How to keep the brain awake? : pharmacogenomics and aging effects on sleep-wake regulation in inbred mice

ABSTRACT : Genetic approach in the sleep field is at the beginning of its wide expansion. Transitions between sleep and wakefulness, and the maintenance of these states are driven by complex neurobiologic mechanisms with reciprocal interactions. Impairment in both transitions and maintenance of behavioral states leads to debilitating conditions. The major symptom being excessive daytime sleepiness, characterizing most sleep disorders but also a wide variety of psychiatric and neurologic disorders, as well as the elderly. Until now, most wake-promoting drugs available directly (e.g., amphetamines and possibly modafinil) or indirectly (e.g., caffeine) provokes dopamine release which is believed to influence the abuse potential of these drugs. The effects of genetic components were assessed here, on drug-induced wakefulness and age-related sleep changes in three inbred mouse strains [AKR/J, C57BL/6J, DBA/2J] that differ in their major sleep phenotypes. Three wake-promoting drugs were used; d-amphetamine, a classical stimulant, modafinil, the most widely-prescribed stimulant, and YKP-10A, a novel wake-promoting agent with antidepressant proprieties. Electrical activity (Electroencephalogram) and gene expression of the brain were assessed and indicate a highly genotype-dependant response to wake promotion and subsequent recovery sleep. Aging effects on sleep-wake regulation were also strongly influenced by genetic determinants. By assessing the age-dependant effects at several time points (from 3 months to 2 years old mice), we found a strong genetic effect on vigilance states. These studies demonstrate a critical role for genetic factors neglected till now in the fields of pharmacology and aging effects on vigilance states.

Patterns of cannabis use and prospective associations with health issues among young males.

BACKGROUND AND AIMS: To test prospective associations between cannabis disorder symptoms/frequency of cannabis use and health issues and to investigate stability versus transience in cannabis use trajectories. DESIGN: Two waves of data collection from the longitudinal Cohort Study on Substance Use Risk Factors (C-SURF). SETTING: A representative sample of young Swiss men in their early 20s from the general population. PARTICIPANTS: A total of 5084 young men (mean age 19.98 ± 1.19 years at time 1). MEASUREMENTS: Cannabis use (life-time use, frequency of use, cannabis disorder symptoms) and self-reported measures of health issues (depression, mental/physical health, health consequences) were assessed. Significant changes in cannabis use were tested using t-test/Wilcoxon's rank test for paired data. Cross-lagged panel models provided evidence regarding longitudinal associations between cannabis use and health issues. FINDINGS: Most of the participants (84.5%) remained in the same use category and cannabis use kept to similar levels at times 1 and 2 (P = 0.114 and P = 0.755; average of 15 ± 2.8 months between times 1 and 2). Cross-lagged panel models showed that cannabis disorder symptoms predicted later health issues (e.g. depression, β = 0.087, P < 0.001; health consequences, β = 0.045, P < 0.05). The reverse paths from health issues to cannabis disorder symptoms and the cross-lagged panel model between frequency of cannabis use and health issues were non-significant. CONCLUSIONS: Patterns of cannabis use showed substantial continuity among young Swiss men in their early 20s. The number of symptoms of cannabis use disorder, rather than the frequency of cannabis use, is a clinically important measure of cannabis use among young Swiss men.

Midregional pro-atrial natriuretic peptide and procalcitonin improve survival prediction in VAP.

Ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) affects mortality, morbidity and cost of critical care. Reliable risk estimation might improve end-of-life decisions, resource allocation and outcome. Several scoring systems for survival prediction have been established and optimised over the last decades. Recently, new biomarkers have gained interest in the prognostic field. We assessed whether midregional pro-atrial natriuretic peptide (MR-proANP) and procalcitonin (PCT) improve the predictive value of the Simplified Acute Physiologic Score (SAPS) II and Sequential Related Organ Failure Assessment (SOFA) in VAP. Specified end-points of a prospective multinational trial including 101 patients with VAP were analysed. Death &lt;28 days after VAP onset was the primary end-point. MR-proANP and PCT were elevated at the onset of VAP in nonsurvivors compared with survivors (p = 0.003 and p = 0.017, respectively) and their slope of decline differed significantly (p = 0.018 and p = 0.039, respectively). Patients with the highest MR-proANP quartile at VAP onset were at increased risk for death (log rank p = 0.013). In a logistic regression model, MR-proANP was identified as the best predictor of survival. Adding MR-proANP and PCT to SAPS II and SOFA improved their predictive properties (area under the curve 0.895 and 0.880). We conclude that the combination of two biomarkers, MR-proANP and PCT, improve survival prediction of clinical severity scores in VAP.

