158 resultados para Reaction Dynamics


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This paper analyzes the astroglial and neuronal responses in subtelencephalic structures, following a bilateral ablation of the telencephalon in the Columba livia pigeons. Control birds received a sham operation. Four months later the birds were sacrificed and their brains processed for glial fribillary acid protein (GFAP) and neurofilament immunohistochemistry, markers for astrocytes and neurons, respectively. Computer-assisted image analysis was employed for quantification of the immunoreactive labeling in the nucleus rotundus (N.Rt) and the optic tectum (OT) of the birds. An increased number of GFAP immunoreactive astrocytes were found in several subregions of the N.Rt (p .001), as well as in layers 1, 2cd, 3, and 6 of the OT (p .001) of the lesioned animals. Neurofilament immunoreactivity decreased massively in the entire N.Rt of the lesioned birds; however, remaining neurons with healthy aspect showing large cytoplasm and ramified branches were detected mainly in the periphery of the nucleus. In view of the recently described paracrine neurotrophic properties of the activated astrocytes, the data of the present study may suggest a long-lasting neuroglial interaction in regions of the lesioned bird brain far from injury. Such events may trigger neuronal plasticity in remaining brain structures that may lead spontaneous behavior recovery as the one promoted here even after a massive injury.

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Objective: To evaluate influences of vitrification and warming of metaphase II (MII) mouse oocytes on survival, spindle dynamics. spindle morphology, and chromatin alignment on metaphase plates. Design: Experimental animal Study. Setting: University animal laboratory. Animal(s): Eight-week-old B6D2F1 mice. Intervention(s): Denuded MII oocytes were used fresh (control), exposed to vitrification/warming solutions (Sol Expos), or vitrified and warmed (Vitr). Main Outcome Measure(s): Oocyte recovery and survival after warming and the influence of solution exposure and cryopreservation on spindle dynamics and chromatin alignment. Result(s): Cryopreservation of two or 10 oocytes per straw resulted in recovery (100% +/- 0% and 95% +/- 4%, respectively; mean SE) and survival (95% 2% and 98% 2%, respectively). Immediately after warming (Vitr), significantly fewer oocytes assessed with immunocytochemistry contained spindles, compared with control and Sol Expos. When oocytes were placed into a 3 degrees 7C environment for 2 hours after exposure or warming, the ability to recognize spindles by immunocytochemistry was not significantly different between groups. Using live-cell time-lapse imaging with LC-Polscope, similar time-dependent spindle formation dynamics were observed. At 2 hours after collection or treatment, spindle morphology and length were not significantly different between the groups, nor was the incidence of aberrant alignment of chromatin on metaphase plates. Conclusion(s): Immediately after warming of vitrified MII oocytes, beta-tubulin is depolymerized and chromatin remains condensed on the metaphase plate. Within a 2-hour period, beta-tubulin repolymerizes, forming morphologically normal metaphase spindles with properly aligned chromatin.

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The use of improved microbiological procedures associated with molecular techniques has increased the identification of Candida bloodstream infections, even if the isolation of more than one species by culture methods remains uncommon. We report the cases of two children presenting with severe gastrointestinal disorders and other risk factors that contribute to Candida infections. In the first patient, C. albicans DNA was initially detected by a nested-amplification and C. tropicalis was found later during hospitalization, while blood cultures were persistently negative. In the second child, there was amplification of C. albicans and C. glabrata DNA in the same samples, but blood cultures yielded only C. albicans. Both patients received antifungal therapy but had unfavorable outcomes. These two cases illustrate that PCR was more successful than culture methods in detecting Candida in the bloodstream of high risk children, and was also able to detect the presence of more than one species in the same patient that might impact therapy when the fungi are resistant to azole compounds.

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This was a longitudinal study carried out during a period over 2 years with a cohort of 946 individuals of both sexes, aged 1 year and older, from an endemic area of American visceral leishmaniasis (AVL) in Para State, Brazil. The object was to analyze the transmission dynamics of human Leishmania (Leishmania) infantum chagasi infection based principally on the prevalence and incidence. For diagnosis of the infection, the indirect fluorescent antibody test (IFAT) and leishmanin skin test (LST) were performed with amastigote and promastigote antigens of the parasite, respectively. The prevalence by LST (11.2%) was higher (p < 0.0001) than that (3.4%) by IFAT, and the combined prevalence by both tests was 12.6%. The incidences by LST were also higher (p < 0.05) than those by IFAT at 6 (4.7% A- 0.6%), 12 (4.7% A- 2.7%), and 24 months (2.9% A- 0.3%). Moreover, there were no differences (p > 0.05) between the combined incidences by both tests on the same point surveys, 5.2%, 6.3%, and 3.6%. During the study, 12 infected persons showed high IFAT IgG titers with no LST reactions: five children and two adults developed AVL (2,560-10,120), and two children and three adults developed subclinical oligosymptomatic infection (1,280-2,560). The combined tests diagnosed a total of 231 cases of infection leading to an accumulated prevalence of 24.4%.

