Gain of function mutations in CgPDR1 of Candida glabrata not only mediate antifungal resistance but also enhance virulence.

CgPdr1p is a Candida glabrata Zn(2)-Cys(6) transcription factor involved in the regulation of the ABC-transporter genes CgCDR1, CgCDR2, and CgSNQ2, which are mediators of azole resistance. Single-point mutations in CgPDR1 are known to increase the expression of at least CgCDR1 and CgCDR2 and thus to contribute to azole resistance of clinical isolates. In this study, we investigated the incidence of CgPDR1 mutations in a large collection of clinical isolates and tested their relevance, not only to azole resistance in vitro and in vivo, but also to virulence. The comparison of CgPDR1 alleles from azole-susceptible and azole-resistant matched isolates enabled the identification of 57 amino acid substitutions, each positioned in distinct CgPDR1 alleles. These substitutions, which could be grouped into three different "hot spots," were gain of function (GOF) mutations since they conferred hyperactivity to CgPdr1p revealed by constitutive high expression of ABC-transporter genes. Interestingly, the major transporters involved in azole resistance (CgCDR1, CgCDR2, and CgSNQ2) were not always coordinately expressed in presence of specific CgPDR1 GOF mutations, thus suggesting that these are rather trans-acting elements (GOF in CgPDR1) than cis-acting elements (promoters) that lead to azole resistance by upregulating specific combinations of ABC-transporter genes. Moreover, C. glabrata isolates complemented with CgPDR1 hyperactive alleles were not only more virulent in mice than those with wild type alleles, but they also gained fitness in the same animal model. The presence of CgPDR1 hyperactive alleles also contributed to fluconazole treatment failure in the mouse model. In conclusion, this study shows for the first time that CgPDR1 mutations are not only responsible for in vitro/in vivo azole resistance but that they can also confer a selective advantage under host conditions.

Birth and rapid subcellular adaptation of a hominoid-specific CDC14 protein

Gene duplication was prevalent during hominoid evolution, yet little is known about the functional fate of new ape gene copies. We characterized the CDC14B cell cycle gene and the functional evolution of its hominoid-specific daughter gene, CDC14Bretro. We found that CDC14B encodes four different splice isoforms that show different subcellular localizations (nucleus or microtubule-associated) and functional properties. A microtubular CDC14B variant spawned CDC14Bretro through retroposition in the hominoid ancestor 18-25 million years ago (Mya). CDC14Bretro evolved brain-/testis-specific expression after the duplication event and experienced a short period of intense positive selection in the African ape ancestor 7-12 Mya. Using resurrected ancestral protein variants, we demonstrate that by virtue of amino acid substitutions in distinct protein regions during this time, the subcellular localization of CDC14Bretro progressively shifted from the association with microtubules (stabilizing them) to an association with the endoplasmic reticulum. CDC14Bretro evolution represents a paradigm example of rapid, selectively driven subcellular relocalization, thus revealing a novel mode for the emergence of new gene function

Isolation and characterization of major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class II B genes in the Barn owl (Aves: Tyto alba)

We isolated major histocompatibility complex class II B (MHCIIB) genes in the Barn owl (Tyto alba). A PCR-based approach combined with primer walking on genomic and complementary DNA as well as Southern blot analyses revealed the presence of two MHCIIB genes, both being expressed in spleen, liver, and blood. Characteristic structural features of MHCIIB genes as well as their expression and high non-synonymous substitution rates in the region involved in antigen binding suggest that both genes are functional. MHC organization in the Barn owl is simple compared to passerine species that show multiple duplications, and resembles the minimal essential MHC of chicken.

Regulation of the Activity of the Dual-Function DnaA Protein in Caulobacter crescentus.