Mutual control of membrane fission and fusion proteins.

Membrane fusion and fission are antagonistic reactions controlled by different proteins. Dynamins promote membrane fission by GTP-driven changes of conformation and polymerization state, while SNAREs fuse membranes by forming complexes between t- and v-SNAREs from apposed vesicles. Here, we describe a role of the dynamin-like GTPase Vps1p in fusion of yeast vacuoles. Vps1p forms polymers that couple several t-SNAREs together. At the onset of fusion, the SNARE-activating ATPase Sec18p/NSF and the t-SNARE depolymerize Vps1p and release it from the membrane. This activity is independent of the SNARE coactivator Sec17p/alpha-SNAP and of the v-SNARE. Vps1p release liberates the t-SNAREs for initiating fusion and at the same time disrupts fission activity. We propose that reciprocal control between fusion and fission components exists, which may prevent futile cycles of fission and fusion.

Early Stage Primary Bone Lymphoma: A Retrospective, Multicenter Rare Cancer Network Study

PURPOSE/OBJECTIVE(S): Primary bone lymphoma (PBL) represents less than 1% of all malignant lymphomas, and 4-5% of all extranodal lymphomas. In this study, we assessed the disease profile, outcome, and prognostic factors in patients with stage I and II PBL. MATERIALS/METHODS: Between 1987 and 2008, 116 consecutive patients with PBL treated in 13 RCNinstitutions were included in this study. Inclusion criteriawere: age.17 yrs, PBLin stage I and II, andminimum6months follow-up. The median agewas 51 yrs (range: 17-93).Diagnosticwork-up included plain boneXray (74%of patients), scintigraphy (62%), CT-scan (65%),MRI (58%), PET (18%), and bone-marrow biopsy (84%).All patients had biopsy-proven confirmation of non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL). The histopathological type was predominantly diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (78%) and follicular lymphoma (6%), according to theWHOclassification. One hundred patients had a high-grade, 7 intermediate and 9 low-gradeNHL. Ninety-three patients had anAnn-Arbor stage I, and 23 had a stage II. Seventy-seven patients underwent chemoradiotherapy (CXRT), 12 radiotherapy (RT) alone, 10 chemotherapy alone (CXT), 9 surgery followed by CXRT, 5 surgery followed by CXT, and 2 surgery followed by RT. One patient died before treatment.Median RT dosewas 40Gy (range: 4-60).Themedian number ofCXTcycleswas 6 (range, : 2-8).Median follow-upwas 41months (range: 6-242). RESULTS: Following treatment, the overall response rate was 91% (CR 74%, PR 17%). Local recurrence was observed in 12 (10%) patients, and systemic recurrence in 17 (15%) patients. Causes of death included disease progression in 16, unrelated disease in 6, CXT-related toxicity in 1, and secondary cancer in 2 patients. The 5-yr overall survival (OS), disease-free survival (DFS), lymphoma- specific survival (LSS), and local control (LC) were 76%, 69%, 78%, and 92%, respectively. In univariate analyses (log-rank test), favorable prognostic factors for survival were: age\50 years (p = 0.008), IPI score #1 (p = 0.009), complete response (p\0.001), CXT (p = 0.008), number of CXT cycles $6 (p = 0.007), and RT dose . 40 Gy (p = 0.005). In multivariate analysis age, RT dose, complete response, and absence of B symptoms were independent factors influencing the outcome. There were 3 patients developing grade 3 or more (CTCAE.V3.0) toxicities. CONCLUSIONS: This large multicenter study, confirms the relatively good prognosis of early stage PBL, treated with combined CXRT. Local control was excellent, and systemic failure occurred infrequently. A sufficient dose of RT (. 40 Gy) and complete CXT regime (. 6 cycles) were associated with a better outcome. Combined modality appears to be the treatment of choice.

