11 resultados para SYNDROME GROUP-B
Resumo:
Introdução: O rastreio para doenças de transmissão vertical na gravidez contribuiu para a melhoria dos cuidados perinatais. Objectivo: Avaliar o resultado de serologias para infeções do grupo TORCH e do rastreio para Streptococcus do grupo B (SGB) numa amostra de grávidas de uma maternidade, estudar a influência da idade e da nacionalidade, e identificar casos de infecção congénita. Material e Métodos: Estudo não probabilístico de prevalência de imunidade e infecção durante a gravidez. Resultados: Registámos 9508 serologias TORCH e 2639 resultados de rastreio para SGB. A taxa de imunidade para rubéola foi 93,3%, significativamente mais elevada em portuguesas; 25,7% das mulheres tinham IgG positiva para Toxoplasma goondii; a taxa foi mais elevada nas mulheres mais velhas e entre estrangeiras; encontrámos IgG positiva para vírus citomegálico humano (CMV) em 62,4%; não houve variação com a idade. O VDRL foi reactivo em 0,5%; 2,3% das mães tinham AgHBs positivo, mais frequente nas estrangeiras; 1,4% tinha anticorpos para o vírus da hepatite C e 0,7% tinha VIH positivo. Não houve casos declarados de infeção congénita; 13,9% das mulheres eram portadoras de SGB. Discussão: A elevada taxa de imunidade para a rubéola é resultado da política nacional de vacinação. A baixa taxa de imunidade para a toxoplasmose torna mais dispendioso o seguimento das grávidas. A elevada prevalência do CMV está de acordo com o encontrado na comunidade. Para algumas infeções foram encontradas diferenças de acordo com a nacionalidade. Conclusão: O conhecimento da imunidade e infecção na população é um instrumento importante para o planeamento dos rastreios durante a gravidez.
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Background: A new method for determining serum specific IgE (IMMULITE“ 2000 3gAllergy) has recently become available. Objective: To evaluate the clinical performance of IMMULITE 2000 in the diagnosis of cow’s milk allergy compared with that of UniCAP“. Additionally, we verified the behavior of both methods at two diagnostic decision points proposed by other authors. Methods: The study population consisted of 31 children with cow’s milk allergy (group A) and a control group of 19 atopic children without food allergy(group B). A blood sample from each child was tested using both methods and the results were compared. Results: In group A, the values for cow’s milk IgE ranged from 0.35 kU/L (the lowest common detection limit) to above 100 kU/L. In group B, the values were less than 1.1 kU/L for IMMULITE 2000 and less than 1.6 kU/L for UniCAP. An agreement of 90 % in IgE classes was obtained. Both methods demonstrated exactly the same diagnostic performance(sensitivity: 100 %; specificity: 78.9 %; negative predictive value: 100%; positive predictive value: 84.6%;efficiency: 90.2 %). The evaluation of the two methods at the two different decision points proposed in the literature showed a better positive predictive value with UniCAP, but we obtained equivalent performance with IMMULITE 2000 by choosing higher cutoff values. Conclusions: We conclude that IMMULITE 2000 is as effective as UniCAP in the diagnosis of cow’s milk allergy. Both methods can be used to obtain site-specific decision points that are population, age and disease dependent.
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Atrial electrical remodeling plays a part in recurrence of atrial fibrillation (AF). It has been related to an increase in heterogeneity of atrial refractoriness that facilitates the occurrence of multiple reentry wavelets and vulnerability to AF. AIM: To examine the relationship between dispersion of atrial refractoriness (Disp_A) and vulnerability to AF induction (A_Vuln) in patients with clinical paroxysmal AF (PAF). METHODS: Thirty-six patients (22 male; age 55+/-13 years) with > or =1 year of history of PAF (no underlying structural heart disease--n=20, systemic hypertension--n=14, mitral valve prolapse--n=1, surgically corrected pulmonary stenosis--n=1), underwent electrophysiological study (EPS) while off medication. The atrial effective refractory period (AERP) was assessed at five different sites--high (HRA) and low (LRA) lateral right atrium, high interatrial septum (IAS), proximal (pCS) and distal (dCS) coronary sinus--during a cycle length of 600 ms. AERP was taken as the longest S1-S2 interval that failed to initiate a propagation response. Disp_A was calculated as the difference between the longest and shortest AERP. A_Vuln was defined as the ability to induce AF with 1-2 extrastimuli or with incremental atrial pacing (600-300 ms) from the HRA or dCS. The EPS included analysis of focal electrical activity based on the presence of supraventricular ectopic beats (spontaneous or with provocative maneuvers). The patients were divided into group A--AF inducible (n=25) and group B--AF not inducible (n=11). Disp_A was analyzed to determine any association with A_Vuln. Disp_A and A_Vuln were also examined in those patients with documented repetitive focal activity. Logistic regression was used to determine any association of the following variables with A_Vuln: age, systemic hypertension, left ventricular hypertrophy, left atrial size, left ventricular function, duration of PAF, documented atrial flutter/tachycardia and Disp_A. RESULTS: There were no significant differences between the groups with regard to clinical characteristics and echocardiographic data. AF was inducible in 71% of the patients and noninducible in 29%. Group A had greater Disp_A compared to group B (105+/-78 ms vs. 49+/-20 ms; p=0.01). Disp_A was >40 ms in 50% of the patients without A_Vuln and in 91% of those with A_Vuln (p=0.05). Focal activity was demonstrated in 14 cases (39%), 57% of them with A_Vuln. Disp_A was 56+/-23 ms in this group and 92+/-78 ms in the others (p=0.07). Using logistic regression, the only predictor of A_Vuln was Disp_A (p=0.05). CONCLUSION: In patients with paroxysmal AF, Disp_A is a major determinant of A_Vuln. Nevertheless, the degree of nonuniformity of AERP appears to be less important as an electrophysiological substrate for AF due to focal activation.