DnaA is a conserved essential bacterial protein that acts as the initiator of chromosomal replication as well as a master transcriptional regulator in Caulobacter crescentus. Thus, the intracellular levels of active DnaA need to be tightly regulated during the cell cycle. Our previous work suggested that DnaA may be regulated at the level of its activity by the replisome-associated protein HdaA. Here, we describe the construction of a mutant DnaA protein [DnaA(R357A)]. The R357 residue in the AAA+ domain of the C. crescentus DnaA protein is equivalent to the R334 residue of the E. coli DnaA protein, which is required for the Regulatory Inactivation of DnaA (RIDA). We found that the expression of the DnaA(R357A) mutant protein in C. crescentus, but not the expression of the wild-type DnaA protein at similar levels, causes a severe phenotype of over-initiation of chromosomal replication and that it blocks cell division. Thus, the mutant DnaA(R357A) protein is hyper-active to promote the initiation of DNA replication, compared to the wild-type DnaA protein. DnaA(R357A) could not replace DnaA in vivo, indicating that the switch in DnaA activity once chromosomal replication has started may be an essential process in C. crescentus. We propose that the inactivation of DnaA is the main mechanism ensuring that chromosomal replication starts only once per cell cycle. We further observed that the R357A substitution in DnaA does not promote the activity of DnaA as a direct transcriptional activator of four important genes, encoding HdaA, the GcrA master cell cycle regulator, the FtsZ cell division protein and the MipZ spatial regulator of cell division. Thus, the AAA+ domain of DnaA may play a role in temporally regulating the bifunctionality of DnaA by reallocating DnaA molecules from initiating DNA replication to transcribing genes within the unique DnaA regulon of C. crescentus.

Ethyl glucuronide in plant extracts :O16

Introduction: The specificity of ethyl glucuronide (EtG) in hair as marker of alcohol consumption exceeds by far those of fatty acid ethyl esters. False positive cases are therefore very rare but not excluded as recent publications have shown. Especially, the use of plant extracts containing high percentages of ethanol can lead to EtG hair concentrations typically found in cases of chronic alcohol consumption. As proposed by Baumgartner et al., a nucleohilic substitution could most likely explain this phenomenon. Fresh and dried plants as well as commercial hair lotions based on plants extracts have been analysed for EtG presence or EtG formation. Methods: Urtica dioica, Plantago lanceolata, Cortex Quercus, Sempervivum, Armoracia rusticana, Juniperus communis, Brassica alba, Thymian vulgaris, Salvia officinalis, Majorana hortensis, Aloe vera, birch gingko and green tea leafs, ginger, lemon grass were extracted in water, water/ethanol (50/50) and ethanol (100%). The extracts as well as diluted hair lotions were measured by immunological test (Microgenics DRI® EtG assay) and by LC-MS/MS on Shimadzu Nexera UHPLC coupled with an AB Sciex 4500 QTrap. Results: EtG could not be detected in water extracts of all tested plants. However, DRI® EtG assay indicated the presence of EtG in 66% of the tested ethanolic plant extracts. That could only be confirmed by mass spectrometry in the cases of fresh thyme as well as in dried birch, oak and plantain extracts where EtG concentrations between of 0.25 and 2,09 mg/l were measured. In one hair lotion, the EtG concentration was 0,76 mg/l. Conclusion: Ethanolic plant extracts represents a non-negligible risk for false positive EtG hair tests, especially when applied as lotion without following washing out. The use of hair care products must therefore be evaluated at every hair sampling. In case of doubt, the product should be analysed by mass spectrometric methods since the presence of EtG can't be proven by use of the DRI® EtG assay, only. Our results support Baumgartner's assumption of a nucleophilic substitution in presence of ethanol because EtG was only measured in the ethanolic extracts.

Evolutionary trajectories of primate genes involved in HIV pathogenesis.