MGMT methylation analysis of glioblastoma on the Infinium methylation BeadChip identifies two distinct CpG regions associated with gene silencing and outcome, yielding a prediction model for comparisons across datasets, tumor grades, and CIMP-status.

The methylation status of the O(6)-methylguanine-DNA methyltransferase (MGMT) gene is an important predictive biomarker for benefit from alkylating agent therapy in glioblastoma. Recent studies in anaplastic glioma suggest a prognostic value for MGMT methylation. Investigation of pathogenetic and epigenetic features of this intriguingly distinct behavior requires accurate MGMT classification to assess high throughput molecular databases. Promoter methylation-mediated gene silencing is strongly dependent on the location of the methylated CpGs, complicating classification. Using the HumanMethylation450 (HM-450K) BeadChip interrogating 176 CpGs annotated for the MGMT gene, with 14 located in the promoter, two distinct regions in the CpG island of the promoter were identified with high importance for gene silencing and outcome prediction. A logistic regression model (MGMT-STP27) comprising probes cg1243587 and cg12981137 provided good classification properties and prognostic value (kappa = 0.85; log-rank p < 0.001) using a training-set of 63 glioblastomas from homogenously treated patients, for whom MGMT methylation was previously shown to be predictive for outcome based on classification by methylation-specific PCR. MGMT-STP27 was successfully validated in an independent cohort of chemo-radiotherapy-treated glioblastoma patients (n = 50; kappa = 0.88; outcome, log-rank p < 0.001). Lower prevalence of MGMT methylation among CpG island methylator phenotype (CIMP) positive tumors was found in glioblastomas from The Cancer Genome Atlas than in low grade and anaplastic glioma cohorts, while in CIMP-negative gliomas MGMT was classified as methylated in approximately 50 % regardless of tumor grade. The proposed MGMT-STP27 prediction model allows mining of datasets derived on the HM-450K or HM-27K BeadChip to explore effects of distinct epigenetic context of MGMT methylation suspected to modulate treatment resistance in different tumor types.

New grass phylogeny resolves deep evolutionary relationships and discovers C4 origins.

• Grasses rank among the world's most ecologically and economically important plants. Repeated evolution of the C(4) syndrome has made photosynthesis highly efficient in many grasses, inspiring intensive efforts to engineer the pathway into C(3) crops. However, comparative biology has been of limited use to this endeavor because of uncertainty in the number and phylogenetic placement of C(4) origins. • We built the most comprehensive and robust molecular phylogeny for grasses to date, expanding sampling efforts of a previous working group from 62 to 531 taxa, emphasizing the C(4)-rich PACMAD (Panicoideae, Arundinoideae, Chloridoideae, Micrairoideae, Aristidoideae and Danthonioideae) clade. Our final matrix comprises c. 5700 bp and is > 93% complete. • For the first time, we present strong support for relationships among all the major grass lineages. Several new C(4) lineages are identified, and previously inferred origins confirmed. C(3)/C(4) evolutionary transitions have been highly asymmetrical, with 22-24 inferred origins of the C(4) pathway and only one potential reversal. • Our backbone tree clarifies major outstanding systematic questions and highlights C(3) and C(4) sister taxa for comparative studies. Two lineages have emerged as hotbeds of C(4) evolution. Future work in these lineages will be instrumental in understanding the evolution of this complex trait.

