390 resultados para Screening analysis


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In this study we report the screening of the in vitro trypanocidal activity of 20 extracts obtained from 10 different plant species growing in the Brazilian Cerrado: Aspidosperma macrocarpum Mart. (Apocynaceae), Aegiphila sellowiano Cham. (Verbenaceae), Byrsonima intermedia Juss. (Malpighiaceae), Cyperus rotundus L. (Cyperaceae), Leandra lacunosa Cogn. (Melastomataceae), Miconia ligustroides (DC.) Naudin. (Melastomataceae), Miconia sellowiana Naudin.(Melastomataceae),Myrcia variabilis Mart.ex DC. (Myrtaceae), Solanum lycocarpum St. Hil. (Solanaceae), and Tibouchina stenocarpa Cogn. (Melastomataceae). The most active extracts were submitted to phytochemical analyses. High-resolution gas chromatography analysis of the n-hexane extract of T. stenocarpa (IC(50) = 23.6 mu g/mL), the most active extract amongst all the tested samples, allowed the identification of beta-amyrin, alpha-amyrin, lupeol, friedelin, beta-friedelanol, campesterol, stigmasterol, and beta-sitosterol. Oleanolic and ursolic acids were isolated from the methylene chloride extract of T stenocarpa (IC(50) = 51.5 mu g/mL), while ursolic acid was isolated from the methylene chloride extract of M. variabilis (IC(50)=38.4 mu g/mL). Solasonine and solamargine were identified as major compounds by mass spectrometry analysis in the hydroalcoholic extract of the fruits of S. lycocarpum (IC(50)=57.1 mu g/mL).The results showed that the trypanocidal activity may be related to the major compounds identified in the crude active extracts.

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Background Mutations in the PTPN11 gene are the main cause of Noonan syndrome (NS). The presence of some NS features is a frequent finding in children with idiopathic short stature (ISS). These children can represent the milder end of the NS clinical spectrum and PTPN11 is a good candidate for involvement in the pathogenesis of ISS. Objective To evaluate the presence of mutations in PTPN11 in ISS children who presented NS-related signs and in well-characterized NS patients. Patients and methods We studied 50 ISS children who presented at least two NS-associated signs but did not fulfil the criteria for NS diagnosis. Forty-nine NS patients diagnosed by the criteria of van der Burgt et al. were used to assess the adequacy of these criteria to select patients for PTPN11 mutation screening. The coding region of PTPN11 was amplified by polymerase chain reaction (PCR), followed by direct sequencing. Results No mutations or polymorphisms were found in the coding region of the PTPN11 gene in ISS children. Nineteen of the 49 NS patients (39%) presented mutations in PTPN11. No single characteristic enabled us to distinguish between NS patients with or without PTPN11 mutations. Conclusion Considering that no mutations were found in the present cohort with NS-related signs, it is unlikely that mutations would be found in unselected ISS children. The van der Burgt et al. criteria are adequate in attaining NS diagnosis and selecting patients for molecular studies. Mutations in the PTPN11 gene are commonly involved in the pathogenesis of NS but are not a common cause of ISS.

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PURPOSE: The purpose of this study was to analyze the agreement between anal Pap smear and high-resolution anoscopy-guided biopsy in diagnosing anal dysplasia in HIV-infected patients. METHODS: We conducted cross-sectional analysis of HIV-infected patients receiving anal dysplasia screening as part of routine care. Agreement between measures was estimated by weighted kappa statistics, using a three-tiered cytologic and histologic grading system (normal, low-grade dysplasia, and high-grade dysplasia). Estimates of sensitivity, specificity, and predictive values were calculated using a two-tiered cytologic and histologic grading system (""without dysplasia"" and ""with dysplasia of any grade""). Estimates were also calculated for the detection of high-grade dysplasia. RESULTS: During a one-year period, 222 patients underwent 330 anal Pap smears followed by high-resolution anoscopy-guided biopsies. There were 311 satisfactory Pap smears with concurrent biopsies. Considering histology the standard, the frequency of anal dysplasia was 46%. Kappa agreement between anal Pap smear and biopsy was 0.20. For detection of anal dysplasia of any grade, anal Pap smear showed sensitivity of 61%, specificity of 60%, positive predictive value of 56%, and negative predictive value of 64%. For high-grade dysplasia, anal Pap smear showed sensitivity of 16% and specificity of 97%. CONCLUSION: Anal Pap smears alone were not sensitive enough to rule out anal dysplasia. We recommend that high-resolution anoscopy-guided biopsy be incorporated as a complementary screening test for anal dysplasia in high-risk patients. Following baseline high-resolution anoscopy, these individuals could be followed with serial anal cytology to dictate the need for future high-resolution anoscopy-guided biopsies.

