Cellular perspectives on the glutamate-monoamine interactions in limbic lobe structures and their relevance for some psychiatric disorders.

Dopaminergic, serotonergic and noradrenergic nuclei form the trimonoamine modulating system (TMMS). This system modulates emotional/motivational activities mediated by the limbic circuitry, where glutamate is the major excitatory neurotransmitter. Two main concepts are the basis of this review. First, since 1950 and the discovery of the antipsychotic activity of the dopamine D2 receptor antagonist chlorpromazine, it appears that drugs that can modulate the TMMS possess therapeutic psychiatric properties. Second, the concept of glutamate/trimonoamine imbalance in the cortico-striato-thalamo-cortical loop that has been so successful in explaining the pathophysiology of Parkinson disease has been applied in the pathophysiology of schizophrenia. This review will focus on the complex interactions between the fast synaptic glutamatergic transmission and the TMMS in specific parts of the limbic lobe and we will try to link these interactions to some psychiatric disorders, mainly depression, schizophrenia and drug addiction.

An optimized method for establishing high purity murine CD8(+) T cell cultures.

Establishing CD8(+) T cell cultures has been empirical and the published methods have been largely individual laboratory based. In this study, we optimized culturing conditions and show that IL-2 concentration is the most critical factor for the success of establishing CD8(+) T cell cultures. High IL-2 concentration encouraged T cells to non-specifically proliferate, express a B cell marker, B220, and undergo apoptosis. These cells also lose typical irregular T cell morphology and are incapable of sustaining long-term cultures. Using tetramer and intracellular cytokine assessments, we further demonstrated that many antigen-specific T cells have been rendered nonfunctional when expanded under high IL-2 concentration. When IL-2 is used in the correct range, B220-mediated cell depletion greatly enhanced the success rate of such T cell cultures.

Comparison of the proliferative activity of neuroblasts from chick embryo cerebral hemispheres of different ages in culture.

Dissociated cerebral hemisphere cells from 4- to 7-day-old chick embryos were cultured either on a collagen or a polylysine substrate in a serum-containing medium. Neurons were characterized by the demonstration of acetylcholinesterase, the presence of D2/N-CAM glycoprotein and neurofilament proteins. The proliferation of neuronal precursor cells was shown by morphological observations, autoradiographic analysis and measurements of [3H]-thymidine incorporation. Neuronal precursors derived from the 6-day-old embryos showed the highest proliferative activity. Neuroblast proliferation was found to be dependent on the culture substrates (i.e. polylysine or collagen), which yielded either isolated cells or cell aggregates, and the latter favored the mitogenic effect.

Combining bone resorption markers and heel quantitative ultrasound to discriminate between fracture cases and controls.

This nested case-control analysis of a Swiss ambulatory cohort of elderly women assessed the discriminatory power of urinary markers of bone resorption and heel quantitative ultrasound for non-vertebral fractures. The tests all discriminated between cases and controls, but combining the two strategies yielded no additional relevant information. INTRODUCTION: Data are limited regarding the combination of bone resorption markers and heel quantitative bone ultrasound (QUS) in the detection of women at risk for fracture. METHODS: In a nested case-control analysis, we studied 368 women (mean age 76.2 +/- 3.2 years), 195 with low-trauma non-vertebral fractures and 173 without, matched for age, BMI, medical center, and follow-up duration, from a prospective study designed to predict fractures. Urinary total pyridinolines (PYD) and deoxypyridinolines (DPD) were measured by high performance liquid chromatography. All women underwent bone evaluations using Achilles+ and Sahara heel QUS. RESULTS: Areas under the receiver operating-characteristic curve (AUC) for discriminative models of the fracture group, with 95% confidence intervals, were 0.62 (0.56-0.68) and 0.59 (0.53-0.65) for PYD and DPD, and 0.64 (0.58-0.69) and 0.65 (0.59-0.71) for Achilles+ and Sahara QUS, respectively. The combination of resorption markers and QUS added no significant discriminatory information to either measurement alone with an AUC of 0.66 (0.60-0.71) for Achilles+ with PYD and 0.68 (0.62-0.73) for Sahara with PYD. CONCLUSIONS: Urinary bone resorption markers and QUS are equally discriminatory between non-vertebral fracture patients and controls. However, the combination of bone resorption markers and QUS is not better than either test used alone.

