Cytogenetic and Molecular Evaluation and 20-Year Follow-Up of a Patient With Ring Chromosome 14

We present a 20-year follow-up on a patient with a ring chromosome 14. The ring chromosome was studied by fluorescence in-situ hybridization (FISH), multiplex-ligation probe amplification (MLPA), and genome wide SNP array, and no deletions of chromosome 14 were detected, although the telomeric repeat sequence was absent from the ring chromosome. The patient had skeletal abnormalities, and susceptibility to infections, as well as seizures and retinal pigmentation, which are commonly found in individuals with a ring 14. Our patient corroborates the idea that even when no genes are lost during ring formation, a complete ring chromosome can produce phenotypic alterations, which presumably result from ring instability or gene silencing due to the new chromosomal architecture. (C) 2010 Wiley-Liss, Inc.

Treatment of scaphoid nonunion with vascularised and nonvascularised dorsal bone grafting from the distal radius

We conducted a prospective randomised study comparing the clinical, functional and radiographic results of 46 patients treated for scaphoid nonunion using a vascularised bone graft from the dorsal and distal aspect of the radius (group I), relative to 40 patients treated by means of a conventional non-vascularised bone graft from the distal radius (group II). Surgical findings included 30 sclerotic, poorly-vascularised scaphoids in group I versus 20 in group II. Bone fusion was achieved in 89.1% of group I and 72.5% of group II patients (p = 0.024). Functional results were good to excellent in 72.0% of the patients in group I and 57.5% in group II. Considering only patients with sclerotic, poorly-vascularised scaphoids, the mean final outcome scores obtained were 7.5 and 6.0 for groups I and group II, respectively. We conclude that vascularised bone grafting yields superior results and is more efficient when there is a sclerotic, poorly-vascularised proximal pole in patients in scaphoid nonunion.

Final height of adults with childhood-onset steroid-responsive idiopathic nephrotic syndrome

The aim of this study was to evaluate the final stature of adults with childhood-onset steroid-responsive idiopathic nephrotic syndrome (INS) and the influence of disease-related issues on the achievement of their target heights. We analyzed 60 (41 male) patients and/or their records, with a minimum age of 19 years or at a Tanner`s pubertal stage 4 for boys or status postmenarche for girls, and normal glomerular filtration rate. Mean age at first and last consultation was 5.3 +/- 2.4 years and 20.5 +/- 3.1 years, respectively. Mean follow-up period was 15.10 years. Mean cumulative dose of prednisone was 1254 +/- 831.40 mg/kg. Mean initial and final height Z scores (HtZ) were, respectively, -0.60 +/- 1.0 and -0.64 +/- 0.92 (p = 0.72). The final HtZ showed a significant correlation only with the initial HtZ and the target HtZ (THZ). Six patients achieved a final HtZ below -2, which in male patients correlated strongly to the initial HtZ and THZ. A strong correlation was demonstrated between final HtZ, initial HtZ, and THZ. INS-related issues did not prevent the final stature to reach the predicted target height.

To treat or not to treat? A meta-analysis of the use of cholinesterase inhibitors in mild cognitive impairment for delaying progression to Alzheimer`s disease

Individual randomized clinical trials (RCTs) with cholinesterase inhibitors (ChEIs) aiming to delay the progression from mild cognitive impairment (MCI) to Alzheimer`s disease (AD) have not found significant benefit of their use for this purpose. The objective of this study is to meta-analyze the RCTs conducted with ChEIs in order to assess whether pooled analysis could show the benefit of these drugs in delaying the progression from MCI to AD. We searched for references of published and unpublished studies on electronic databases (Medline, Embase, Web of Science, and Clinical Trial Database Registry, particularly the Clinicaltrials.gov-http://www.clinicaltrials.gov). We retrieved 173 references, which yielded three references for data extraction. A total of 3.574 subjects from four RCTs were included in the meta-analysis. Among 1,784 subjects allocated in the ChEI-treatment group, 275 (15.4%) progressed to AD/dementia, as opposed to 366 (20.4%) out of 1,790 subjects in the placebo group. The relative risk (RR) for progression to AD/dementia in the ChEI-treated group was 0.75 [CI(95%) 0.66-0.87], z = -3.89, P < 0.001. The patients on the ChEI group had a significantly higher all-cause dropout risk than the patients on the placebo group (RR = 1.36 CI(95%) [1.24-1.49]; z = 6.59, P < 0.001). The RR for serious adverse events (SAE) in the ChEI-treated group showed no significantly statistical difference from the placebo group (RR = 0.95 [CI(95%) 0.83-1.09], z = -0.72, P = 0.47). The subjects in the ChEI-treated group had a marginally, non-significant, higher risk of death due to any cause than those in the placebo-treated group (RR = 1.04, CI(95%) 0.63-1.70, z = 0.16, P = 0.86). The long-term use of ChEIs in subjects with MCI may attenuate the risk of progression to AD/dementia. This finding may have a significant impact on public health and pharmaco-economic policies.

