60 resultados para Major histocompatibility complex class II (MHC-II)
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OBJETIVO: com o propósito de avaliar a influência da extração de dois pré-molares superiores na estabilidade oclusal do tratamento da má oclusão de Classe II completa, foi realizada uma comparação com o protocolo de tratamento sem extrações. MÉTODOS: selecionou-se, a partir das documentações do arquivo da Disciplina de Ortodontia da Faculdade de Odontologia de Bauru, uma amostra composta pelas documentações de 59 pacientes com má oclusão de Classe II completa. Em seguida, dividiu-se essa amostra em dois grupos, apresentando as seguintes características: Grupo 1, constituído por 29 pacientes, tratados sem extrações; e Grupo 2, composto por 30 pacientes, tratados com extrações de dois pré-molares superiores. Os modelos ao início do tratamento, ao final do tratamento e em um período mínimo de 2,4 anos após o tratamento foram medidos e avaliados por meio dos índices oclusais IPT e PAR. As condições oclusais ao final do tratamento e no estágio pós-tratamento, o percentual de recidiva e as alterações oclusais pós-tratamento foram comparados por meio do teste t. RESULTADOS: os resultados demonstraram que os protocolos de tratamento sem extração e com extrações de dois pré-molares superiores não apresentaram, em nenhuma das variáveis avaliadas, diferenças estatisticamente significativas em relação à estabilidade oclusal do tratamento da má oclusão de Classe II completa. CONCLUSÃO: a extração de dois pré-molares superiores no tratamento da má oclusão de Classe II completa não influenciou a estabilidade dos resultados oclusais alcançados ao final da correção ortodôntica. Portanto, terminar o tratamento com uma relação molar em Classe II ou em Classe I proporciona estabilidade semelhante.
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OBJETIVO: comparar os resultados oclusais e os tempos de tratamento da má oclusão de Classe II realizado com o aparelho Pendulum e com extrações de dois pré-molares superiores. MÉTODOS: a amostra constituiu-se dos modelos de gesso e das telerradiografias de 48 pacientes com má oclusão de Classe II, divididos em dois grupos de acordo com o protocolo de tratamento. O grupo 1 foi composto por 22 pacientes tratados com o aparelho Pendulum, com idade inicial média de 14,44 anos. O grupo 2 constituiu-se por 26 pacientes tratados com extrações de dois pré-molares superiores, com idade inicial média de 13,66 anos. Os resultados oclusais obtidos pelos dois protocolos de tratamento utilizados foram avaliados em modelos de gesso por meio do índice oclusal PAR, enquanto o tempo de tratamento foi calculado a partir das anotações clínicas presentes nos prontuários. As avaliações foram realizadas por meio do teste t independente. RESULTADOS E CONCLUSÕES: os resultados oclusais obtidos não demonstraram diferenças entre os grupos, porém o grupo 2 apresentou um tempo de tratamento significativamente menor.
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Os resultados do tratamento da má oclusão de Classe II podem ser influenciados por características que são inerentes ao paciente - como a idade, a severidade da má oclusão e o grau de colaboração - ou, ainda, por fatores relacionados à conduta do profissional - como a escolha do protocolo de tratamento. Basicamente, o tratamento da Classe II pode ser realizado sem extrações ou com extrações de dois ou quatro pré-molares. Contudo, uma maior proporção de sucesso do tratamento pode ser esperada com extrações de dois pré-molares superiores, independentemente do padrão facial e da relação maxilomandibular. Considerando esta revisão, pôde-se concluir que os resultados oclusais do tratamento da Classe II são fortemente influenciados pelo protocolo de tratamento, enquanto o padrão facial não parece exercer uma influência significativa.