The current availability of five complete genomes of different primate species allows the analysis of genetic divergence over the last 40 million years of evolution. We hypothesized that the interspecies differences observed in susceptibility to HIV-1 would be influenced by the long-range selective pressures on host genes associated with HIV-1 pathogenesis. We established a list of human genes (n = 140) proposed to be involved in HIV-1 biology and pathogenesis and a control set of 100 random genes. We retrieved the orthologous genes from the genome of humans and of four nonhuman primates (Pan troglodytes, Pongo pygmaeus abeli, Macaca mulatta, and Callithrix jacchus) and analyzed the nucleotide substitution patterns of this data set using codon-based maximum likelihood procedures. In addition, we evaluated whether the candidate genes have been targets of recent positive selection in humans by analyzing HapMap Phase 2 single-nucleotide polymorphisms genotyped in a region centered on each candidate gene. A total of 1,064 sequences were used for the analyses. Similar median K(A)/K(S) values were estimated for the set of genes involved in HIV-1 pathogenesis and for control genes, 0.19 and 0.15, respectively. However, genes of the innate immunity had median values of 0.37 (P value = 0.0001, compared with control genes), and genes of intrinsic cellular defense had K(A)/K(S) values around or greater than 1.0 (P value = 0.0002). Detailed assessment allowed the identification of residues under positive selection in 13 proteins: AKT1, APOBEC3G, APOBEC3H, CD4, DEFB1, GML, IL4, IL8RA, L-SIGN/CLEC4M, PTPRC/CD45, Tetherin/BST2, TLR7, and TRIM5alpha. A number of those residues are relevant for HIV-1 biology. The set of 140 genes involved in HIV-1 pathogenesis did not show a significant enrichment in signals of recent positive selection in humans (intraspecies selection). However, we identified within or near these genes 24 polymorphisms showing strong signatures of recent positive selection. Interestingly, the DEFB1 gene presented signatures of both interspecies positive selection in primates and intraspecies recent positive selection in humans. The systematic assessment of long-acting selective pressures on primate genomes is a useful tool to extend our understanding of genetic variation influencing contemporary susceptibility to HIV-1.

A common ancestor DNA motif for invertebrate and vertebrate hormone response elements.

The ecdysone-responsive DNA sequence of the Drosophila hsp27 gene promoter contains four direct and inverted repeats reminiscent of those that compose the vertebrate palindromic estrogen response element (ERE) and the thyroid hormone/retinoic acid response element (TRE/RRE). Interestingly, a 3 bp substitution in the wild-type Hsp27 ecdysone response element (EcdRE) increases both its similarity with the vertebrate ERE and TRE/RRE and its capacity to confer ecdysone responsiveness to a heterologous promoter. Remarkably, increasing the spacing between the inverted repeats of this strong EcdRE by two nucleotides converts it into an ERE. Inversely, decreasing the spacing between the two inverted repeats of the vertebrate consensus palindromic ERE, from three to one nucleotide, converts it into a functional EcdRE. Thus, the only difference between an invertebrate EcdRE and a vertebrate palindromic ERE or TRE/RRE is in the spacing between the conserved inverted repeated motifs forming these palindromic HREs. The finding that the sequence motif 5'-GGTCA-3' present in the vertebrate ERE and TRE/RRE is also a functionally important characteristic of an invertebrate HRE, suggests that a common ancestor regulatory DNA sequence gave rise to all HREs known so far. We discuss the possibility that this progenitor motif is the GGTCA sequence.