A double-blind, placebo-controlled treatment trial of citalopram for major depressive disorder in older patients with heart failure: The relevance of the placebo effect and psychological symptoms

Background: Little is known about the treatment of depression in older patients with heart failure. This Study was developed to investigate the effectiveness of antidepressant treatment for major depressive disorder (MDD) in the elderly with heart failure. Methods: We enrolled 72 older outpatients with ejection fraction < 50 and diagnosed with MDD by the structured clinical interview for DSM-IV. Thirty-seven patients, 19 on citalopram and 18 on placebo, initiated an 8-week double-blind treatment phase. Measurements were performed with the 31-item Hamilton Rating Scale for Depression (Ham-D-31), the Montgomery-Asberg rating scale (MADRS) and the Systematic Assessment for Treatment Emergent Effects (SAFTEE). A psychiatrist followed up the patients weekly, performing a consultation for about 20 min to field complaints after the measurements. Results: A trend toward superiority of citalopram over placebo in reducing depression was observed in MADRS scores (15.05 + 9.74 vs 9.44 + 9.25, P = .082) but not on HAM-D scores. The depressive symptomatology significantly decreased in both groups (P < .001). The high rate of placebo response during the double-blind phase (56.3%) led us to conclude the study at the interim analysis with 37 patients. Conclusion: Citalopram treatment of MDD in older patients with heart failure is well-tolerated with low rates of side effects, but was not significantly more effective than placebo in the treatment of depression. Weekly psychiatric follow-up including counseling may contribute to the improvement of depression in this population. Scales weighted on psychological symptoms such as the MADRS are possibly better suited to measure depression severity and improvement in patients with heart failure. (C) 2009 Elsevier Inc. All rights reserved.

Influence of ventilatory settings on static and functional haemodynamic parameters during experimental hypovolaemia

Background and objective The influence of ventilatory settings on static and functional haemodynamic parameters during mechanical ventilation is not completely known. The purpose of this study was to evaluate the effect of positive end-expiratory pressure, tidal volume and inspiratory to expiratory time ratio variations on haemodynamic parameters during haemorrhage and after transfusion of shed blood. Methods Ten anaesthetized pigs were instrumented and mechanically ventilated with a tidal volume of 8 ml kg(-1), a positive end-expiratory pressure of 5 cmH(2)O and an inspiratory to expiratory ratio of 1 : 2. Then, they were submitted in a random order to different ventilatory settings (tidal volume 16 ml kg(-1), positive end-expiratory pressure 15 cmH(2)O or inspiratory to expiratory time ratio 2: 1). Functional and static haemodynamic parameters (central venous pressure, pulmonary artery occlusion pressure, right ventricular end-diastolic volume and pulse pressure variation) were evaluated at baseline, during hypovolaemia (withdrawal of 20% of estimated blood volume) and after an infusion of withdrawn blood (posttransfusion). Results During baseline, a positive end-expiratory pressure of 15cmH(2)O significantly increased pulmonary artery occlusion pressure from 14.6 +/- 1.6 mmHg to 17.4 +/- 1.7 mmHg (P<0.001) and pulse pressure variation from 15.8 +/- 8.5% to 25.3 +/- 9.5% (P<0.001). High tidal volume increased pulse pressure variation from 15.8 8.5% to 31.6 +/- 10.4% (P<0.001), and an inspiratory to expiratory time ratio of 2: 1 significantly increased only central venous pressure. During hypovolaemia, high positive end-expiratory pressure influenced all studied variables, and high tidal volume strongly increased pulse pressure variation (40.5 +/- 12.4% pre vs. 84.2 +/- 19.1 % post, P<0.001). The inversion of the inspiratory to expiratory time ratio only slightly increased filling pressures during hypovolaemia, without without affecting pulse pressure variation or right ventricle end-diastolic volume. Conclusion We concluded that pulse pressure variation measurement is influenced by cyclic variations in intrathoracic pressure, such as those caused by augmentations in tidal volume. The increase in mean airway pressure caused by positive end-expiratory pressure affects cardiac filling pressures and also pulse pressure variation, although to a lesser extent. Inversion of the inspiratory to expiratory time ratio does not induce significant changes in static and functional haemodynamic parameters. Eur J Anaesthesiol 26:66-72 (c) 2009 European Society of Anaesthesiology.