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OBJETIVO: esta pesquisa objetivou avaliar cefalometricamente as alterações dentoesqueléticas de jovens com Classe II dentária tratados com o distalizador Jones jig. METODOLOGIA: foram avaliados 30 pacientes, sendo 15 de cada gênero, com média de idades iniciais de 13,63 anos; brasileiros, naturais da cidade de Bauru/SP, caracterizados por má oclusão de Classe II, 1ª e 2ª divisões de Angle sem comprometimento esquelético. Os jovens foram tratados com aparelho Jones jig a fim de distalizar os molares superiores a uma relação molar de "super Classe I"; sendo que esse dispositivo permaneceu, em média, por 0,55 anos. Ao final da sobrecorreção, os molares distalizados receberam um botão de Nance e, como ancoragem extrabucal, o aparelho extrabucal (AEB) com tração média-alta, com o intuito de verticalizar e corrigir a angulação radicular dos molares distalizados. Foram realizadas telerradiografias em normal lateral inicial (T1) e pós-distalização (T2). As medidas cefalométricas foram submetidas ao teste t dependente de Student para avaliar as alterações de T1 para T2. RESULTADOS: com base nos resultados obtidos e a partir da metodologia empregada, observou-se alterações dentárias significativas, como a movimentação distal linear e angular, assim como a intrusão dos segundos e primeiros molares superiores no sentido vertical. Também se confirmou efeitos indesejáveis, como a perda de ancoragem refletida em mesialização, extrusão e angulação mesial dos segundos pré-molares, a protrusão dos incisivos superiores e o aumento do trespasse vertical e horizontal. Pode-se confirmar que certas movimentações dentárias promovem significativas alterações esqueléticas de estruturas localizadas à distância, ou seja, observou-se extrusão significativa dos segundos pré-molares superiores, o que resultou em rotação mandibular, aumento significativo da altura facial anteroinferior e protrusão do lábio inferior. CONCLUSÃO: pode-se concluir que o distalizador Jones jig promove, basicamente, alterações dentárias.
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OBJETIVO: identificar alterações dimensionais nos arcos dentários superior e inferior na má oclusão Classe II, divisão 1, com deficiência mandibular (Padrão esquelético II). MÉTODOS: 48 pacientes com má oclusão Classe II, igualmente divididos quanto ao gênero, foram comparados com 51 indivíduos com oclusão normal, sendo 22 do gênero masculino e 29 do gênero feminino. Todos os 99 indivíduos estavam no estágio de dentadura permanente, com os segundos molares permanentes irrompidos ou em irrupção, com idade média de 12 anos e 5 meses (desvio-padrão de 1 ano e 3 meses), numa faixa etária oscilando entre 11 anos e 4 meses e 20 anos. CONCLUSÃO: os resultados permitem concluir que, na má oclusão Classe II, divisão 1 com deficiência mandibular, o arco dentário superior encontra-se alterado, mostrando-se atrésico e mais longo, enquanto o arco dentário inferior é pouco influenciado pela discrepância sagital de Classe II.
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This article reports the case of a 19-year-old young man with Class III malocclusion and posterior crossbite with concerns about temporomandibular disorder (TMD), esthetics and functional problems. Surgical-orthodontic treatment was carried out by decompensation of the mandibular incisors and segmentation of the maxilla in 4 pieces, which allowed expansion and advancement. Remission of the signs and symptoms occurred after surgical-orthodontic intervention. The maxillary dental arch presented normal transverse dimension. Satisfactory static and functional occlusion and esthetic results were achieved and remained stable. Three years after the surgical-orthodontic treatment, no TMD sign or symptom was observed and the occlusal results had not changed. When vertical or horizontal movements of the maxilla in the presence of moderate maxillary constriction are necessary, segmental LeFort I osteotomy can be an important part of treatment planning.
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A mordida aberta é uma anomalia com características distintas que, além da complexidade dos múltiplos fatores etiológicos, traz consequências estéticas e funcionais. Muitas alternativas têm sido utilizadas em seu tratamento, entre elas a grade palatina, forças ortopédicas, ajuste oclusal, camuflagem com ou sem exodontias, mini-implantes ou miniplacas e cirurgia ortognática. O diagnóstico preciso e a determinação da etiologia permitem estabelecer os objetivos e o plano de tratamento ideal para essa má oclusão. O presente relato descreve o tratamento de uma má oclusão Classe I de Angle, com padrão esquelético de Classe II e mordida aberta anterior, realizado em duas fases e que foi apresentado à diretoria do Board Brasileiro de Ortodontia e Ortopedia Facial (BBO), representando a categoria 2, como parte dos requisitos para a obtenção do título de Diplomado pelo BBO.