Final antigenic Melan-A peptides produced directly by the proteasomes are preferentially selected for presentation by HLA-A*0201 in melanoma cells.

The melanoma-associated protein Melan-A contains the immunodominant CTL epitope Melan-A(26/27-35)/HLA-A*0201 against which a high frequency of T lymphocytes has been detected in many melanoma patients. In this study we show that the in vitro degradation of a polypeptide encompassing Melan-A(26/27-35) by proteasomes produces both the final antigenic peptide and N-terminally extended intermediates. When human melanoma cells expressing the corresponding fragments were exposed to specific CTL, those expressing the minimal antigenic sequence were recognized more efficiently than those expressing the N-terminally extended intermediates. Using a tumor-reactive CTL clone, we confirmed that the recognition of melanoma cells expressing an N-terminally extended intermediate of Melan-A is inefficient. We demonstrated that the inefficient cytosolic trimming of N-terminally extended intermediates could offer a selective advantage for the preferred presentation of Melan-A peptides directly produced by the proteasomes. These results imply that both the proteasomes and postproteasomal peptidases limit the availability of antigenic peptides and that the efficiency of presentation may be affected by conditions that alter the ratio between fully and partially processed proteasomal products.

Effects of intranasal administration of synthetic (4-28)human atrial natriuretic peptide to normal volunteers.

The effects of intranasal administration of increasing doses of synthetic human natriuretic peptide (4-28 hANP) were studied in six healthy volunteers. The peptide was administered as a nasal spray at doses of 50, 100, 200, and 500 micrograms in ascending order at 48-h intervals. Vehicle was administered by the same route randomly between any two of the doses. Intranasal hANP administration had no effect on either blood pressure, heart rate (HR), or hematocrit. Diuresis did not change consistently, whereas natriuresis tended to rise with vehicle as well as with hANP administration. This was attributed to the infusion of isotonic saline during the experiment. There was no significant increase in plasma ANP levels after intranasal administration of any of the different doses. Thus, no evidence that the atrial natriuretic peptide tested (4-28 hANP) can cross the nasal mucosal barrier was found.

Inbreeding load, bet hedging, and the evolution of sex-biased dispersal

Inbreeding load affects not only the average fecundity of philopatric individuals but also its variance. From bet-hedging theory, this should add further dispersal pressures to those stemming from the mere avoidance of inbreeding. Pressures on both sexes are identical under monogamy or promiscuity. Under polygyny, by contrast, the variance in reproductive output decreases with dispersal rate in females but increases in males, which should induce a female-biased dispersal. To test this prediction, we performed individual-based simulations. From our results, a female-biased dispersal indeed emerges as both polygyny and inbreeding load increase. We conclude that sex-biased dispersal may be selected for as a bet-hedging strategy.

Apport de la pH-impédancemétrie au diagnostic du reflux gastro- oesophagien et de la dysphagie [Advantages of pH-impedance monitoring in gastroesophageal reflux and dysphagia investigations]

Les manifestations ORL du reflux gastro-œsophagien sont fréquentes. La pH-impédancemétrie permet d’évaluer des reflux acides ou non acides et de déterminer leur extension proximale. A la lumière de deux patients de notre collectif, nous observons une corrélation entre reflux non acide et symptômes ORL dans le premier cas et une suppression acide insuffisante dans le deuxième cas. Ces résultats nous orientent vers un traitement spécifique complémentaire aux inhibiteurs de la pompe à protons. La pH-impédancemétrie détecte les reflux aussi bien acides que non acides, et analyse la concordance entre les symptômes et les épisodes de reflux. Elle permet ainsi une meilleure compréhension des manifestations ORL du reflux gastro-œsophagien et une prise en charge thérapeutique mieux adaptée. ENT symptoms of gastro-esophageal reflux are frequent. pH-impedance can detect acid and non-acid reflux and measure their proximal extension. The technique identifies the refluxate by changes in impedance. We discuss 2 clinical situations where correlation of symptoms could be explained by a non-acid reflux in the first case, and a lack of acid suppression in the second case, respectively. These results lead to a specific additional treatment to proton pump inhibitors (PPI). This technology provides a better understanding of the pathogenesis of reflux laryngitis, and affords the prescription of PPI on a proven diagnosis. Detection of non-acid reflux leads to an optimized medical treatment.