Pulse wave amplitude drops during sleep are reliable surrogate markers of changes in cortical activity

Rapport de synthèseLe syndrome d'apnées obstructives du sommeil (SAOS) est une pathologie respiratoire fréquente. Sa prévalence est estimée entre 2 et 5% de la population adulte générale. Ses conséquences sont importantes. Notamment, une somnolence diurne, des troubles de la concentration, des troubles de la mémoire et une augmentation du risque d'accident de la route et du travail. Il représente également un facteur de risque cardiovasculaire indépendant.Ce syndrome est caractérisé par la survenue durant le sommeil d'obstructions répétées des voies aériennes supérieures. L'arrêt ou la diminution d'apport en oxygène vers les poumons entraîne des épisodes de diminution de la saturation en oxygène de l'hémoglobine. Les efforts ventilatoires visant à lever l'obstacle présent sur les voies aériennes causent de fréquents réveils à l'origine d'une fragmentation du sommeil.La polysomnographie (PSG) représente le moyen diagnostic de choix. Il consiste en l'enregistrement dans un laboratoire du sommeil et en présence d'un technicien diplômé, du tracé électroencéphalographique (EEG), de l'électrooculogramme (EOG), de l'électromyogramme mentonnier (EMG), du flux respiratoire nasal, de l'oxymétrie de pouls, de la fréquence cardiaque, de l'électrocardiogramme (ECG), des mouvements thoraciques et abdominaux, de la position du corps et des mouvements des jambes. L'examen est filmé par caméra infrarouge et les sons sont enregistrés.Cet examen permet entre autres mesures, de déterminer les événements respiratoires obstructifs nécessaires au diagnostic de syndrome d'apnée du sommeil. On définit une apnée lors d'arrêt complet du débit aérien durant au moins 10 secondes et une hypopnée en cas, soit de diminution franche de l'amplitude du flux respiratoire supérieure à 50% durant au moins 10 secondes, soit de diminution significative (20%) de l'amplitude du flux respiratoire pendant au minimum 10 secondes associée à un micro-éveil ou à une désaturation d'au moins 3% par rapport à la ligne de base. La détection des micro-éveils se fait en utilisant les dérivations électroencéphalographiques, électromyographiques et électrooculographiques. Il existe des critères visuels de reconnaissance de ces éveils transitoire: apparition de rythme alpha (8.1 à 12.0 Hz) ou beta (16 à 30 Hz) d'une durée supérieure à 3 secondes [20-21].Le diagnostic de S AOS est retenu si l'on retrouve plus de 5 événements respiratoires obstructifs par heure de sommeil associés soit à une somnolence diurne évaluée selon le score d'Epworth ou à au moins 2 symptômes parmi les suivants: sommeil non réparateur, étouffements nocturne, éveils multiples, fatigue, troubles de la concentration. Le S AOS est gradué en fonction du nombre d'événements obstructifs par heure de sommeil en léger (5 à 15), modéré (15 à 30) et sévère (>30).La polysomnographie (PSG) comporte plusieurs inconvénients pratiques. En effet, elle doit être réalisée dans un laboratoire du sommeil avec la présence permanente d'un technicien, limitant ainsi son accessibilité et entraînant des délais diagnostiques et thérapeutiques. Pour ces mêmes raisons, il s'agit d'un examen onéreux.La polygraphie respiratoire (PG) représente l'alternative diagnostique au gold standard qu'est l'examen polysomnographique. Cet examen consiste en l'enregistrement en ambulatoire, à savoir au domicile du patient, du flux nasalrespiratoire, de l'oxymétrie de pouls, de la fréquence cardiaque, de la position du corps et du ronflement (par mesure de pression).En raison de sa sensibilité et sa spécificité moindre, la PG reste recommandée uniquement en cas de forte probabilité de SAOS. Il existe deux raisons principales à l'origine de la moindre sensibilité de l'examen polygraphique. D'une part, du fait que l'état de veille ou de sommeil n'est pas déterminé avec précision, il y a dilution des événements respiratoires sur l'ensemble de l'enregistrement et non sur la période de sommeil uniquement. D'autre part, en l'absence de tracé EEG, la quantification des micro-éveils est impossible. Il n'est donc pas possible dans l'examen poly graphique, de reconnaître une hypopnée en cas de diminution de flux respiratoire de 20 à 50% non associée à un épisode de désaturation de l'hémoglobine de 3% au moins. Alors que dans l'examen polysomnographique, une telle diminution du flux respiratoire pourrait être associée à un micro-éveil et ainsi comptabilisée en tant qu'hypopnée.De ce constat est né la volonté de trouver un équivalent de micro-éveil en polygraphie, en utilisant les signaux à disposition, afin d'augmenter la sensibilité de l'examen polygraphique.Or plusieurs études ont démontrés que les micro-éveils sont associés à des réactions du système nerveux autonome. Lors des micro-éveils, on met en évidence la survenue d'une vasoconstriction périphérique. La variation du tonus sympathique associée aux micro-éveils peut être mesurée par différentes méthodes. Les variations de l'amplitude de l'onde de pouls mesurée par pulsoxymétrie représentant un marqueur fiable de la vasoconstriction périphérique associée aux micro-réveils, il paraît donc opportun d'utiliser ce marqueur autonomique disponible sur le tracé des polygraphies ambulatoires afin de renforcer la sensibilité de cet examen.Le but de l'étude est