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Aim: To compare cervical length (CL) at 18-21 and 22-25 weeks` gestation in twin pregnancies in prediction of spontaneous preterm delivery and to examine cervical shortening. Methods: Retrospective cohort study of CL measured at 18-21 and 22-25 weeks` gestation in twin pregnancies. Results: Receiver operating characteristics (ROC) curve revealed area of 0.64 (95% CI 0.53-0.75) and 0.80 (95% CI 0.72-0.88) for measurements at 18-21 and 22-25 weeks, respectively (P <= 0.001). Sensitivities of 33.3% and 23% and negative predicting value (NPV) of 97.3% and 86.8% for delivery at <28 and <34 weeks gestation were reached for measurements at 18-21 weeks. Sensitivities of 71.4% and 38.2% and NPV of 99.1% and 91.4% for delivery at <28 and <34 weeks` gestation were reached for measurements at 22-25 weeks. Cervical length shortening analysis showed an area under ROC curve of 0.81 (95% CI 0.73-0.89) and best cut-off was at >= 2 mm/week. Sensitivities of 80% and 60.8% and NPV of 98.9% and 90.6% for delivery at <28 and <34 weeks gestation were reached. Conclusions: In twin gestations, assessment of CL at 22-25 weeks is better than assessment at 18-21 weeks to predict preterm delivery before 34 weeks. Cervical shortening at a rate of >= 2 mm/weeks between 18 and 25 weeks gestation was a good predictor of spontaneous preterm birth in this high-risk population.

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Objective: To identify the CAMCOG sub-items that best contribute for the identification of patients with mild cognitive impairment (MCI) and incipient Alzheimer`s disease (AD) in clinical practice. Methods: Cross-sectional assessment of 272 older adults (98 MCI, 82 AD, and 92 controls) with a standardized neuropsychological battery and the CAMCOG schedule. Backward logistic regression analysis with diagnosis (MCI and controls) as dependent variable and the sub-items of the CAMCOG as independent variable was carried out to determine the CAMCOG sub-items that predicted the diagnosis of MCI. Results: Lower scores on Language, Memory, Praxis, and Calculation CAMCOG sub-items were significantly associated with the diagnosis of MCI. A composite score obtained by the sum of these scores significantly discriminated MCI patients from comparison groups. This reduced version of the CAMCOG showed similar diagnostic accuracy than the original schedule for the identification of patients with MCI as compared to controls (AUC = 0.80 +/- 0.03 for the reduced CAMCOG; AUC = 0.79 +/- 0.03 for the original CAMCOG). Conclusion: This reduced version of the CAMCOG had similar diagnostic properties as the original CAMCOG and was faster and easier to administer, rendering it more suitable for the screening of subtle cognitive deficits in general clinical practice. Copyright (C) 2010 John Wiley & Sons, Ltd.

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The Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) is the most widely used instrument for the screening of cognitive impairment worldwide, but its ability to produce valid estimates of dementia in populations of low socioeconomic status and minimal literacy skills has not been adequately established. The authors investigated the psychometric properties of the MMSE in a community-based sample of older Brazilians. Cross-sectional one-phase population-based study of all residents of pre-defined areas of the city of Sao Paulo, aged 65 years or over. The Brazilian version of the MMSE was compared with DSM-IV diagnosis of dementia assessed with a harmonized one-phase procedure developed by the 10/66 Dementia Research Group. Analyses were performed with 1,933 participants of the SPAH study. Receiver operating characteristic analysis showed that the MMSE cut-point of 14/15 was associated with 78.7% sensitivity and 77.8% specificity for the diagnosis of dementia amongst participants with no formal education, and the cut-point 17/18 with 91.9% sensitivity and 89.5% specificity for those with at least 1 year of formal education (areas under the curves 0.87 and 0.94, respectively; P = 0.03). Even with these best fitting cut-points, the MMSE estimate of the prevalence of dementia was four times higher than determined by the DSM-IV criteria. Education, age, sex and income influenced MMSE scores, independently of dementia caseness. The MMSE is an adequate tool for screening dementia in older adults with minimum literacy skills, but misclassification is unacceptably high for older adults who are illiterate, which has serious consequences for research and clinical practice in low and middle income countries, where the proportion of illiteracy among older adults is high.