Cdx2, cytokeratin 20, thyroid transcription factor 1, and prostate-specific antigen expression in unusual subtypes of prostate cancer

There are some unusual histologic variants of prostate carcinoma, including mucinous, signet-ring cells, and ductal carcinomas that can metastasize in a problematic way and simulate lung, colorectal, or bladder primaries. Currently, antibodies that are organ-specific have been used in the routine surgical pathology practice. Our aim is to study the profile of expression of Cdx2, thyroid transcription factor 1 (TTF1), and cytokeratin 20 (CK20) in prostate cancer with unusual histologic finding. Twenty-nine prostate adenocarcinomas with unusual histologic findings were submitted to immunohistochemistry with prostate-specific antigen (PSA), CK20, Cdx2, and TTF1 antibodies. There were 7 mucinous, 5 ductal, 2 signet-ring cells, and 15 usual acinar adenocarcinomas with focal mucinous differentiation. To compare the results with usual acinar adenocarcinomas, we studied 10 primary and their respective lymph node metastases in a tissue microarray, 2 unusual metastatic adenocarcinomas, and 6 usual acinar high-grade carcinomas. For tumors with special histologic finding, Cdx2 was expressed by 9 (31.0%) mucinous, signet-cell, or with focal mucinous differentiation. Thyroid transcription factor I was moderately positive in mucinous differentiation areas of 2 (6.9%) adenocarcinomas. Cytokeratin 20 was expressed by 9 (31.0%) tumors, among them, 3 ductal adenocarcinomas. Prostate-specific antigen was positive in 28 (96.6%) cases and negative in I ductal adenocarcinoma. There was only I worrisome ductal adenocarcinoma that was strongly CK20 positive and PSA negative. Almost one third of mucinous prostate carcinomas express Cdx2. Cytokeratin 20 can be positive also in one third of prostate carcinomas, especially the ductal type. Pathologist should be alert when evaluating immumohistochemical profiles of unusual histologic findings of prostate cancer, mostly in distant sites. (C) 2008 Elsevier Inc. All rights reserved.

CYLD mutations in familial skin appendage tumours

Background: Germ-line mutations in CYLD are found in patients with familial skin appendage tumours. The protein product functions as a deubiquitinase enzyme, which negatively regulates NF-kappa B and c-Jun N-terminal kinase signalling. Brooke-Spiegler syndrome (BSS) is characterised by cylindromas, trichoepitheliomas and spiradenomas, whereas in familial cylindromatosis (FC) patients present with cylindromas and in multiple familial trichoepitheliomas (MFT) with trichoepitheliomas as the only skin tumour type. Although described as distinct entities, recent studies suggest that they are within the spectrum of a single entity. Objective: To investigate the mutation spectrum of CYLD and possible genotype-phenotype correlations. Methods: 25 families including 13 BSS, 3 FC, and 9 MFT families were examined and evaluated for mutations in the CYLD gene. Results: In total, 18 mutations in CYLD, including 6 novel mutations, were identified in 25 probands (72%). The mutation frequencies among distinct phenotypes were 85% for BSS, 100% for FC, and 44% for MFT. The majority of the mutations were insertions, deletions or nonsense mutations leading to formation of truncated proteins. All mutations were located between exons 9 to 20, encoding the NEMO binding site and the catalytic domain. Genotype-phenotype analysis failed to reveal a correlation between the types of mutations and their location within the gene and the patients` phenotypes and disease severity. Conclusions: This study provides further evidence on the role of CYLD in the pathogenesis of skin appendage tumours characterised by cylindromas, trichoepitheliomas and/or spiradenomas, but the molecular mechanisms of CYLD in skin tumorigenesis and the reasons for phenotypic variability remain to be explored.