d'évaluer la sensibilité des variations de l'amplitude de l'onde de pouls pour détecter des micro-réveils corticaux afin de trouver un moyen d'augmenter la sensibilité de l'examen polygraphique et de renforcer ainsi sont pouvoir diagnostic.L'objectif est de démontrer qu'une diminution significative de l'amplitude de l'onde pouls est concomitante à une activation corticale correspondant à un micro¬réveil. Cette constatation pourrait permettre de déterminer une hypopnée, en polygraphie, par une diminution de 20 à 50% du flux respiratoire sans désaturation de 3% mais associée à une baisse significative de l'amplitude de pouls en postulant que l'événement respiratoire a entraîné un micro-réveil. On retrouve par cette méthode les mêmes critères de scoring d'événements respiratoires en polygraphie et en polysomnographie, et l'on renforce la sensibilité de la polygraphie par rapport au gold standard polysomnographique.La méthode consiste à montrer en polysomnographie qu'une diminution significative de l'amplitude de l'onde de pouls mesurée par pulsoxymétrie est associée à une activation du signal électroencéphalographique, en réalisant une analyse spectrale du tracé EEG lors des baisses d'amplitude du signal d'onde de pouls.Pour ce faire nous avons réalisé une étude rétrospective sur plus de 1000 diminutions de l'amplitude de l'onde de pouls sur les tracés de 10 sujets choisis de manière aléatoire parmi les patients référés dans notre centre du sommeil (CIRS) pour suspicion de trouble respiratoire du sommeil avec somnolence ou symptomatologie diurne.Les enregistrements nocturnes ont été effectués de manière standard dans des chambres individuelles en utilisant le système d'acquisition Embla avec l'ensemble des capteurs habituels. Les données ont été par la suite visuellement analysées et mesurées en utilisant le software Somnologica version 5.1, qui fournit un signal de l'amplitude de l'onde de pouls (puise wave amplitude - PWA).Dans un premier temps, un technicien du sommeil a réalisé une analyse visuelle du tracé EEG, en l'absence des données du signal d'amplitude d'onde de pouls. Il a déterminé les phases d'éveil et de sommeil, les stades du sommeil et les micro¬éveils selon les critères standards. Les micro-éveils sont définis lors d'un changement abrupt dans la fréquence de l'EEG avec un pattern d'ondes thêta-alpha et/ou une fréquence supérieure à 16 Hz (en l'absence de fuseau) d'une durée d'au minimum trois secondes. Si cette durée excède quinze secondes, l'événement correspond à un réveil.Puis, deux investigateurs ont analysé le signal d'amplitude d'onde de pouls, en masquant les données du tracé EEG qui inclut les micro-éveils. L'amplitude d'onde de pouls est calculée comme la différence de valeur entre le zénith et le nadir de l'onde pour chaque cycle cardiaque. Pour chaque baisse de l'amplitude d'onde de pouls, la plus grande et la plus petite amplitude sont déterminées et le pourcentage de baisse est calculé comme le rapport entre ces deux amplitudes. On retient de manière arbitraire une baisse d'au moins 20% comme étant significative. Cette limite a été choisie pour des raisons pratiques et cliniques, dès lors qu'elle représentait, à notre sens, la baisse minimale identifiable à l'inspection visuelle. Chaque baisse de PWA retenue est divisée en 5 périodes contiguës de cinq secondes chacune. Deux avant, une pendant et deux après la baisse de PWA.Pour chaque période de cinq secondes, on a pratiqué une analyse spectrale du tracé EEG correspondant. Le canal EEG C4-A1 est analysé en utilisant la transformée rapide de Fourier (FFT) pour chaque baisse de PWA et pour chaque période de cinq secondes avec une résolution de 0.2 Hz. La distribution spectrale est catégorisée dans chaque bande de fréquence: delta (0.5 à 4.0 Hz); thêta (4.1 à 8.0Hz); alpha (8.1 à 12.0 Hz); sigma (12.1 à 16 Hz) et beta (16.1 à 30.0 Hz). La densité de puissance (power density, en μΥ2 ) pour chaque bande de fréquence a été calculée et normalisée en tant que pourcentage de la puissance totale. On a déterminé, ensuite, la différence de densité de puissance entre les 5 périodes par ANOVA on the rank. Un test post hoc Tukey est été utilisé pour déterminer si les différences de densité de puissance étaient significatives. Les calculs ont été effectués à l'aide du software Sigmastat version 3.0 (Systat Software San Jose, California, USA).Le principal résultat obtenu dans cette étude est d'avoir montré une augmentation significative de la densité de puissance de l'EEG pour toutes les bandes de fréquence durant la baisse de l'amplitude de l'onde de pouls par rapport à la période avant et après la baisse. Cette augmentation est par ailleurs retrouvée dans la plupart des bande de fréquence en l'absence de micro-réveil visuellement identifié.Ce résultat témoigné donc d'une activation corticale significative associée à la diminution de l'onde de pouls. Ce résulat pourrait permettre d'utiliser les variations de l'onde de pouls dans les tracés de polygraphie comme marqueur d'une activation corticale. Cependant on peut dire que ce marqueur est plus sensible que l'analyse visuelle du tracé EEG par un technicien puisque qu'on notait une augmentation de lactivité corticale y compris en l'absence de micro-réveil visuellement identifié. L'application pratique de ces résultats nécessite donc une étude prospective complémentaire.