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Background: Melanoma progression occurs through three major stages: radial growth phase (RGP), confined to the epidermis; vertical growth phase (VGP), when the tumor has invaded into the dermis; and metastasis. In this work, we used suppression subtractive hybridization (SSH) to investigate the molecular signature of melanoma progression, by comparing a group of metastatic cell lines with an RGP-like cell line showing characteristics of early neoplastic lesions including expression of the metastasis suppressor KISS1, lack of alpha v beta 3-integrin and low levels of RHOC. Methods: Two subtracted cDNA collections were obtained, one (RGP library) by subtracting the RGP cell line (WM1552C) cDNA from a cDNA pool from four metastatic cell lines (WM9, WM852, 1205Lu and WM1617), and the other (Met library) by the reverse subtraction. Clones were sequenced and annotated, and expression validation was done by Northern blot and RT-PCR. Gene Ontology annotation and searches in large-scale melanoma expression studies were done for the genes identified. Results: We identified 367 clones from the RGP library and 386 from the Met library, of which 351 and 368, respectively, match human mRNA sequences, representing 288 and 217 annotated genes. We confirmed the differential expression of all genes selected for validation. In the Met library, we found an enrichment of genes in the growth factors/receptor, adhesion and motility categories whereas in the RGP library, enriched categories were nucleotide biosynthesis, DNA packing/repair, and macromolecular/vesicular trafficking. Interestingly, 19% of the genes from the RGP library map to chromosome 1 against 4% of the ones from Met library. Conclusion: This study identifies two populations of genes differentially expressed between melanoma cell lines from two tumor stages and suggests that these sets of genes represent profiles of less aggressive versus metastatic melanomas. A search for expression profiles of melanoma in available expression study databases allowed us to point to a great potential of involvement in tumor progression for several of the genes identified here. A few sequences obtained here may also contribute to extend annotated mRNAs or to the identification of novel transcripts.
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Background: Persistent infection with oncogenic types of human papillomavirus (HPV) is the major risk factor for invasive cervical cancer (ICC), and non-European variants of HPV-16 are associated with an increased risk of persistence and ICC. HLA class II polymorphisms are also associated with genetic susceptibility to ICC. Our aim is to verify if these associations are influenced by HPV-16 variability. Methods: We characterized HPV-16 variants by PCR in 107 ICC cases, which were typed for HLA-DQA1, DRB1 and DQB1 genes and compared to 257 controls. We measured the magnitude of associations by logistic regression analysis. Results: European ( E), Asian-American ( AA) and African (Af) variants were identified. Here we show that inverse association between DQB1*05 ( adjusted odds ratio [ OR] = 0.66; 95% confidence interval [CI]: 0.39-1.12]) and HPV-16 positive ICC in our previous report was mostly attributable to AA variant carriers ( OR = 0.27; 95% CI: 0.10-0.75). We observed similar proportions of HLA DRB1*1302 carriers in E-P positive cases and controls, but interestingly, this allele was not found in AA cases ( p = 0.03, Fisher exact test). A positive association with DRB1*15 was observed in both groups of women harboring either E ( OR = 2.99; 95% CI: 1.13-7.86) or AA variants ( OR = 2.34; 95% CI: 1.00-5.46). There was an inverse association between DRB1*04 and ICC among women with HPV-16 carrying the 350T [83L] single nucleotide polymorphism in the E6 gene ( OR = 0.27; 95% CI: 0.08-0.96). An inverse association between DQB1*05 and cases carrying 350G (83V) variants was also found ( OR = 0.37; 95% CI: 0.15-0.89). Conclusion: Our results suggest that the association between HLA polymorphism and risk of ICC might be influenced by the distribution of HPV-16 variants.