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This prospective study was carried out from October 2003 to December 2005 and involved a cohort of 946 individuals of both genders, aged 1-89 years, from an endemic area for American visceral leishmaniasis (AVL), in Para State, Brazil. The aim of the study was to analyze the dynamics of the clinical and immunological evolution of human Leishmania ( L.) infantum chagasi infection represented by the following clinical-immunological profiles: asymptomatic infection (AI); symptomatic infection (SI = AVL); subclinical oligosymptomatic infection (SOI); subclinical resistant infection (SRI); and indeterminate initial infection (III). Infection diagnosis was determined by the indirect fluorescent antibody test and leishmanin skin test. In total, 231 cases of infection were diagnosed: the AI profile was the most frequent (73.2%), followed by SRI (12.1%), III (9.9%), SI (2.6%) and SOI (2.2%). The major conclusion regarding evolution dynamics was that the III profile plays a pivotal role from which the cases evolve to either the resistant, SRI and AI, or susceptible, SOI and SI, profiles; only one of the 23 III cases evolved to SI, while most evolved to either SRI (nine cases) or SOI (five cases) and eight cases remained as III. (C) 2010 Royal Society of Tropical Medicine and Hygiene. Published by Elsevier Ltd. All rights reserved.

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Previous studies have suggested that abnormal corneal wound healing in patients after photorefractive keratectomy (PRK) is associated with the appearance of myofibroblasts in the stroma between two and four weeks after surgery. The purpose of this study was to examine potential myofibroblast progenitor cells that might express other filament markers prior to completion of the differentiation pathway that yields alpha-smooth muscle actin (SMA)-expressing myofibroblasts associated with haze localized beneath the epithelial basement membrane after PRK. Twenty-four female rabbits that had -9 diopter PRK were sacrificed at 1 week, 2 weeks, 3 weeks or 4 weeks after surgery. Corneal rims were collected, frozen at -80 degrees C, and analyzed by immunocytochemistry using anti-vimentin, anti-desmin, and anti-SMA antibodies. Double immunostaining was performed for the co-localization of SMA with vimentin or desmin with SMA. An increase in vimentin expression in stromal cells is noted as early as 1 week after PRK in the rabbit cornea. As the healing response continues at two or three weeks after surgery, many stromal cells expressing vimentin also begin to express desmin and SMA. By 4 weeks after the surgery most, if not all, myofibroblasts express vimentin, desmin and SMA. Generalized least squares regression analysis showed that there was strong evidence that each of the marker groups differed in expression over time compared to the other two (p < 0.01). Intermediate filaments - vimentin and desmin co-exist in myofibroblasts along with SMA and may play an important role in corneal remodeling after photorefractive keratectomy. The earliest precursors of myofibroblasts destined to express SMA and desmin are detectible by staining for vimentin at 1 week after surgery. (C) 2009 Elsevier Ltd. All rights reserved.

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Previous studies have suggested that abnormal corneal wound healing in patients after photorefractive keratectomy (PRK) is associated with the appearance of myofibroblasts in the stroma between two and four weeks after surgery. The purpose of this study was to examine potential myofibroblast progenitor cells that might express other filament markers prior to completion of the differentiation pathway that yields a-smooth muscle actin (SMA)-expressing myofibroblasts associated with haze localized beneath the epithelial basement membrane after PRK. Twenty-four female rabbits that had -9 diopter PRK were sacrificed at I week, 2 weeks, 3 weeks or 4 weeks after surgery. Corneal rims were collected, frozen at -80 degrees C, and analyzed by immunocytochemistry using anti-vimentin, anti-desmin, and anti-SMA antibodies. Double immunostaining was performed for the co-localization of SMA with vimentin or desmin with SMA. An increase in vimentin expression in stromal cells is noted as early as 1 week after PRK in the rabbit cornea. As the healing response continues at two or three weeks after surgery, many stromal cells expressing vimentin also begin to express desmin and SMA. By 4 weeks after the surgery most, if not all, myofibroblasts express vimentin, desmin and SMA. Generalized least squares regression analysis showed that there was strong evidence that each of the marker groups differed in expression over time compared to the other two (p < 0.01). Intermediate filaments - vimentin and desmin co-exist in myofibroblasts along with SMA and may play an important role in corneal remodeling after photorefractive keratectomy. The earliest precursors of myofibroblasts destined to express SMA and desmin are detectible by staining for vimentin at I week after surgery. (C) 2009 Elsevier Ltd. All rights reserved.