A cryptic heterogametic transition revealed by sex-linked DNA markers in Palearctic green toads.

In sharp contrast to birds and mammals, most cold-blooded vertebrates have homomorphic (morphologically undifferentiated) sex chromosomes. This might result either from recurrent X-Y recombination (occurring e.g. during occasional events of sex reversal) or from frequent turnovers (during which sex-determining genes are overthrown by new autosomal mutations). Evidence for turnovers is indeed mounting in fish, but very few have so far been documented in amphibians, possibly because of practical difficulties in identifying sex chromosomes. Female heterogamety (ZW) has long been established in Bufo bufo, based on sex reversal and crossing experiments. Here, we investigate a sex-linked marker identified from a laboratory cross between Palearctic green toads (Bufo viridis subgroup). The F(1) offspring produced by a female Bufo balearicus and a male Bufo siculus were phenotypically sexed, displaying an even sex ratio. A sex-specific marker detected in highly reproducible AFLP genotypes was cloned. Sequencing revealed a noncoding, microsatellite-containing fragment. Reamplification and genotyping of families of this and a reciprocal cross showed B. siculus to be male heterogametic (XY) and suggested the same system for B. balearicus. Our results thus reveal a cryptic heterogametic transition within bufonid frogs and help explain patterns of hybrid fitness within the B. viridis subgroup. Turnovers of genetic sex-determination systems may be more frequent in amphibians than previously thought and thus contribute to the prevalence of homomorphic sex chromosomes in this group.

Imaging the ultrasmall-angle x-ray scattering distribution with grating interferometry.

X-ray imaging with grating interferometry has previously been regarded as a technique providing information only in direct space. It delivers absorption, phase, and dark-field contrast, which can be viewed as parameters of the underlying but unresolved scattering distribution. Here, we present a method that provides the ultrasmall-angle x-ray scattering distribution and, thus, allows simultaneous access to direct and reciprocal space information.

Polarity and specific sequence requirements of peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor (PPAR)/retinoid X receptor heterodimer binding to DNA. A functional analysis of the malic enzyme gene PPAR response element.