Musculoskeletal pain in female asylum seekers and hypovitaminosis D3

Résumé de l'article L'hypovitaminose D3 est bien connue et courante chez la population âgée en Occident. Toutefois, elle est probablement sous-diagnostiquée chez les jeunes femmes immigrantes, bien qu'elle soit bien documentée, principalement en Angleterre dans la population Indo-Pakistanaise. Lorsque ce déficit est diagnostiqué, le traitement substitutif est simple et bon marché. Nous avons suspecté une haute prévalence chez de jeunes femmes requérantes d'asile, surtout chez celles provenant de cultures différant quant à l'exposition solaire et la diète. Nous publions donc une série de 11 cas de patientes avec une hypovitaminose D symptomatique issues de la consultation générale de la Policlinique Médicale Universitaire. Toutes les patientes présentaient une anamnèse d'une faible exposition solaire et de douleurs osseuses diffuses, d'une fatigue, d'une faiblesse musculaire ou des modifications de la marche. Toutefois, les premiers diagnostics évoqués par les médecins étaient une possible somatisation (3 patientes), des douleurs dorso-lombaires chroniques (4 patientes) et des symptômes somatiques multiples et inexpliqués (3 patientes). Le diagnostic a été posé d'emblée chez une patiente seulement. La durée moyenne des plaintes avant la pose du diagnostic était de 38 mois et 5 jours. Avec le traitement de cholecalciférol et de calcium, les symptômes disparaissaient entre 1 et 3 mois, chez une patiente ils ont duré sept mois. Le taux moyen de 250H vitamine D3 était de 10.9 nmol/l (IR 21-131). Le taux moyen de calcium était de 2.19 mmol/l (2.15-2.55) et quatre patientes présentaient une hypocalcémie. Nous pensons donc que les femmes requérantes d'asile sont à risque d'une durée prolongée de symptômes, de part la possible haute prévalence de cette condition et la difficulté chez les médecins à la reconnaître. Le diagnostic d'hypovitaminose devrait être recherché chez les femmes requérantes d'asile souffrant de douleurs musculo-squelettiques de longue durée. Le premier diagnostic souvent évoqué, dans un contexte psychosocial souvent difficile, était de l'ordre d'un trouble somatoforme douloureux ou de somatisations. Toutefois, les douleurs liées à l'hypovitaminose D3 sont relativement bien définies ; elles sont symétriques, osseuses, débutent souvent dans la région lombaire pour ensuite s'étendre au bassin, aux membres inférieures proximalement et à la cage thoracique. Le traitement substitutif est simple, peu onéreux et il serait judicieux d'initier d'autres études pour évaluer le besoin d'une substitution de routine dans la population présentée. Abstract: Deficiency of vitamin D, which can lead to osteomalacia, is common in elderly patients in Western countries. However, it is still widely underdiagnosed in young immigrant women, even though the condition has been extensively reported in the immigrant Indo- Asian population in the United Kingdom since the 1960s. A recent study reports an average 59 months before diagnosis was established, and another study found a prevalence of 78% of hypovitaminosis D3 (compared with 58% in controls) in an Indo-Asian population attending a UK rheumatology clinic. When recognised, hypovitaminosis D3 is easily treatable. A study on osteomalacic myopathy in veiled Arabic women in Denmark found that muscle strength returned to normal (except in maximal voluntary con-traction) after six months' treatment. We expected to see this disease in female asylum seekers, especially in those from societies with different customs regarding exposure to sunlight and diet We report 11 cases of symptomatic hypovitaminosis D3 in female asylum seekers (table 1). We focus on the pathology encountered by the primary care doctors caring for these 11 patients, the length of time between the appearance of symptoms, and the establishment of the diagnosis of hypovitaminosis D3 as well as the women's response to treatment by the improvement of a wide range of clinical symptoms-bone pain, muscular weakness, and fatigue.

Method for retinal gene repair in neonatal mouse.

Gene correction at the site of the mutation in the chromosome is the absolute way to really cure a genetic disease. The oligonucleotide (ODN)-mediated gene repair technology uses an ODN perfectly complementary to the genomic sequence except for a mismatch at the base that is mutated. The endogenous repair machinery of the targeted cell then mediates substitution of the desired base in the gene, resulting in a completely normal sequence. Theoretically, it avoids potential gene silencing or random integration associated with common viral gene augmentation approaches and allows an intact regulation of expression of the therapeutic protein. The eye is a particularly attractive target for gene repair because of its unique features (small organ, easily accessible, low diffusion into systemic circulation). Moreover therapeutic effects on visual impairment could be obtained with modest levels of repair. This chapter describes in details the optimized method to target active ODNs to the nuclei of photoreceptors in neonatal mouse using (1) an electric current application at the eye surface (saline transpalpebral iontophoresis), (2) combined with an intravitreous injection of ODNs, as well as the experimental methods for (3) the dissection of adult neural retinas, (4) their immuno-labelling, and (5) flat-mounting for direct observation of photoreceptor survival, a relevant criteria of treatment outcomes for retinal degeneration.