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Vaccines capable of inducing mucosal immunity in early postnatal life until adulthood, protecting early sexual initiation, should be considered as strategies to vaccination against HIV. The HIV-1 GAG protein as a chimera with the lysosome-associated membrane protein (LAMP/gag), encoded by a DNA vaccine, is targeted to the endosomal/lysosomal compartment that contains class II MHC molecules and has been shown to be immunogenic in adult mice. Assuming that one such strategy could help to overcome the immunological immaturity in the early postnatal period, we have evaluated the systemic and mucosal immunogenicity of LAMP/gag immunization in neonatal mice. Intranasal immunization with LAMP/gag vaccine induced higher levels of sIgA and IgG anti-GAG antibodies in intestinal washes than did the gag vaccine. The combination of ID injections and the IN protocol with the chimeric vaccine promoted the increase of Ab levels in sera. Both vaccines induced splenic IFN-gamma- secreting cells against GAG peptide pools, as well as in vivo cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) function, and increased the percentage of CD8+ T cells to the immunodominant class I peptide in gut and spleen. However, only the chimeric vaccine was able to enhance Th1/Th2 cytokine secretion in response to class II GAG peptide and to enhance IL-4-secreting cells against GAG peptides and p24 protein stimuli. Long-lasting humoral and cellular responses were detected until adult age, following neonatal immunization with the chimeric vaccine. The LAMP/gag vaccination was able to induce potent GAG-specific T and B cell immune responses in early life which are essential to elicit sustained and long-lasting mucosal and systemic humoral response. (C) 2010 Elsevier GmbH. All rights reserved.
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A single-center experience with pediatric patients who underwent surgery for intractable rolandic epilepsy was reviewed with the aim of identifying putative factors that could influence postoperative seizure outcome in this population. Clinical data of 48 patients under 18 years of age with diagnosis of intractable rolandic epilepsy who underwent surgery from January 1996 to September 2009 were reviewed. Patients` mean age at surgery was 9.9 +/- 5.3 years; mean age at epilepsy onset was 3.9 years; mean seizure duration prior to surgery was 6 years; and mean follow-up was 5.1 years. The most frequent etiologies were cortical dysplasia, astrogliosis, tumors, tuberous sclerosis complex, and Sturge-Weber syndrome, which were observed in 20/48 (41.6%), 10/48 (20.8%), 10/48 (20.8%), 5/48 (10.4%), and 3/48 (6.2%) of the patients, respectively. After surgery, 20 patients (41.6%) showed neurological deficits, which in turn recovered within no longer than 6 months after surgery. Seizure outcome was classified as Engel class I in 29 (60.4%), Engel class II in 10 (20.8%), and Engel class III in 9 (18.8%) of the patients. The factors significantly related with seizure outcome were histological features (tumor versus non-tumor cases, p = 0.04) and lesion site (focal lesions versus non-focal lesions, p = 0.04). Tailored resection of rolandic cortex for intractable epilepsy can be safely performed in children. Accurate mapping of both functional cortex and epileptogenic areas may lead to improved seizure outcome. Tumor as well as focal lesions in hand and face motor areas are associated with good seizure outcome.
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Sialostatin L (SialoL) is a secreted cysteine protease inhibitor identified in the salivary glands of the Lyme disease vector Ixodes scapularis. In this study, we reveal the mechanisms of SialoL immunomodulatory actions on the vertebrate host. LPS-induced maturation of dendritic cells from C57BL/6 mice was significantly reduced in the presence of SialoL. Although OVA degradation was not affected by the presence of SialoL in dendritic cell cultures, cathepsin S activity was partially inhibited, leading to an accumulation of a 10-kDa invariant chain intermediate in these cells. As a consequence, in vitro Ag-specific CD4(+) T cell proliferation was inhibited in a time-dependent manner by SialoL, and further studies engaging cathepsin S(-/-) or cathepsin L(-/-) dendritic cells confirmed that the immunomodulatory actions of SialoL are mediated by inhibition of cathepsin S. Moreover, mice treated with SialoL displayed decreased early T cell expansion and recall response upon antigenic stimulation. Finally, SialoL administration during the immunization phase of experimental autoimmune encephalomyelitis in mice significantly prevented disease symptoms, which was associated with impaired IFN-gamma and IL-17 production and specific T cell proliferation. These results illuminate the dual mechanism by which a human disease vector protein modulates vertebrate host immunity and reveals its potential in prevention of an autoimmune disease. The Journal of Immunology, 2009, 182: 7422-7429.