The malic enzyme (ME) gene is a target for both thyroid hormone receptors and peroxisome proliferator-activated receptors (PPAR). Within the ME promoter, two direct repeat (DR)-1-like elements, MEp and MEd, have been identified as putative PPAR response elements (PPRE). We demonstrate that only MEp and not MEd is able to bind PPAR/retinoid X receptor (RXR) heterodimers and mediate peroxisome proliferator signaling. Taking advantage of the close sequence resemblance of MEp and MEd, we have identified crucial determinants of a PPRE. Using reciprocal mutation analyses of these two elements, we show the preference for adenine as the spacing nucleotide between the two half-sites of the PPRE and demonstrate the importance of the two first bases flanking the core DR1 in 5'. This latter feature of the PPRE lead us to consider the polarity of the PPAR/RXR heterodimer bound to its cognate element. We demonstrate that, in contrast to the polarity of RXR/TR and RXR/RAR bound to DR4 and DR5 elements respectively, PPAR binds to the 5' extended half-site of the response element, while RXR occupies the 3' half-site. Consistent with this polarity is our finding that formation and binding of the PPAR/RXR heterodimer requires an intact hinge T region in RXR while its integrity is not required for binding of the RXR/TR heterodimer to a DR4.

Common human melanoma-associated antigen(s) detected by monoclonal antibodies.

Hybridoma cells have been derived from a fusion between mouse myeloma cells (P3-NSI/1Ag4) and spleen cells from a mouse immunized with membrane-enriched fractions from the human melanoma cell line Me-43. Of the 26 hybrids obtained, seven secreted antibodies which reacted with the melanoma cell line used for immunoassay. The specificity of the antibodies produced by the seven positive hybrids was further investigated on 16 melanoma cell lines, 15 other tumors, and 14 lymphoblastoid cell lines. The antibodies from four positive hybrids showed a broad reactivity, whereas those from three hybrids reacted exclusively with melanoma cells. The antibodies from two of these three hybrids, alpha-Mel/5 and alpha-Mel/14, seem to be directed against common melanoma antigen(s) since they reacted with all (with one exception) of the 16 melanoma cell lines tested only with five of the 16 melanoma lines. Reciprocal binding inhibition tests using [3H]leeucine-labeled antibodies showed that alpha-Mel/5 and alpha-Mel/14 antibodies were directed against different antigenic determinants.

Interhemispheric distribution of Alzheimer disease and vascular pathology in brain aging

BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: Most of the neuropathological studies in brain aging were based on the assumption of a symmetrical right-left hemisphere distribution of both Alzheimer disease and vascular pathology. To explore the impact of asymmetrical lesion formation on cognition, we performed a clinicopathological analysis of 153 cases with mixed pathology except macroinfarcts. METHODS: Cognitive status was assessed prospectively using the Clinical Dementia Rating scale; neuropathological evaluation included assessment of Braak neurofibrillary tangle and Ass deposition staging, microvascular pathology, and lacunes. The right-left hemisphere differences in neuropathological scores were evaluated using the Wilcoxon signed rank test. The relationship between the interhemispheric distribution of lesions and Clinical Dementia Rating scores was assessed using ordered logistic regression. RESULTS: Unlike Braak neurofibrillary tangle and Ass deposition staging, vascular scores were significantly higher in the left hemisphere for all Clinical Dementia Rating scores. A negative relationship was found between Braak neurofibrillary tangle, but not Ass staging, and vascular scores in cases with moderate to severe dementia. In both hemispheres, Braak neurofibrillary tangle staging was the main determinant of cognitive decline followed by vascular scores and Ass deposition staging. The concomitant predominance of Alzheimer disease and vascular pathology in the right hemisphere was associated with significantly higher Clinical Dementia Rating scores. CONCLUSIONS: Our data show that the cognitive impact of Alzheimer disease and vascular lesions in mixed cases may be assessed unilaterally without major information loss. However, interhemispheric differences and, in particular, increased vascular and Alzheimer disease burden in the right hemisphere may increase the risk for dementia in this group.

Adherence to and effectiveness of highly active antiretroviral treatment for HIV infection: assessing the bidirectional relationship.