BhSGAMP-1, a Gene That Encodes an Antimicrobial Peptide, Is Developmentally Regulated by the Direct Action of 20-OH Ecdysone in the Salivary Gland of Bradysia hygida (Diptera, Sciaridae)

Recently we have shown that BhSGAMP-1 is a developmentally regulated reiterated gene that encodes an antimicrobial peptide (AMP) and is expressed exclusively in the salivary glands, at the end of the larval stage. We show, for the first time, that a gene for an AMP is directly activated by 20-OH ecdysone. This control probably involves the participation of short-lived repressor(s). We also found that the promoter of BhSGAMP-1 is not equipped with elements that respond to infection, provoked by the injection of microorganisms, in the salivary glands or in the fat body. We produced polyclonal antibodies against the synthetic peptide and found that the BhSGAMP-1 peptide is secreted in the saliva. The BhSGAMP-1 gene was also activated during the third larval molt. These facts confirm our hypothesis that this preventive system of defense was selected to produce an environment free of harmful microorganisms in the insect`s immediate vicinity, during molts. genesis 47:847-857, 2009. (C) 2009 Wiley-Liss, Inc.

Postprandial gastric antral contractions in patients with gastro-oesophageal reflux disease: a scintigraphic study

Disturbed gastric contractility has been found in manometric studies in patients with gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), but the pathophysiological role of this abnormality is unclear. We aimed at assessing postprandial gastric antral contractions and its relationships with gastric emptying and gastro-oesophageal reflux in GORD patients. Fasted GORD patients (n = 13) and healthy volunteers (n = 13) ingested a liquid meal labelled with 72 MBq of (99m)Technetium-phytate. Gastric images were acquired every 10 min for 2 h, for measuring gastric emptying half time. Dynamic antral scintigraphy (one frame per second), performed for 4 min at 30-min intervals, allowed estimation of both mean dominant frequency and amplitude of antral contractions. In GORD patients (n = 10), acidic reflux episodes occurring 2 h after the ingestion of the same test meal were determined by ambulatory 24-h oesophageal pH monitoring. Gastric emptying was similar in GORD patients and controls (median; range: 82 min; 58-126 vs 80 min; 44-122 min; P = 0.38). Frequency of antral contractions was also similar in both groups (3.1 cpm; 2.8-3.6 vs 3.2 cpm; 2.4-3.8 cpm; P = 0.15). In GORD patients, amplitude of antral contractions was significantly higher than in controls (32.7%; 17-44%vs 23.3%; 16-43%; P = 0.01), and correlated positively with gastric emptying time (R-s = 0.58; P = 0.03) and inversely with the number of reflux episodes (R-s = -0.68; P = 0.02). Increased amplitude of postprandial gastric antral contractions in GORD may comprise a compensatory mechanism against delayed gastric emptying and a defensive factor against acidic gastro-oesophageal reflux.

Omeprazole preferentially inhibits the metabolism of (+)-(S)-citalopram in healthy volunteers