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Data are reported on the background and performance of the K6 screening scale for serious mental illness (SMI) in the World Health Organization (WHO) World Mental Health (WMH) surveys. The K6 is a six-item scale developed to provide a brief valid screen for Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders 4th edition (DSM-IV) SMI based on the criteria in the US ADAMHA Reorganization Act. Although methodological studies have documented good K6 validity in a number of countries, optimal scoring rules have never been proposed. Such rules are presented here based on analysis of K6 data in nationally or regionally representative WMH surveys in 14 countries (combined N = 41,770 respondents). Twelve-month prevalence of DSM-IV SMI was assessed with the fully-structured WHO Composite International Diagnostic Interview. Nested logistic regression analysis was used to generate estimates of the predicted probability of SMI for each respondent from K6 scores, taking into consideration the possibility of variable concordance as a function of respondent age, gender, education, and country. Concordance, assessed by calculating the area under the receiver operating characteristic curve, was generally substantial (median 0.83; range 0.76-0.89; inter-quartile range 0.81-0.85). Based on this result, optimal scaling rules are presented for use by investigators working with the K6 scale in the countries studied. Copyright (c) 2010 John Wiley & Sons, Ltd.

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Introduction. Lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) and erectile dysfunction (ED) are common problems in middle-aged and older men. Recently, epidemiologic studies have shown significant associations between severity of LUTS and male sexual dysfunction. Aim. We analyzed the role of prostate enlargement, LUTS, and prostate specific antigen (PSA) levels in the erectile function of Brazilian men who underwent prostate cancer (PCa) screening. Method. We analyzed data from 1,008 consecutive patients enrolled in a PCa screening program. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) was defined as a prostate weight greater than 30 g as defined by digital rectal examination. For statistical analysis, we used the chi-squared and analysis of variance tests. The odds ratios (OR) for correlation of ED with prostate volume LUTS and PSA were estimated using logistic regression models. Main Outcome Measure. The American Urological Association (AUA) symptom score for LUTS and the International Index of Erectile Function. Results. Mean patient age was 61.2 years (45-87) and median PSA value was 1.9 ng/mL. BPH was identified in 48.5% of patients. Mild, moderate, and severe LUTS were found in 52.3%, 30.9%, and 16.8% of cases, respectively. ED was classified as absent, mild, mild to moderate, moderate, and severe in 18.6%, 23.1%, 18.6%, 15.2%, and 24.5%, respectively. While only 5.4% of the patients with no ED presented severe LUTS, this finding was observed in 27.1% of patients with severe ED (P<0.001). Univariate logistic regression analysis demonstrated that age, prostate volume, AUA symptom score, and PSA levels were significant predictors of ED. However, when controlled for patient age, only LUTS remained as an independent predictor of ED. Conclusions. Controlling for patient age, LUTS are independent risk factors for the development of ED among Brazilian men who undergo PCa screening.

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P>Objective Congenital hypogonadotropic hypogonadism with anosmia (Kallmann syndrome) or with normal sense of smell is a heterogeneous genetic disorder caused by defects in the synthesis, secretion and action of gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH). Mutations involving autosomal genes have been identified in approximately 30% of all cases of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. However, most studies that screened patients with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism for gene mutations did not include gene dosage methodologies. Therefore, it remains to be determined whether patients without detected point mutation carried a heterozygous deletion of one or more exons. Measurements We used the multiplex ligation-dependent probe amplification (MLPA) assay to evaluate the potential contribution of heterozygous deletions of FGFR1, GnRH1, GnRHR, GPR54 and NELF genes in the aetiology of GnRH deficiency. Patients We studied a mutation-negative cohort of 135 patients, 80 with Kallmann syndrome and 55 with normosmic hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Results One large heterozygous deletion involving all FGFR1 exons was identified in a female patient with sporadic normosmic hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and mild dimorphisms as ogival palate and cavus foot. FGFR1 hemizygosity was confirmed by gene dosage with comparative multiplex and real-time PCRs. Conclusions FGFR1 or other autosomal gene deletion is a possible but very rare event and does not account for a significant number of sporadic or inherited cases of isolated GnRH deficiency.