BACKGROUND: It is well established that high adherence to HIV-infected patients on highly active antiretroviral treatment (HAART) is a major determinant of virological and immunologic success. Furthermore, psychosocial research has identified a wide range of adherence factors including patients' subjective beliefs about the effectiveness of HAART. Current statistical approaches, mainly based on the separate identification either of factors associated with treatment effectiveness or of those associated with adherence, fail to properly explore the true relationship between adherence and treatment effectiveness. Adherence behavior may be influenced not only by perceived benefits-which are usually the focus of related studies-but also by objective treatment benefits reflected in biological outcomes. METHODS: Our objective was to assess the bidirectional relationship between adherence and response to treatment among patients enrolled in the ANRS CO8 APROCO-COPILOTE study. We compared a conventional statistical approach based on the separate estimations of an adherence and an effectiveness equation to an econometric approach using a 2-equation simultaneous system based on the same 2 equations. RESULTS: Our results highlight a reciprocal relationship between adherence and treatment effectiveness. After controlling for endogeneity, adherence was positively associated with treatment effectiveness. Furthermore, CD4 count gain after baseline was found to have a positive significant effect on adherence at each observation period. This immunologic parameter was not significant when the adherence equation was estimated separately. In the 2-equation model, the covariances between disturbances of both equations were found to be significant, thus confirming the statistical appropriacy of studying adherence and treatment effectiveness jointly. CONCLUSIONS: Our results, which suggest that positive biological results arising as a result of high adherence levels, in turn reinforce continued adherence and strengthen the argument that patients who do not experience rapid improvement in their immunologic and clinical statuses after HAART initiation should be prioritized when developing adherence support interventions. Furthermore, they invalidate the hypothesis that HAART leads to "false reassurance" among HIV-infected patients.

Surgical outcomes of Baerveldt aqueous shunt implantation versus combined phacoemulsification and Baerveldt aqueous shunt implantation

Purpose: To examine the efficacy and safety of Baerveldt shunt (BS) implantation compared to combined phacoemulsification and Baerveldt shunt implantation (PBS). This study was designed to detect a difference in IOP reduction of 20% (~4mmHg) between groups with 90% power. Methods: Sixty patients with medically uncontrolled glaucoma, prospectively underwent either or BS implantation with phacoemulsification (Group PBS; n=30) or BS implantation alone (group BS; n=30, pseudophakic eyes only). Groups were matched for age, glaucoma subtype and length of follow-up. Pre and post-operative measures recorded included patient demographics, visual acuity, IOP, number of glaucoma medications (GMs) and all complications. Success was defined as IOP≤21mmHg and 20% reduction in IOP from baseline with or without GMs. Results: Age of PBS and BS groups was 61 vs 62 years respectively (p=0.72*). There were no significant differences in preoperative baseline characteristics: PBS vs PB, mean IOP =25.5mmHg (standard deviation (SD); ±10.3mmHg) vs 26.1mmHg (SD ±10.6mmHg), p=0.81*; mean GMs=3.0 (SD ±1.1) vs 3.1 (SD ±1.0), p=0.83*; mean VA=0.3 vs 0.3, p=0.89*. At year one there were no significant differences observed between groups in post-operative IOP, GMs or VA, mean IOP =14.1mmHg (SD ±5.4mmHg) vs 11.5 mmHg (SD ±4.2mmHg), p=0.12*; mean GMs=1.6 (SD ±1.4) vs 1.1 (SD ±1.1), p=0.23*; mean VA=0.5 vs 0.4, p=0.46*. Complication rates were similar between the two groups (7% vs 14%). Success rate was lower in eyes with PBS (71%) than with BS (88%), however this did not reach statistical significance (p=0.95, log-rank test). * two-sample t-test Conclusions: There were no significant differences at year one in success or complication rates between PBS and BS groups suggesting that simultaneous phacoemulsification does not have a marked (difference of >4mmHg) effect on tube function. IOP reduction and success were less in the PBS group, a larger sample (n=120) would be required to investigate if there is a 10% difference in IOP reduction between groups, however it is unclear if this would be a clinically significant difference to justify separate surgeries.