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INTRODUCTION: Recent clinical trials have studied parameters that could predict response to cardiac resynchronization therapy (CRT) in patients with advanced heart failure. Left ventricular end-diastolic dimension (LVEDD) is regarded as a possible predictor of response to CRT. OBJECTIVE: To study the response to CRT in patients with very dilated cardiomyopathy, i.e. those at a more advanced stage of the pathology, analyzing both the responder rate and reverse remodeling in two groups of patients classified according to LVEDD. METHODS: We performed a retrospective analysis of 71 patients who underwent CRT (aged 62 +/- 11 years; 65% male; 93% in NYHA functional class > or = III; 31% with ischemic cardiomyopathy; left ventricular ejection fraction [LVEF] 25.6 +/- 6.8%; 32% in atrial fibrillation; QRS 176 +/- 31 ms). Twenty-two (31%) patients with LVEDD > or = 45 mm/m2 (49.2 +/- 3.5 mm/m2) were considered to have very dilated cardiomyopathy (Group A) and 49 patients had LVEDD > 37 mm/m2 and < 45 mm/m2 (39.4 +/- 3.8 mm/m2) (Group B). All patients were assessed by two-dimensional echocardiography at baseline and six months after CRT. The following parameters were analyzed: NYHA functional class, LVEF and LVEDD. Responders were defined clinically (improvement of > or = 1 NYHA class) and by echocardiography, with a minimum 15% increase over baseline LVEF combined with a reduction in LVEDD (reverse remodeling). RESULTS: There were no significant differences in baseline demographic characteristics between the two groups. At six-month followup, we observed an improvement in LVEF (delta 8.5 +/- 11.8%) and a reduction in LVEDD (delta 3.7 +/- 6.8 mm/m2), with fifty-seven (79%) patients being classified as clinical responders. The percentage of patients with reverse remodeling was similar in both groups (64% vs. 73%, p = NS), as were percentages of improved LVEF (delta 6.3 +/- 11% vs. delta 9.6 +/- 12%; p = NS) and decreased LVEDD (delta 3.7 +/- 5.5 mm/m2 vs. delta 3.7 +/- 7.4 mm/m2; p = NS). We found a higher percentage of clinical responders in patients with very dilated cardiomyopathy (96% vs. 72%, p < 0.05). CONCLUSION: In this study, a significant number of responders showed reverse remodeling after CRT. Although a higher percentage of patients with very dilated cardiomyopathy showed improvement in functional class, the extent of reverse remodeling was similar in both groups.
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The impact of atrial dispersion of refractoriness (Disp_A) in the inducibility and maintenance of atrial fibrillation (AF) has not been fully resolved. AIM: To study the Disp_A and the vulnerability (A_Vuln) for the induction of self-limited (<60 s) and sustained episodes of AF. METHODS AND RESULTS: Forty-seven patients with paroxysmal AF (PAF): 29 patients without structural heart disease and 18 with hypertensive heart disease. Atrial effective refractory period (ERP) was assessed at five sites--right atrial appendage and low lateral right atrium, high interatrial septum, proximal and distal coronary sinus. We compared three groups: group A - AF not inducible (n=13); group B - AF inducible, self-limited (n=18); group C - AF inducible, sustained (n=16). Age, lone AF, hypertension, left atrial and left ventricular (LV) dimensions, LV systolic function, duration of AF history, atrial flutter/tachycardia, previous antiarrhythmics, and Disp_A were analysed with logistic regression to determine association with A_Vuln for AF inducibility. The ERP at different sites showed no differences among the groups. Group A had a lower Disp_A compared to group B (47+/-20 ms vs 82+/-65 ms; p=0.002), and when compared to group C (47+/-20 ms vs 80+/-55 ms; p=0.008). There was no significant difference in Disp_A between groups B and C. By means of multivariate regression analysis, the only predictor of A_Vuln was Disp_A (p=0.04). Conclusion: In patients with PAF, increased Disp_A represents an electrophysiological marker of A_Vuln. Inducibility of both self-limited and sustained episodes of AF is associated with similar values of Disp_A. These findings suggest that the maintenance of AF is influenced by additional factors.