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BACKGROUND: Comparative genomic hybridization (CGH) is a valuable alternative to fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) for preimplantation genetic screening (PGS) because it allows full karyotype analysis. However, this approach requires the cryopreservation of biopsied embryos until results are available. The aim of this study is to reduce the hybridization period of CGH, in order to make this short-CGH technique suitable for PGS of Day-3 embryos, avoiding the cryopreservation step. METHODS: Thirty-two fibroblasts from six aneuploid cell lines (Coriell) and 48 blastomeres from 10 Day-4 embryos, discarded after PGS by FISH with 9 probes (9-chr-FISH), were analysed by short-CGH. A reanalysis by the standard 72 h-CGH and FISH using telomeric probes was performed when no concordant results between short-CGH and FISH diagnosis were observed. The short-CGH was subsequently applied in a clinical case of advanced maternal age. RESULTS: In 100% of the fibroblasts analysed, the characteristic aneuploidies of each cell line were detected by short-CGH. The results of the 48 blastomeres screened by short-CGH were supported by both 72 h-CGH results and FISH reanalysis. The chromosomes most frequently involved in aneuploidy were 22 and 16, but aneuploidies for the other chromosomes, excepting 1, 10 and 13, were also detected. Forty-one of the 94 aneuploid events observed (43.6%) corresponded to chromosomes which are not analysed by 9-chr-FISH. CONCLUSIONS: We have performed a preliminary validation of the short-CGH technique, including one clinical case, suggesting this approach may be applied to Day-3 aneuploidy analysis, thereby avoiding embryo cryopreservation and perhaps helping to improve implantation rate after PGS.

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Background: Detection and quantification of human papillomavirus (HPV) may help in predicting the evolution of HPV infection and progression of associated lesions. Objectives: We propose a novel protocol using consensus primers GP5+/6+ in a SYBR Green quantitative real-time (Q-RT) polymerase chain reaction (PCR). The strategy permits screening for HPV infection and viral load quantification simultaneously. Study design: DNA from 153 archived cervical samples, previously tested for HPV detection by GP5+/6+ PCR and typed by EIA-RLB (enzyme immunoassay-reverse line blot) or sequence analysis, was analysed using SYBR Green Q-RT PCR. Melting temperature assay (T(m)) and cycle threshold (C(t)) were used to evaluate HPV positivity and viral load. The T(m) in the range of 77-82 degrees C was considered to be positive for HPV-DNA. HPV results generated through GP5+/6+ conventional PCR were considered the gold standard against which sensitivity and specificity of our assay were measured. Results: Out of 104 HPV positive samples, 100 (96.2%) were also determined as positive by SYBR Green Q-RT PCR; of the 49 HPV-negative samples, all were determined as negative. There was an excellent positivity agreement (K = 0.94) between the SYBR Green Q-RT and the previous methods employed. The specificity and sensitivity were 100% and 96.2%, respectively. Comparison of SYBR Green Q-RT and TaqMan oligo-probe technologies gave an excellent concordance (pc = 0.95) which validated the proposed strategy. Conclusions: We propose a sensitive and easy-to-perform technique for HPV screening and viral load quantification simultaneously. (C) 2009 Elsevier B.V. All rights reserved.

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Background Recent studies indicate an increased frequency of mutations in the gene encoding glucocerebrosidase (GBA), a deficiency of which causes Gaucher`s disease, among patients with Parkinson`s disease. We aimed to ascertain the frequency of GBA mutations in an ethnically diverse group of patients with Parkinson`s disease. Methods Sixteen centers participated in our international, collaborative study: five from the Americas, six from Europe, two from Israel, and three from Asia. Each center genotyped a standard DNA panel to permit comparison of the genotyping results across centers. Genotypes and phenotypic data from a total of 5691 patients with Parkinson`s disease (780 Ashkenazi Jews) and 4898 controls (387 Ashkenazi Jews) were analyzed, with multivariate logistic-regression models and the Mantel-Haenszel procedure used to estimate odds ratios across centers. Results All 16 centers could detect two GBA mutations, L444P and N370S. Among Ashkenazi Jewish subjects, either mutation was found in 15% of patients and 3% of controls, and among non-Ashkenazi Jewish subjects, either mutation was found in 3% of patients and less than 1% of controls. GBA was fully sequenced for 1883 non-Ashkenazi Jewish patients, and mutations were identified in 7%, showing that limited mutation screening can miss half the mutant alleles. The odds ratio for any GBA mutation in patients versus controls was 5.43 across centers. As compared with patients who did not carry a GBA mutation, those with a GBA mutation presented earlier with the disease, were more likely to have affected relatives, and were more likely to have atypical clinical manifestations. Conclusions Data collected from 16 centers demonstrate that there is a strong association between GBA mutations and Parkinson`s disease.