Trauma et mémoire - quand la douleur infiltre le corps et l'âme: un regard sur les toxicodépendances graves

This article describes the long-lasting psychological after-effects of a traumatic experience. There is growing lmowledge of the biomedical underpinnings of these phenomena: the underlying mechanisms belong to an implicit learning process whereby the victim remains under the influence of painful past experiences. One of these mechanisms concerns the development of a traumatic bonding which Iioticeably impedes the establishment of interpersona! relationships. The other mechanism, called "contextualisation deficit", is the difficulty of adjusting a person's emotional and behavioural reactivity to the context of present day !ife. This capacity of a traumatic experience to become incrusted long-termina human being's mind, and to haunt the victim with various forms of psychological and physical suffering, can be compared with the presence of a tumour or an abscess in somatic medicine. Th us, severe drug addiction can be conceptualised as a disorder in which the patient tries - in most cases ineffectively - to soothe the pain of today's world in cmmection with the trauma of the past. In conclusion, this article urges the development of psychiatrie care programmes which operate at the centre of the suffering encountered by the se patients, as a complement to the already well-established offers such as harm reduction, substitution therapy and social support.

Choice of Initial Combination Antiretroviral Therapy in Individuals With HIV Infection: Determinants and Outcomes.

BACKGROUND Current guidelines give recommendations for preferred combination antiretroviral therapy (cART). We investigated factors influencing the choice of initial cART in clinical practice and its outcome. METHODS We analyzed treatment-naive adults with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection participating in the Swiss HIV Cohort Study and starting cART from January 1, 2005, through December 31, 2009. The primary end point was the choice of the initial antiretroviral regimen. Secondary end points were virologic suppression, the increase in CD4 cell counts from baseline, and treatment modification within 12 months after starting treatment. RESULTS A total of 1957 patients were analyzed. Tenofovir-emtricitabine (TDF-FTC)-efavirenz was the most frequently prescribed cART (29.9%), followed by TDF-FTC-lopinavir/r (16.9%), TDF-FTC-atazanavir/r (12.9%), zidovudine-lamivudine (ZDV-3TC)-lopinavir/r (12.8%), and abacavir/lamivudine (ABC-3TC)-efavirenz (5.7%). Differences in prescription were noted among different Swiss HIV Cohort Study sites (P < .001). In multivariate analysis, compared with TDF-FTC-efavirenz, starting TDF-FTC-lopinavir/r was associated with prior AIDS (relative risk ratio, 2.78; 95% CI, 1.78-4.35), HIV-RNA greater than 100 000 copies/mL (1.53; 1.07-2.18), and CD4 greater than 350 cells/μL (1.67; 1.04-2.70); TDF-FTC-atazanavir/r with a depressive disorder (1.77; 1.04-3.01), HIV-RNA greater than 100 000 copies/mL (1.54; 1.05-2.25), and an opiate substitution program (2.76; 1.09-7.00); and ZDV-3TC-lopinavir/r with female sex (3.89; 2.39-6.31) and CD4 cell counts greater than 350 cells/μL (4.50; 2.58-7.86). At 12 months, 1715 patients (87.6%) achieved viral load less than 50 copies/mL and CD4 cell counts increased by a median (interquartile range) of 173 (89-269) cells/μL. Virologic suppression was more likely with TDF-FTC-efavirenz, and CD4 increase was higher with ZDV-3TC-lopinavir/r. No differences in outcome were observed among Swiss HIV Cohort Study sites. CONCLUSIONS Large differences in prescription but not in outcome were observed among study sites. A trend toward individualized cART was noted suggesting that initial cART is significantly influenced by physician's preference and patient characteristics. Our study highlights the need for evidence-based data for determining the best initial regimen for different HIV-infected persons.

Polymorphic mutations associated with the emergence of the multinucleoside/tide resistance mutations 69 insertion and Q151M.

