- and/or active-controlled trials examined this hypothesis. The analysis focused on the incidence of paradoxical blood pressure increases above predefined thresholds, after > or =4 weeks of treatment with 300 mg of aliskiren, angiotensin receptor blockers (300 mg of irbesartan, 100 mg of losartan, or 320 mg of valsartan), 10 mg of ramipril, 25 mg of hydrochlorothiazide, or placebo. There were no significant differences in the frequency of increases in systolic (>10 mm Hg; P=0.30) or diastolic (>5 mm Hg; P=0.65) pressure among those treated with aliskiren (3.9% and 3.1%, respectively), angiotensin receptor blockers (4.0% and 3.7%), ramipril (5.7% and 2.6%), or hydrochlorothiazide (4.4% and 2.7%). Increases in blood pressure were considerably more frequent in the placebo group (12.6% and 11.4%; P<0.001). None of the 536 patients with plasma renin activity data who received 300 mg of aliskiren exhibited an increase in systolic pressure >10 mm Hg that was associated with an increase in plasma renin activity >0.1 ng/mL per hour. In conclusion, the incidence of blood pressure increases with aliskiren was similar to that during treatment with other antihypertensive drugs. Blood pressure rises on aliskiren treatment were not associated with increases in plasma renin activity. This meta-analysis found no evidence that aliskiren uniquely causes paradoxical rises in blood pressure.

Effect of white-matter lesions on the risk of periprocedural stroke after carotid artery stenting versus endarterectomy in the International Carotid Stenting Study (ICSS): a prespecified analysis of data from a randomised trial.

BACKGROUND: Findings from randomised trials have shown a higher early risk of stroke after carotid artery stenting than after carotid endarterectomy. We assessed whether white-matter lesions affect the perioperative risk of stroke in patients treated with carotid artery stenting versus carotid endarterectomy. METHODS: Patients with symptomatic carotid artery stenosis included in the International Carotid Stenting Study (ICSS) were randomly allocated to receive carotid artery stenting or carotid endarterectomy. Copies of baseline brain imaging were analysed by two investigators, who were masked to treatment, for the severity of white-matter lesions using the age-related white-matter changes (ARWMC) score. Randomisation was done with a computer-generated sequence (1:1). Patients were divided into two groups using the median ARWMC. We analysed the risk of stroke within 30 days of revascularisation using a per-protocol analysis. ICSS is registered with controlled-trials.com, number ISRCTN 25337470. FINDINGS: 1036 patients (536 randomly allocated to carotid artery stenting, 500 to carotid endarterectomy) had baseline imaging available. Median ARWMC score was 7, and patients were dichotomised into those with a score of 7 or more and those with a score of less than 7. In patients treated with carotid artery stenting, those with an ARWMC score of 7 or more had an increased risk of stroke compared with those with a score of less than 7 (HR for any stroke 2·76, 95% CI 1·17-6·51; p=0·021; HR for non-disabling stroke 3·00, 1·10-8·36; p=0·031), but we did not see a similar association in patients treated with carotid endarterectomy (HR for any stroke 1·18, 0·40-3·55; p=0·76; HR for disabling or fatal stroke 1·41, 0·38-5·26; p=0·607). Carotid artery stenting was associated with a higher risk of stroke compared with carotid endarterectomy in patients with an ARWMC score of 7 or more (HR for any stroke 2·98, 1·29-6·93; p=0·011; HR for non-disabling stroke 6·34, 1·45-27·71; p=0·014), but there was no risk difference in patients with an ARWMC score of less than 7. INTERPRETATION: The presence of white-matter lesions on brain imaging should be taken into account when selecting patients for carotid revascularisation. Carotid artery stenting should be avoided in patients with more extensive white-matter lesions, but might be an acceptable alternative to carotid endarterectomy in patients with less extensive lesions. FUNDING: Medical Research Council, the Stroke Association, Sanofi-Synthélabo, the European Union Research Framework Programme 5.

The effect of n-3 enriched nutrition therapy on post-operative cognitive dysfunction after cardiac surgery

Background: Postoperative cognitive dysfunction (POCD) occurs frequently after cardiac surgery. Some data suggest that inflammation plays a key role in the development of POCD. N-3 fatty acids have been shown to have a beneficial effect on inflammation. We hypothesised that perioperative n-3 enriched nutrition therapy would reduce the incidence of POCD in this group of patients. Methods: Randomized, double blind placebo controlled trial in patients aged 65 or older undergoing elective cardiac surgery with cardiopulmonary bypass. 2x 250 mL placebo (Ensure Plus™, Abbott Nutrition) or n-3 enriched nutrition therapy (ProSure™ Abbott Nutrition) were administered for ten days starting 5 days prior to surgery. Cognition was assessed preoperatively and 7 days after surgery with the Consortium to Establish a Registry for Alzheimer's Disease - Neuropsychological Assessment Battery (CERAD-NAB) [1]. Results: 16 patients were included. Mean age was 72 } 5.3 for placebo and 75 } 4.8 for ProSure™ respectively. CRP and IL-6 did not differ significantly between groups preoperatively and on postoperative days 1, 3, and 7. Preoperative CERAD total scores were 86 } 10 and 81 } 9 (p = n.s.) for Placebo and ProSure™, respectively. Postoperative scores were 88 } 12, and 77 } 19 (p = n.s.) The change in score was not different between the two groups (Placebo: +3 } 5; ProSure: -5 } 11). Conclusion: In this very small sample no effect of preoperatively started n-3 enriched nutritional supplements on inflammation or cognitive functions were detected. However, there is a large likelihood of a type II error and more patients need to be included to assess possible beneficial effects of this intervention in elderly patients undergoing elective cardiac surgery. 1 Chandler MJ, et al. Neurology. 2005;65:102-6.