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The majority of severe hypersensitivity reactions in hemodialysis patients have occurred due to sensitization to ethylene oxide or to nonbiocompatible membrane dialyzers. The use of polysulfone dialyzers rarely causes hypersensitivity reactions. In the present study, we describe a case of severe life-threatening reactions induced by polysulfone dialyzers (from different manufacturers subjected to a variety of sterilization methods), which occurred after 9 sessions of hemodialysis with the same prescription, exemplifying the complexity of such reactions.

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Cutaneous tuberculosis has re-emerged in the last 15 years together with the higher incidence of pulmonary tuberculosis and multidrug resistance. The choice for a single diagnostic tool among the many available today is a challenge. Our objective was to compare polymerase chain reaction (PCR) with other exams in the diagnosis of cutaneous tuberculosis and atypical mycobacteria skin infection. PCR and a set of five different exams were performed in 32 patients (34 samples of paraffin-embedded tissue) evaluated for 3 years in a university hospital, considering the response to mycobacterial infection treatment as a positive case. PCR was the most sensitive (88%) and specific (83%) exam. Culture, immunohistochemistry and acid-fast bacilli were not in agreement with clinical response to treatment. Although PCR is a useful tool, careful clinical exam is still the gold standard for the evaluation and treatment of cutaneous tuberculosis and mycobacteria skin infection.

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Secondary hyperparathyroidism is a common complication in uremic patients. Total parathyroidectomy combined with partial autotransplantation into brachioradialis muscle has been the preference among the options for surgical treatment. This study was designed to evaluate the reserve and ability of suppression of autotransplanted parathyroid tissue using dynamics tests. We studied, prospectively, 12 patients in recent (RP) and late (LP) postoperative of total parathyroidectomy with autotransplantation. For analysis of the secretory reserve capacity, we induced hypocalcemia by ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) infusion. Furthermore, for analysis of the ability for parathyroid hormone (PTH) suppression, the hypercalcemia test was used, by intravenous administration of calcium in LP. In RP, there was a decrease in the average serum levels of PTH, phosphorus, and alkaline phosphatase, which ranged from 13 to 231 (87 +/- A 65) pg/ml, 2.3 to 6.2 (3.3 +/- A 1.1) mg/dl, and 77 to 504 (250 +/- A 135) U/L, respectively, similar to that observed in LP. The analysis of the average curve of variations in PTH during testing of the stimulus with EDTA showed lack of secretion in RP and partial response in LP. Impaired suppression ability of the graft in LP was observed in the test with intravenous calcium. Total parathyroidectomy followed by partial autotransplantation was effective in reducing PTH serum levels in patients with terminal kidney disease. The elevation of serum calcium during the suppression test was not able to inhibit the autograft gland secretion of PTH. The assessment of parathyroid graft function demonstrated an inability to respond to the stimulus of hypocalcemia induced by EDTA, although there was a partial recovery, in late postoperative period.

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HIV patients frequently have opportunistic oesophageal infections. We report Haemophilus ducreyi genetic material detected by polymerase chain reaction in biopsies of oesophageal lesions in three HIV-1-infected patients. This finding may be an indication of its aetiopathological role in oesophageal lesions of HIV patients.

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Endothelins (ETs) are involved in inflammatory events, including pain, fever, edema, and cell migration. ET-1 levels are increased in plasma and synovial membrane of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) patients, but the evidence that ETs participate in RA physiopathology is limited. The present study investigated the involvement of ETs in neutrophil accumulation and edema formation in the murine model of zymosan-induced arthritis. Intra-articular (i.a.) administration of selective ETA or ETB receptor antagonists (BQ-123 and BQ-788, respectively; 15 pmol/cavity) prior to i.a. zymosan injection (500 mu g/cavity) markedly reduced knee-joint edema formation and neutrophil influx to the synovial cavity 6 h and 24 h after stimulation. Histological analysis showed that ETA or ETB receptor blockade suppressed zymosan-induced neutrophil accumulation in articular tissue at 6 h. Likewise, dual blockade of ETA/ETB with bosentan (10 mg/kg, i.v.) also reduced edema formation and neutrophil counts 6 h after zymosan stimulation. Pretreatment with BQ-123 or BQ-788 (i.a.; 15 pmol/cavity) also decreased zymosan-induced TNF-alpha production within 6 h, keratinocyte-derived chemokine/CXCL1 production within 24 h, and leukotriene B-4 at both time-points. Consistent with the demonstration that ET receptor antagonists inhibit zymosan-induced inflammation, i.a. injection of ET-1 (1-30 pmol/cavity) or sarafotoxin S6c (0.1-30 pmol/cavity) also triggered edema formation and neutrophil accumulation within 6 h. Moreover, knee-joint synovial tissue expressed ETA and ETB receptors. These findings suggest that endogenous ETs contribute to knee-joint inflammation, acting through ETA and ETB receptors and modulating edema formation, neutrophil recruitment, and production of inflammatory mediators.