BACKGROUND: We hypothesized that polymorphic mutations exist that are associated with the emergence of the multinucleoside resistance mutations (MNR), 69 insertion and Q151M. METHODS: The Swiss HIV Cohort Study was screened, and the frequencies of polymorphic mutations in HIV-1 (subtype B) were compared between patients detected with the 69 insertion (n = 17), Q151M (n = 29), ≥2 thymidine analogue mutations (TAM) 1 (n = 400) or ≥2 TAM 2 (n = 249). Logistic regressions adjusted for the antiretroviral treatment history were performed to analyze the association of the polymorphic mutations with MNR. RESULTS: The 69 insertion and TAM 1 were strongly associated and occurred in 94.1% (16 of 17) together. The 69 insertion seemed to emerge as a consequence of the TAM 1 pathway (median years until detection: 6.8 compared with 4.4 for ≥2 TAM 1, P Wilcoxon = 0.009). Frequencies of 8 polymorphic mutations (K43E, V60I, S68G, S162C, T165I, I202V, R211K, F214L) were significantly different between groups. Logistic regression showed that F214L and V60I were associated with the emergence of Q151M/TAM 2 opposed to 69 insertion/TAM 1. S68G, T165I, and I202V were associated with Q151M instead of TAM 2. CONCLUSIONS: Besides antiretroviral therapy, polymorphic mutations may contribute to the emergence of specific MNR mutations.

Cannabis and tobacco use: where are the boundaries? A qualitative study on cannabis consumption modes among adolescents.

The purpose of this article is to identify tobacco and cannabis co-consumptions and consumers' perceptions of each substance. A qualitative research including 22 youths (14 males) aged 15-21 years in seven individual interviews and five focus groups. Discussions were recorded, transcribed verbatim and transferred to Atlas.ti software for narrative analysis. The main consumption mode is cannabis cigarettes which always mix cannabis and tobacco. Participants perceive cannabis much more positively than tobacco, which is considered unnatural, harmful and addictive. Future consumption forecasts thus more often exclude tobacco smoking than cannabis consumption. A substitution phenomenon often takes place between both substances. Given the co-consumption of tobacco and cannabis, in helping youths quit or decrease their consumptions, both substances should be taken into account in a global approach. Cannabis consumers should be made aware of their tobacco use while consuming cannabis and the risk of inducing nicotine addiction through cannabis use, despite the perceived disconnect between the two substances. Prevention programs should correct made-up ideas about cannabis consumption and convey a clear message about its harmful consequences. Our findings support the growing evidence which suggests that nicotine dependence and cigarette smoking may be induced by cannabis consumption.

Fonction surrénalienne après bolus d'étomidate en chirurgie cardiaque : une étude rétrospective [Adrenal function after induction of cardiac surgery patients with etomidate: A retrospective study]

Objectif Un bolus unique d'étomidate inhibe une enzyme mitochondriale impliquée dans la synthèse du cortisol. Au sein de notre institution, tout patient candidat à une chirurgie cardiaque reçoit de l'étomidate à l'induction de l'anesthésie. L'objectif de cette étude a été de déterminer l'incidence des dysfonctions surrénaliennes chez les patients bénéficiant d'une chirurgie cardiaque et nécessitant de hautes doses de noradrénaline au cours de la période postopératoire. Type d'étude Étude rétrospective descriptive dans l'unité de réanimation d'un centre hospitalier universitaire. Patients et méthodes Soixante-trois patients admis en réanimation après chirurgie cardiaque nécessitant plus de 0,2μg/kg par minute de noradrénaline au cours des premières 48 heures postopératoires ont été étudiés. L'insuffisance surrénalienne absolue a été définie par un cortisol basal inférieur à 414nmo/l (15μg/dl), l'insuffisance surrénalienne relative par un cortisol basal entre 414nmo/l (15μg/dl) et 938nmo/l (34μg/dl) avec une augmentation de la cortisolémie (à 60 minutes après un test de stimulation par 250μg de corticotropine de synthèse) inférieure à 250nmo/l (9μg/dl). Résultats Quatorze patients (22 %) ont présenté une fonction surrénalienne normale, 10 (16 %) une insuffisance surrénalienne absolue et 39 (62 %) une insuffisance surrénalienne relative. Tous les patients ont reçu une substitution stéroïdienne, sans aucune différence d'évolution clinique entre les différents groupes. Conclusion L'incidence de l'insuffisance surrénalienne chez les patients qui ont reçu un bolus d'étomidate à l'induction, lors d'une chirurgie cardiaque avec circulation extracorporelle, et présenté une défaillance circulatoire postopératoire, est élevée.