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Alveolar macrophages ( AM) are the first host cells to interact with Paracoccidioides brasiliensis (Pb), a primary human pathogen that causes severe pulmonary infections in Latin America. To better understand innate immunity in pulmonary paracoccidioidomycosis, we decided to study the fungicidal and secretory abilities of AM from resistant (A/J) and susceptible (B10.A) mice to infection. Untreated, IFN-gamma and IL-12 primed AM from B10. A and A/J mice were challenged with P. brasiliensis yeasts and cocultured for 72 h. B10. A macrophages presented an efficient fungicidal ability, were easily activated by both cytokines, produced high levels of nitric oxide ( NO), IL-12, and MCP-1 associated with low amounts of IL-10 and GM-CSF. In contrast, A/J AM showed impaired cytokine activation and fungal killing, secreted high levels of IL- 10 and GM-CSF but low concentrations of NO, IL- 12, and MCP-1. The fungicidal ability of B10. A but not of A/J macrophages was diminished by aminoguanidine treatment, although only the neutralization of TGF-beta restored the fungicidal activity of A/J cells. This pattern of macrophage activation resulted in high expression of MHC class II antigens by A/J cells, while B10. A macrophages expressed elevated levels of CD40. Unexpectedly, our results demonstrated that susceptibility to a fungal pathogen can be associated with an efficient innate immunity, while a deficient innate response can ultimately favor the development of a resistant pattern to infection. Moreover, our data suggest that different pathogen recognition receptors are used by resistant and susceptible hosts to interact with P. brasiliensis yeasts, resulting in divergent antigen presentation, acquired immunity, and disease outcomes.
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Asthma is a chronic respiratory disease characterized by airway inflammation and airway hyperresponsiveness (AHR). One strategy to treat allergic diseases is the development of new drugs. Flavonoids are compounds derived from plants and are known to have antiallergic, anti-inflammatory, and antioxidant properties. To investigate whether the flavonoid kaempferol glycoside 3-O-[beta-D-glycopiranosil-(1 -> 6)-alpha-L-ramnopiranosil]-7-O-alpha-L-ramnopiranosil-kaempferol (GRRK) would be capable of modulating allergic airway disease (AAD) either as a preventive (GRRK P) or curative (GRRK C) treatment in an experimental model of asthma. At weekly intervals, BALB/c mice were subcutaneously (sc) sensitized twice with ovalbumin (OVA)/alum and challenged twice with OVA administered intranasally. To evaluate any preventive effects GRRK was administered 1 h (hour) before each OVA-sensitization and challenge, while to analyze the curative effects mice were first sensitized with OVA, followed by GRRK given at day 18 through 21. The onset: of AAD was evaluated 24 h after the last OVA challenge. Both treatments resulted in a dose-dependent reduction in total leukocyte and eosinophil counts in the bronchoalveolar lavage fluid (BAL). GRRK also decreased CD4(+), B220(+), MHC class II and CD40 molecule expressions in BAL cells. Histology and lung mechanic showed that GRRK suppressed mucus production and ameliorated the AHR induced by OVA challenge. Furthermore, GRRK impaired Th2 cytokine production (IL-5 and IL-13) and did not induce a Th1 pattern of inflammation. These findings demonstrate that GRRK treatment before or after established allergic lung disease down-regulates key asthmatic features. Therefore. GRRK has a potential clinical use for the treatment of allergic asthma. (C) 2009 Elsevier B.V. All rights reserved.
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Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate synthetase (PRS-EC:2.7.6.1) is an important enzyme present in several metabolic pathways, thus forming a complex family of isoenzymes. However, plant PRS enzymes have not been extensively investigated. In this study, a sugarcane prs gene has been characterized from the Sugar Cane Expressed Sequence Tag Genome Project. This gene contains a 984-bp open reading frame encoding a 328-amino acid protein. The predicted amino acid sequence has 77% and 78% amino acid sequence identity to Arabidopsis thaliana and Spinacia oleracea PRS4, respectively. The assignment of sugarcane PRS as a phosphate-independent PRS isoenzyme (Class II PRS) is verified following enzyme assay and phylogenetic reconstruction of PRS homologues. To gain further insight into the structural framework of the phosphate independence of sugarcane PRS, a molecular model is described. This model reveals the formation of two conserved domains elucidating the structural features involved in sugarcane PRS phosphate independence. The recombinant PRS retains secondary structure elements and a quaternary arrangement consistent with known PRS homologues, based on circular dichroism measurements.