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Experiments were performed to investigate senses that are essential for mediating fright reaction and food behavior in Pseudoplatystoma corruscans, pintado. The dilemma ""to feed or to flee"" was also analyzed in fishes with intact and sectioned olfactory tracts, stimulated by alarm substance extracts and food. Fishes were arranged into five groups: fish with intact lateral olfactory tracts (LOT), fish with intact medial olfactory tract (MOT), fish with tracts totally sectioned (TOTAL, both LOT and MOT), sham operated, and nonoperated fish. The five groups were submitted to either alarm substance extract and food stimulus or to distilled water (control) and food stimulus. Fish reacted to food independently of which tract (LOT, MOT or TOTAL) was sectioned; vision seems necessary and elemental to detect and deflagrate food response. Latency of the responses to each reaction was different between groups. None of the fish with sectioned tracts reacted to alarm substance extract, while sham- and nonoperated fish showed the typical alarm behavior response, leading to the conclusion that olfaction is essential for mediating alarm response. These results indicate that others sense systems (e.g., vision) are sufficient to trigger and elicit feeding behavior and that olfaction is not necessary to fully maintain food detection to qualitative and quantitative extent. However, olfactory tract integrity seems to be required for mediation of alarm reaction in P. corruscans.

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Objective To evaluate the influence of oral contraceptives (OCs) containing 20 mu mu g ethinylestradiol (EE) and 150 mu mu g gestodene (GEST) on the autonomic modulation of heart rate (HR) in women. Methods One-hundred and fifty-five women aged 24 +/-+/- 2 years were divided into four groups according to their physical activity and the use or not of an OC: active-OC, active-non-OC (NOC), sedentary-OC, and sedentary-NOC. The heart rate was registered in real time based on the electrocardiogram signal for 15 minutes, in the supine-position. The heart rate variability (HRV) was analysed using Shannon`s entropy (SE), conditional entropy (complexity index [CInd] and normalised CInd [NCI]), and symbolic analysis (0V%, 1V%, 2LV%, and 2ULV%). For statistical analysis the Kruskal-Wallis test with Dunn post hoc and the Wilcoxon test (p < 0.05 was considered significant) were applied. Results Treatment with this COC caused no significant changes in SE, CInd, NCI, or symbolic analysis in either active or sedentary groups. Active groups presented higher values for SE and 2ULV%, and lower values for 0V% when compared to sedentary groups (p < 0.05). Conclusion HRV patterns differed depending on life style; the non-linear method applied was highly reliable for identifying these changes. The use of OCs containing 20 mu mu g EE and 150 mu mu g GEST does not influence HR autonomic modulation.

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HIV-1-infected patients frequently have opportunistic esophageal infections which, when associated with severe immunodeficiency, can be attributed to unusual pathogens. The clinical presentation of several esophageal diseases is similar and the best method for a specific diagnosis of these patients has not been well defined. To evaluate the role of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) in the etiologic definition of esophageal ulcers in HIV-1-infected patients, 96 esophageal biopsies from 79 HIV-1-infected patients were processed by PCR using specific primers for cytomegalovirus (CMV), herpes virus (HSV), human papilloma virus (HPV), HIV-1, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Mycobacterium avium, Mycobacterium intracellulare, Treponema pallidum, and Haemophilus ducreyi. The PCR results were compared to the histopathologic results. Seventy-nine patients were studied (mean age: 34 years; 62% men; median CD4 + T cell = 103.59 cells/mu l (range 1-795.2 cells/mu l). The most common endoscopic findings were as follows: esophageal candidiasis (37.1%), esophageal ulcers (24.7%), esophagitis (11.2%), and lugol-negative areas (10.1%). The histopathologic findings in the esophageal ulcers (22 biopsies) were non-specific inflammation (31.8%), HSV (36.4%), Candida (13.6%), CMV (13.6%), or HPV disease (4.5%). In the esophageal ulcer biopsies, the PCR results were negative in 27.6% of cases, and positive for HIV (65.5%), CMV (31%), HPV (20.7%), HSV (10.3%), and H. ducreyi (6.9%). The histopathologic examination did not identify a pathogen or identified only Candida in 15 biopsies of esophageal ulcers. PCR was positive in ten (66.7%) and negative in five (33.3%) of these biopsies (idiopathic ulcers). PCR detected: HIV (53.3%), CMV (20%), HPV (13.3%), and H. ducreyi (6,7%). PCR detected more etiologic agents in esophageal ulcers than histopathology and was able to detect unusual pathogens. On the other hand, sometimes more than one pathogen was detected in the esophageal ulcers, making it difficult to reach an accurate diagnosis. This finding indicates the need for more studies to evaluate the benefit of this method in the routine evaluation of esophageal ulcer biopsies in HIV-1-infected patients.