center dot Citalopram (CITA) pharmacokinetics are enantioselective in healthy volunteers and the metabolism of (+)-(S)-CITA to (+)-(S)-DCITA is dependent on CYP2C19. Omeprazole is a potent CYP2C19 inhibitor. WHAT THIS STUDY ADDS center dot This study indicates that omeprazole induces a loss of enantioselectivity in the CITA pharmacokinetics because of the selective inhibition of (+)-(S)-CITA metabolism. AIM The study assessed the influence of omeprazole on the kinetic disposition of the (+)-(S)-citalopram (CITA) and (-)-(R)-CITA enantiomers in healthy volunteers. METHODS In a cross-over study, healthy volunteers (n = 9) phenotyped as extensive metabolizers of CYP2C19 and CYP2D6 and with an oral midazolam clearance ranging from 10.9 to 149.3 ml min-1 kg-1 received a single dose of racemic CITA (20 mg orally) in combination or not with omeprazole (20 mg day-1 for 18 days). Serial blood samples were collected up to 240 h after CITA administration. CITA and demethylcitalopram (DCITA) enantiomers were analyzed by LC-MS/MS using a Chiralcel (R) OD-R column. RESULTS The kinetic disposition of CITA was enantioselective in the absence of treatment with omeprazole, with the observation of a greater proportion of plasma (-)-(R)-CITA [AUC S : R ratio of 0.53 (95% CI 0.41, 0.66) for CITA and 1.08 (95% CI 0.80, 1.76) for DCITA] than (+)-(S)-CITA. Racemic CITA administration to healthy volunteers in combination with omeprazole showed a loss of enantioselectivity in CITA pharmacokinetics with an increase of approximately 120% in plasma (+)-(S)-CITA concentrations [AUC S : R ratio of 0.95 (95% CI 0.72, 1.10) for CITA and 0.95 (95% CI 0.44, 1.72) for DCITA]. CONCLUSIONS The administration of multiple doses of omeprazole preferentially inhibited (+)-(S)-CITA metabolism in healthy volunteers. Although omeprazole increased plasma concentrations of (+)-(S)-CITA by approximately 120%, it is difficult to evaluate the clinical outcome because the range of plasma CITA concentrations related to maximum efficacy and minimum risk of adverse effects has not been established.

Influence of treadmill training on motor performance and organization of exploratory behavior in Meriones unguiculatus with unilateral ischemic stroke: Histological correlates in hippocampal CA1 region and the neostriatum

This study examined the effects of motor stimulation via treadmill on the behavior of male gerbils after external carotid ischemic brain lesion. The animals were assigned to five groups; ischemic with no stimulation (SIG), ischemic with stimulation (SIG 12/24/48/72 It after surgery), non-ischemic with no stimulation (CC), non-ischemic with stimulation (CE) and sham, surgery without occlusion with no stimulation (SH). All the animals were tested in the open-field (OF) and rotarod (RR), 4 days after surgery in order to evaluate exploratory behaviors and motor performance. Data were submitted to one-way variance (ANOVA) and Dunnett`s post hoc comparisons. SIG and SIG 12 groups showed a significant decrease in motor response (crossing) when compared to the control group (CC) (F = 20.65, P < 0.05) in the OF. SIG 12 group showed an increase in grooming behavior (F = 23.136, P < 0.05) and all ischemia groups (SIG, SIG 12/24/48/72) spent less time on the RR (F = 10.40, P < 0.05), when compared to the control group (CC). Histological analyses show extensive lesions in the hippocampus and neostriatum for all groups with ischemia (SIG, SIG 12/24/48/72), which are structures involved in the organization of motor behavior. Interestingly, the most pronounced damage was found in animals submitted to motor stimulation 12 h after ischemia which can be correlated to the increased number of grooming behavior showed by them in the OF. These findings suggest that motor stimulation through treadmill training improve motor behavior after ischemia, except when it starts 12h after surgery. (c) 2007 Elsevier Ireland Ltd. All rights reserved.

Safety of the etonogestrel-releasing implant during the immediate postpartum period: a pilot study

Background: The effects of etonogestrel (ETG)-releasing contraceptive implant during the immediate postpartum period on maternal safety are unknown. Study design: Forty healthy women exclusively breastfeeding were randomized to receive either ETG-releasing implant 24-48 h after delivery (n=20) or depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA group; n=20) at the sixth week postpartum. We measured blood pressure, maternal and neonatal weight, body mass index (BMI; kg/m(2)), waist circumference (WC), complete blood count, C-reactive protein, interleukin-6, tumor necrosis factor (TNF-alpha), lipid profile, fasting serum glucose and maintenance of exclusive lactation up to the 12th week postpartum. Results: Decreases in mean maternal weight, BMI (kg/m(2)) and WC were significantly greater in the ETG-releasing implant group than in the MPA group during the first 6 weeks postpartum (-4.64 +/- 2.71 kg vs. -2.6 +/- 2.45 kg mean +/- SD, p=.017; -1.77 +/- 1.06 kg/m(2) vs. -0.97 +/- 0.95 kg/m(2), p=.026; -15.3 +/- 6.72 cm vs. -9.05 +/- 5.84 cm, p=.003, respectively). In addition, total cholesterol and HDL, were lower in DMPA users, and TNF-alpha and leukocytes were higher in DMPA users compared to in the implant group, between 6 and 12 weeks after delivery. The newborns of implant users showed a trend towards gaining more weight, as compared with the infants of the DMPA mothers during the first 6 weeks of life (implant group: +1460.50 +/- 621.34 g vs. DMPA group: +1035.0 +/- 562.43 g, p=.05). The remaining variables, including the duration of exclusive breastfeeding, were similar between the groups. Conclusion: The insertion of ETG-releasing contraceptive implant during the immediate postpartum period was not associated with deleterious maternal clinical effects or with significant maternal metabolic alterations or decreased infant weight gain. (C) 2009 Elsevier Inc. All rights reserved.