Hospital outbreak of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus caused by a new, possibly hyperepidemic variant from a previously sporadic strain.

Objective: To describe an ongoing outbreak that tripled the annual detection of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) carriage in a tertiary care hospital. Methods: Active surveillance of MRSA is performed since 20 years in our hospital. Our protocol includes screening of patients transferred from high-incidence health-care institutions or countries, roommates of new MRSA cases, and wards where _2 patients acquired MRSA during the same week. Contact precautions are used for known carriers. PFGE was used for molecular typing until 2004, and was then replaced by Double-Locus Sequence Typing (DLST). Results: A median yearly incidence of 173 new carriers of MRSA was observed from 2002 to 2007. Since September 2008, an increasing number of new cases were observed, mainly as successive clusters limited to distinct wards, reaching a total of 398 until October 2009. The yearly incidence of new cases rose to 275 in 2008 and 613 in 2009. 60% of the cases were due to one strain: DLST 4−4, ST 228, SCCmecI. The incidence of new cases due to the previously predominant strains remained unchanged. The epidemic strain corresponded to a new variant of a clone responsible for a previous outbreak in 2001, and only sporadically isolated (mean of 20 cases/year) since then. A case- control study documented a significant association between acquisition of the epidemic strain and a stay in intensive and intermediary care units, a highest number of internal transfers, but did not identify a point source of transmission. Infection control practices and antibiotic policy had remained unchanged for several years. Compliance with handhygiene as monitored yearly was on the rise. Screening of 313 healthcare workers only found one carrier of the epidemic strain lately in the outbreak. Additional infection control measures were enforced, including screening at ICU admission and discharge with PCR-based rapid test, routine screening for all patients leaving epidemic wards, introduction of PCR-based rapid test for contact tracing, additional working forces for environmental disinfection, and hospital-wide education of healthcare workers. However, the outbreak was still ongoing after 5 months. Conclusions: Factors linked to the dissemination of this new variant in our institution remain undetermined. This unresolved outbreak suggests that this new variant acquired hyperepidemic properties, which calls for further investigations.

Use of the Cognitive Performance Scale (CPS) to detect cognitive impairment in the acute care setting: concurrent and predictive validity.

The Cognitive Performance Scale (CPS) was initially designed to assess cognition in long term care residents. Subsequently, the CPS has also been used among in-home, post-acute, and acute care populations even though CPS' clinimetric performance has not been studied in these settings. This study aimed to determine CPS agreement with the Mini Mental Status Exam (MMSE) and its predictive validity for institutionalization and death in a cohort (N=401) of elderly medical inpatients aged 75 years and over. Medical, physical and mental status were assessed upon admission. The same day, the patient's nurse completed the CPS by interview. Follow-up data were gathered from the central billing system (nursing home stay) and proxies (death). Cognitive impairment was present in 92 (23%) patients according to CPS (score >or= 2). Agreement with MMSE was moderate (kappa 0.52, P<.001). Analysis of discordant results suggested that cognitive impairment was overestimated by the CPS in dependent patients with comorbidities and depressive symptoms, and underestimated in older ones. During follow-up, subjects with abnormal CPS had increased risks of death (adjusted hazard ratio (adjHR) 1.7, 95% CI 1.0-2.8, P=.035) and institutionalization (adjHR 2.7, 95% CI 1.3-5.3, P=.006), independent of demographic, health and functional status. Interestingly, subjects with abnormal CPS were at increased risk of death only if they also had abnormal MMSE. The CPS predicted death and institutionalization during follow-up, but correlated moderately well with the MMSE. Combining CPS and MMSE provided additional predictive information, suggesting that domains other than cognition are assessed by professionals when using the CPS in elderly medical inpatients.