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The aim of this study was to research Candida dubliniensis among isolates present in a Brazilian yeast collection and to evaluate the main phenotypic methods for discrimination between C. albicans and C. dubliniensis from oral cavity. A total of 200 isolates, presumptively identified as C. albicans or C. dubliniensis obtained from heart transplant patients under immunosuppressive therapy, tuberculosis patients under antibiotic therapy, HIV-positive patients under antiretroviral therapy, and healthy subjects, were analyzed using the following phenotypic tests: formation and structural arrangement of chlamydospores on corn meal agar, casein agar, tobacco agar, and sunflower seed agar; growth at 45 degrees C; and germ tube formation. All strains were analyzed by polymerase chain reaction (PCR). In a preliminary screen for C. dubliniensis, 48 of the 200 isolates on corn meal agar, 30 of the 200 on casein agar, 16 of the 200 on tobacco agar, and 15 of the 200 on sunflower seed agar produced chlamydoconidia; 27 of the 200 isolates showed no or poor growth at 45 degrees C. All isolates were positive for germ tube formation. These isolates were considered suggestive of C. dubliniensis. All of them were subjected to PCR analysis using C. dubliniensis-specific primers. C. dubliniensis isolates were not found. C. dubliniensis isolates were not recovered in this study done with immunocompromised patients. Sunflower seed agar was the medium with the smallest number of isolates of C. albicans suggestive of C. dubliniensis. None of the phenotypic methods was 100% effective for discrimination between C. albicans and C. dubliniensis. (C) 2011 Elsevier Inc. All rights reserved.

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A Gram-negative, rod-shaped, non-spore-forming and nitrogen-fixing bacterium, designated ICB 89(T), was isolated from stems of a Brazilian sugar cane variety widely used in organic farming. 16S rRNA gene sequence analysis revealed that strain ICB 89(T) belonged to the genus Stenotrophomonas and was most closely related to Stenotrophomonas maltophilia LMG 958(T), Stenotrophomonas rhizophila LMG 22075(T), Stenotrophomonas nitritireducens L2(T), [Pseudomonas] geniculata ATCC 19374(T), [Pseudomonas] hibiscicola ATCC 19867(T) and [Pseudomonas] beteli ATCC 19861(T). DNA-DNA hybridization together with chemotaxonomic data and biochemical characteristics allowed the differentiation of strain ICB 89(T) from its nearest phylogenetic neighbours. Therefore, strain ICB 89(T) represents a novel species, for which the name Stenotrophomonas pavanii sp. nov. is proposed. The type strain is ICB 89(T) (=CBMAI 564(T) =LMG 25348(T)).

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To find the most reliable screening method for Trypanosoma cruzi infection in blood banks. Epidemiological data, lymphoproliferation assay, parasitological, conventional serological tests: immunofluorescence, haemagglutination, ELISA with epimastigote and trypomastigote antigens and reference serological tests: trypomastigote excreted-secreted antigens (TESA) blot and chemiluminescent ELISA assay with mucine from trypomastigote forms were applied to individuals with inconclusive serology, non-chagasic individuals and chronic chagasic patients. TESA blot had the best performance when used as a single test in all the groups. In the inconclusive group 20.5% of individuals were positive for TESA blot, 23.3% for either lymphoproliferation or TESA blot, and 17.8% for lymphoproliferation only. Positive lymphoproliferation without detectable antibodies was observed in 5.47% of all inconclusive serology cases. Analysis of six parameters (three serological assays, at least one parasitological test, one lymphoproliferation assay and epidemiological data) in the inconclusive group showed that diagnosis of Chagas` disease was probable in 15 patients who were positive by two or more serological tests or for whom three of those six parameters were positive. TESA blot is a good confirmatory test for Chagas` disease in the inconclusive group. Although lymphoproliferation suggests the diagnosis of Chagas` disease in the absence of antibodies when associated with a high epidemiological risk of acquiring Chagas` disease, the data from this study and the characteristics of the lymphoproliferation assay (which is both laborious and time-consuming) do not support its use as a confirmatory test in blood-bank screening. However, our findings underscore the need to develop alternative methods that are not based on antibody detection to improve the diagnosis when serological tests are inconclusive.