Drug-resistant tuberculosis in six hospitals in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil

SETTING: Tuberculosis (TB) drug resistance survey in six hospitals in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil. OBJECTIVE: To estimate resistance to at least one drug (DR) and multidrug resistance (MDR) and identify associated factors. DESIGN: One-year cross-sectional survey. Hospitals were included as a convenience sample. RESULTS: Of 595 patients investigated, 156 (26.2%) had previously undergone anti-tuberculosis treatment, 433 (72.8%) were not previously treated and information on the remaining 6 was not available. Overall, DR and MDR rates were high, at respectively 102 (17.1%, 95%CI 14.3-20.5) and 44 (7.4%, 95%CI 5.5-9.9) cases. Among individuals not previously treated, 17 had MDR (3.9%, 95%CI 2.4-6.3) and diagnosis in a TB reference hospital was independently associated with MDR (prevalence ratio [PR] 3.3, 95%CI 1.2-8.7) after multivariate analysis. Among previously treated individuals, 27 had MDR (17.3%, 95%CI 11.7-24.2). MDR-TB was independently associated with diagnosis in a TB reference hospital (PR 3.6, 95%CI 1.5-8.7), male sex (PR 2.3,95%CI 1.2-4.4) and dyspnoea (PR 0.3, 95%CI 0.1-0.7). CONCLUSION: We found high levels of DR- and MDR-TB. Our study design did not permit us to determine the contribution of community versus nosocomial transmission. Further studies are needed to establish this. Nevertheless, hospitals should be recognised as a potential source of transmission of resistant TB strains and urgent measures to avoid nosocomial TB transmission should be taken.

Headache and Symptoms of Temporomandibular Disorder: An Epidemiological Study

Objectives.-A population-based cross-sectional study was conducted to estimate the prevalence of migraine, episodic tension-type headaches (ETTH), and chronic daily headaches (CDH), as well as the presence of symptoms of temporomandibular disorders (TMD) in the adult population. Background.-The potential comorbidity of headache syndromes and TMD has been established mostly based on clinic-based studies. Methods.-A representative sample of 1230 inhabitants (51.5% women) was interviewed by a validated phone survey. TMD symptoms were assessed through 5 questions, as recommended by the American Academy of Orofacial Pain, in an attempt to classify possible TMD. Primary headaches were diagnosed based on the International Classification of Headache Disorders. Results.-When at least 1 TMD symptom was reported, any headache happened in 56.5% vs 31.9% (P < .0001) in those with no symptoms. For 2 symptoms, figures were 65.1% vs 36.3% (P < .0001); for 3 or more symptoms, the difference was even more pronounced: 72.8% vs 37.9%. (P < .0001). Taking individuals without headache as the reference, the prevalence of at least 1 TMD symptom was increased in ETTH (prevalence ratio = 1.48, 95% confidence interval = 1.20-1.79), migraine (2.10, 1.80-2.47) and CDH (2.41, 1.84-3.17). At least 2 TMD symptoms also happened more frequently in migraine (4.4, 3.0-6.3), CDH (3.4; 1.5-7.6), and ETTH (2.1; 1.3-3.2), relative to individuals with no headaches. Finally, 3 or more TMD symptoms were also more common in migraine (6.2; 3.8-10.2) than in no headaches. Differences were significant for ETTH (2.7 1.5-4.8), and were numerically but not significant for CDH (2.3; 0.66-8.04). Conclusions.-Temporomandibular disorder symptoms are more common in migraine, ETTH, and CDH relative to individuals without headache. Magnitude of association is higher for migraine. Future studies should clarify the nature of the relationship.