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Perinatal bacterial infection may be caused by any microorganism colonizing the vaginal tract. Neonatologists and paediatricians are especially concerned about group B Stretpococcus (GBS). However, Enterobactereacea, mainly E.coli and Proteus, are also responsible for infection. GBS screening may be accomplished in over 90% of pregnant women. In our maternity in 2007-2008, 85% of the mothers had been screened. Screening and prophylaxis were responsible for a decreasing incidence of neonatal infection - from 0.6/1000 to 0.15/1000 live births in Portugal, from 2002 to 2007. However there are some difficulties related to screening. In the second Portuguese study 16/57 NB with early-onset infection (28%) were born to “negative” mothers. Several factors illustrate how difficult is to draw national screening policies: a wide range of carrier’s state rate throughout a country - in Portugal from 12% to 30%. The success of any screening policy may also be affected by additional technical and organizational problems. In countries where home delivery is a tradition or a trend intrapartum GBS prophylaxis requires a very well organized assistance.. Moreover factors usually accepted as protective are not so effective. In the Portuguese study 24/57 infected newborns (42%) were delivery by caesarean section. Another subject deals with the workload in the postnatal ward generated by deficient compliance to the guidelines a problem not confirm by a study of our group. Decreasing the importance of GBS, highlight the importance of E. coli in perinatal infection. From the 16 340 registrations of the National Registry 1676 were newborns with mother-related infection. Applying the same reasoning to E.coli as to GBS and Listeria monocytogenes – that is considering all of them are of maternal origin - 6.7% of these infections were due to E. coli, 4.6% to SGB and 0.5% to Listeria monocytogenes. In conclusion screening and prophylaxis may be not the best way to prevent all GBS neonatal infections but by now it is the only available procedure. The other bacteria continue to demand a high suspicion level and immediate intervention.
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Renal transplant in highly sensitised patients is associated with increased morbidity. The aim of this retrospective study was to evaluate the clinical evolution of 30 highly sensitised deceased donor kidney transplants and the influence of different timing of B cell directed treatment and its importance in the outcome of these patients. All recipients had negative complement dependent lymphocytotoxicity cytotoxic T cell crossmatch and no identified anti human leucocyte antigen class I donor specific antibodies. T cell flow crossmatch was performed within 24h of transplantation with serum obtained pretransplant (historic, recent or baseline). Posttransplant flow crossmatch were performed prospectively starting on the 3rd posttransplantation day. The immunosuppressive regime included thymoglobulin, tacrolimus, mycofenolate mofetil and steroids. Positive flow crossmatch occurred in 20/29 patients by the 3rd posttransplantation day, and in 17/27 patients after the 3rd posttransplantation day. All patients were started on intravenous immunoglobulin before transplantation: in nine patients (group A) at 400mg/kg/day for five days; in the remaining 21 patients (group B), as a continued infusion of 2g/kg during 48h. In group A, Rituximab was added only in the presence of antibody mediated rejection; in group B, introduced on the 3rd posttransplantation day whenever a positive flow crossmatch (with serum obtained pre or posttransplant) was reported. Antibody mediated rejection was observed in 44.4% of patients in group A, and 19% of those in group B. Mean follow-up was 12.2±5.5 months. Overall allograft survival was 76.6%, 81% in group B, and 66.6% in group A. At last follow up, mean serum creatinine was 1.3±0.6 mg/dl. Renal transplantation with pretransplant positive flow crossmatch is highly associated with antibody mediated rejection, despite introduction of intravenous immunoglobulin pretransplantation. However high dose intravenous immunoglobulin for 48h plus Rituximab by the 3rd posttransplantation day reduce the incidence of antibody mediated rejection by more than 50% and allowed for allograft survival of 81% at one year, with an excellent renal function.