European expert opinion on the management of invasive candidiasis in adults.

This report discusses the present status of antifungal therapy and treatment options for candidaemia, considered by experts in the field in Europe. A conference of 26 experts from 13 European countries was held to discuss strategies for the treatment and prevention of invasive candidiasis, with the aim of providing a review on optimal management strategies. Published and unpublished comparative trials on antifungal therapy were analysed and discussed. Commonly asked questions about the management of candidaemia were selected, and possible responses to these questions were discussed. Panellists were then asked to respond to each question by using a touchpad answering system. After the initial conference, the viewpoint document has been reviewed and edited to include new insights and developments since the initial meeting. For many situations, consensus on treatment could not be reached, and the responses indicate that treatment is likely to be modified on a patient-to-patient basis, depending on factors such as degree of illness, prior exposure to azole antifungals, and the presence of potentially antifungal drug-resistant Candida species.

Effects of pioglitazone on renal calcium excretion.

Context: Glitazones increase fracture risk in long-term users and in postmenopausal women. Studies have demonstrated deleterious effects of glitazones on bone metabolism. Glitazones also have direct renal tubular effects increasing sodium reabsorption. We hypothesized that glitazones may also regulate renal calcium excretion. Design: In this double-blind, randomized, placebo-controlled, four-way, crossover study, we examined the effects of pioglitazone (45 mg/d for 6 wk) or placebo on renal calcium and phosphate excretion and PTH levels during different sodium intakes in 16 individuals (eight with type 2 diabetes and eight with essential hypertension). Results: Pioglitazone had no effect on corrected plasma calcium and phosphate levels but decreased significantly the alkaline phosphatase and PTH levels. Pioglitazone induced on average a 45% increase in urinary calcium excretion. The fractional excretion of calcium rose to the same extent, suggesting a glomerular filtration rate-independent effect. Sodium intake did not influence the calciuric effect of pioglitazone. Changes in diurnal and nocturnal calciuria were similar. There was no effect of pioglitazone on phosphate excretion. Conclusion: Pioglitazone decreases PTH levels and increases urinary calcium excretion, independently from changes in glomerular filtration rate and from the sodium load, suggesting an inhibitory effect of pioglitazone on the tubular reabsorption of calcium. These effects may contribute to the increased fracture risk with glitazone treatment.

Efficacy of Canakinumab (ACZ885), a Fully Human Anti-Interleukin (IL)-1beta Monoclonal Antibody, in the Prevention of Flares in Gout Patients Initiating Allopurinol Therapy

Background: Gout patients initiating urate lowering therapy have an increased risk of flares. Inflammation in gouty arthritis is induced by IL-1b. Canakinumab targets and inhibits IL-1b effectively in clinical studies. This study compared different doses of canakinumab vs colchicine in preventing flares in gout patients initiating allopurinol therapy.Methods: In this 24 week double blind study, gout patients (20-79 years) initiating allopurinol were randomized (1:1:1:1:1:1:2) to canakinumab s.c. single doses of 25, 50, 100, 200, 300 mg, or 150 mg divided in doses every 4 weeks (50+50+25+25 mg [q4wk]) or colchicine 0.5 mg p.o. daily for 16 weeks. Primary outcome was to determine the canakinumab dose giving comparable efficacy to colchicine with respect to the number of gout flares occurring during first 16 weeks. Secondary outcomes included number of patients with gout flares and C-reactive protein (CRP) levels during the first 16 weeks.Results: 432 patients were randomized and 391 (91%) completed the study. All canakinumab doses were better than colchicine in preventing flares and therefore, a canakinumab dose comparable to colchicine could not be determined. Based on a negative binomial model, all canakinumab groups, except 25 mg, reduced the flare rate ratio per patient significantly compared to colchicine group (rate ratio estimates 25 mg 0.60, 50 mg 0.34, 100 mg 0.28, 200 mg 0.37, 300 mg 0.29, q4wk 0.38; p<=0.05). The percentage of patients with flares was lower for all canakinumab groups (25 mg 27.3%, 50 mg 16.7%, 100 mg 14.8%, 200 mg 18.5%, 300 mg 15.1%, q4wk 16.7%) compared to colchicine group (44.4%). All patients taking canakinumab were significantly less likely to experience at least one gout flare than patients taking colchicine (odds ratio range [0.22 - 0.47]; p<=0.05 for all). The median baseline CRP levels were 2.86 mg/L for 25 mg, 3.42 mg/L for 50 mg, 1.76 mg/L for 100 mg, 3.66 mg/L for 200 mg, 3.21 mg/L for 300 mg, 3.23 mg/L for q4wk canakinumab groups and 2.69 mg/L for colchicine group. In all canakinumab groups with median CRP levels above the normal range at baseline, median levels declined within 15 days of treatment and were maintained at normal levels (ULN=3 mg/L) throughout the 16 week period. Adverse events (AEs) occurred in 52.7% (25 mg), 55.6% (50 mg), 51.9% (100 mg), 51.9% (200 mg), 54.7% (300 mg), and 58.5% (q4wk) of patients on canakinumab vs 53.7% of patients on colchicine. Serious AEs (SAE) were reported in 2 (3.6%; 25 mg), 2 (3.7%, 50 mg), 3 (5.6%, 100 mg), 3 (5.6%, 200 mg), 3 (5.7%, 300 mg) and 1 (1.9%, q4wk) patients on canakinumab and in 5 (4.6%) patients on colchicine. One fatal SAE (myocardial infarction, not related to study drug) occurred in colchicine group.Conclusion: In this large randomized, double-blind active controlled study of flare prevention in gout patients initiating allopurinol therapy, treatment with canakinumab led to a statistically significant reduction in flares compared with colchicine (standard of care), and was well tolerated.