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PURPOSE: This study was designed to compare baseline data and clinical outcome between patients with prostate enlargement/benign prostatic hyperplasia (PE/BPH) who underwent unilateral and bilateral prostatic arterial embolization (PAE) for the relief of lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS). METHODS: This single-center, ambispective cohort study compared 122 consecutive patients (mean age 66.7 years) with unilateral versus bilateral PAE from March 2009 to December 2011. Selective PAE was performed with 100- and 200-μm nonspherical polyvinyl alcohol (PVA) particles by a unilateral femoral approach. RESULTS: Bilateral PAE was performed in 103 (84.4 %) patients (group A). The remaining 19 (15.6 %) patients underwent unilateral PAE (group B). Mean follow-up time was 6.7 months in group A and 7.3 months in group B. Mean prostate volume, PSA, International prostate symptom score/quality of life (IPSS/QoL) and post-void residual volume (PVR) reduction, and peak flow rate (Qmax) improvement were 19.4 mL, 1.68 ng/mL, 11.8/2.0 points, 32.9 mL, and 3.9 mL/s in group A and 11.5 mL, 1.98 ng/mL, 8.9/1.4 points, 53.8 mL, and 4.58 mL/s in group B. Poor clinical outcome was observed in 24.3 % of patients from group A and 47.4 % from group B (p = 0.04). CONCLUSIONS: PAE is a safe and effective technique that can induce 48 % improvement in the IPSS score and a prostate volume reduction of 19 %, with good clinical outcome in up to 75 % of treated patients. Bilateral PAE seems to lead to better clinical results; however, up to 50 % of patients after unilateral PAE may have a good clinical outcome.
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The iatrogenic risk of HIV vertical transmission, calculated in initial epidemiologic studies, seemed to counterindicate invasive prenatal diagnosis (PND) procedures. The implementation of highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) represented a turning point in PND management, owing to a rapid and effective reduction of maternal viral load (VL). In the present study, we identified cases of vertical transmission in HIV-infected pregnant women who did amniocentesis in the second trimester of pregnancy (n = 27), from 1996 to 2011. We divided our sample into Group A--women under HAART when submitted to amniocentesis (n = 20) and Group B--women without antiretroviral therapy before amniocentesis (n = 7). We had 1 case of vertical transmission in Group B. Preconceptional or early first trimester HIV serology is essential to avoid performing an amniocentesis without antiretroviral therapy or viral suppression. When there is an indication for amniocentesis in an HIV-infected pregnant woman, it should be done if the patient is on HAART and, if possible, when VL is undetectable. Nowadays, with combined first trimester screening test to select pregnancies with high risk of aneuploidies, advanced maternal age is a less frequent indication to perform PND invasive procedures, representing an outstanding gain in prenatal diagnosis of this population.
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INTRODUCTION: Left ventricular reverse remodeling (LVRR), defined as reduction of end-diastolic and end-systolic dimensions and improvement of ejection fraction, is associated with the prognostic implications of cardiac resynchronization therapy (CRT). The time course of LVRR remains poorly characterized. Nevertheless, it has been suggested that it occurs ≤6 months after CRT.
OBJECTIVE: To characterize the long-term echocardiographic and clinical evolution of patients with LVRR occurring >6 months after CRT and to identify predictors of a delayed LVRR response.
METHODS: A total of 127 consecutive patients after successful CRT implantation were divided into three groups according to LVRR response: Group A, 19 patients (15%) with LVRR after >6 months (late LVRR); Group B, 58 patients (46%) with LVRR before 6 months (early LVRR); and Group C, 50 patients (39%) without LVRR during follow-up (no LVRR).
RESULTS: The late LVRR group was older, more often had ischemic etiology and fewer patients were in NYHA class ≤II. Overall, group A presented LVRR between group B and C. This was also the case with the percentage of clinical response (68.4% vs. 94.8% vs. 38.3%, respectively, p<0.001), and hospital readmissions due to decompensated heart failure (31.6% vs. 12.1% vs. 57.1%, respectively, p<0.001). Ischemic etiology (OR 0.044; p=0.013) and NYHA functional class
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Rett syndrome is a neurodevelopmental disorder caused by mutations in the MECP2 gene. We investigated the genetic basis of disease in a female patient with a Rett-like clinical. Karyotype analysis revealed a pericentric inversion in the X chromosome -46,X,inv(X)(p22.1q28), with breakpoints in the cytobands where the MECP2 and CDKL5 genes are located. FISH analysis revealed that the MECP2 gene is not dislocated by the inversion. However, and in spite of a balanced pattern of X inactivation, this patient displayed hypomethylation and an overexpression of the MECP2 gene at the mRNA level in the lymphocytes (mean fold change: 2.55±0.38) in comparison to a group of control individuals; the expression of the CDKL5 gene was similar to that of controls (mean fold change: 0.98±0.10). No gains or losses were detected in the breakpoint regions encompassing known or suspected transcription regulatory elements. We propose that the de-regulation of MECP2 expression in this patient may be due to alterations in long-range genomic interactions caused by the inversion and hypothesize that this type of epigenetic de-regulation of the MECP2 may be present in other RTT-like patients.