Development and validation of a fast monoclonal based disequilibrium enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay for the detection of triphenylmethane dyes and their metabolites in fish

Malachite Green (MG), Crystal Violet (CV) and Brilliant Green (BC) are antibacterial, antifungal and antiparasitic agents that have been used for treatment and prevention of diseases in fish. These dyes are metabolized into reduced leuco forms (LMG, LCV, LBG) that can be present in fish muscles for a long period. Due to the carcinogenic properties they are banned for use in fish for human consumption in many countries including the European Union and the United States. HPLC and LC-MS techniques are generally used for the detection of these compounds and their metabolites in fish. This study presents the development of a fast enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) method as an alternative for screening purposes. A first monoclonal cell line producing antibodies to MG was generated using a hybridoma technique. The antibody had good cross-reactivates with related chromatic forms of triphenylmethane dyes such as CV, BC, Methyl Green, Methyl Violet and Victoria Blue R. The monoclonal antibody (mAb) was used to develop a fast (20 min) disequilibrium ELISA screening method for the detection of triphenylmethanes in fish. By introducing an oxidation step with 2,3-dichloro-5,6-dicyano-1,4-benzoquinone (DDQ) during sample extraction the assay was also used to detect the presence of the reduced metabolites of triphenylmethanes. The detection capability of the assay was 1 ng g(-1) for MG, LMG, CV, LCV and BC which was below the minimum required performance limit (MRPL) for the detection method of total MG (sum of MG and LMG) set by the Commission Decision 2004/25/EC (2 ng g(-1)). The mean recoveries for fish samples spiked at 0.5 MRPL and MRPL levels with MG and LMG were between 74.9 and 117.0% and inter- and intra-assay coefficients of variation between 4.7 and 25.7%. The validated method allows the analysis of a batch of 20 samples in two to three hours. Additionally, this procedure is substantially faster than other ELISA methods developed for MG/LMG thus far. The stable and efficient monoclonal cell line obtained is an unlimited source of sensitive and specific antibody to MG and other triphenylmethanes. (C) 2011 Elsevier B.V. All rights reserved.

Biosynthetic Chlorination of the Piperazate Residue in Kutzneride Biosynthesis by KthP

Kutznerides 2 and 8 of the cyclic hexadepsipeptide family of antifungal natural products from the soil actinomycete Kutzneria sp. 744 contain two sets of chlorinated residues, a 6,7-dichlorohexahydropyrroloindole moiety derived from dichlorotryptophan and a 5-chloropiperazate moiety, as well as a methylcyclopropylglycine residue that may arise from isoleucine via a cryptic chlorination pathway. Previous studies identified KtzD, KtzQ and KtzR as three halogenases in the kutzneride pathway but left no candidate for installing the CS chlorine on piperazate. On the basis of analysis of the complete genome sequence of Kutzneria, we now identify a fourth halogenase in the pathway whose gene is separated from the defined kutzneride cluster by 12 open reading frames. KthP (kutzneride halogenase for piperazate) is a mononuclear nonheme iron halogenase that acts on the piperazyl ring tethered by a thioester linkage to the holo forms of thiolation domains. MS analysis of the protein-bound product confirmed chlorination of the piperazate framework from the (3S)- but not the (3R)-piperazyl-S-pantetheinyl thiolation proteins. After thioesterase-mediated release, nuclear magnetic resonance was used to assign the free imino acid as (3S,5S)-5-chloropiperazate, distinct from the 3S,5R stereoisomer reported in the mature kutznerides. These results demonstrate that a fourth halogenase, KthP, is active in the kutzneride biosynthetic pathway and suggest further processing of the (3S,5S)-5-chloropiperazate during subsequent incorporation into the kutzneride depsipeptide frameworks.

Immunovirological Correlates in Human Rabies Treated With Therapeutic Coma

A 37-year-old woman was admitted to hospital and over the next 5 days developed a progressive encephalitis. Nuchal skin biopsy, analyzed using a Rabies TaqMan(C) PCR, demonstrated rabies virus RNA. She had a history in keeping with exposure to rabies whilst in South Africa, but had not received pre- or post-exposure prophylaxis. She was treated with a therapeutic coma according to the

INCIDENCE AND CLINICAL IMPORTANCE OF PERIOPERATIVE HISTAMINE-RELEASE - RANDOMIZED STUDY OF VOLUME LOADING AND ANTIHISTAMINES AFTER INDUCTION OF ANESTHESIA

Although histamine release is recognised as a common event during anaesthesia and surgery, few clinicians judge the resultant cardiorespiratory disturbances serious enough to warrant prophylaxis with antihistamines. We have assessed the incidence and importance of histamine release in a randomised 2 x 2 factorial study.

Use of adhesion counts to help predict symptomatic infection and the ability of fluoroquinolones to penetrate bacterial biofilms on the bladder cells of spinal cord injured patients

There were three objectives to the present study: (1) compare the bladder infection rate and extent of biofilm formation for seven untreated spinal cord injured (SCI) patients and seven given prophylactic co-trimoxazole, (2) identify a level of bacterial adhesion to bladder cells which could be used to help predict symptomatic infection, and (3) determine from in vivo and in vitro studies whether fluoroquinolones were effective at penetrating bacterial biofilms. The results showed that the infection rate had not changed with the introduction of prophylaxis. However, the uropathogenic population had altered subsequent to the introduction of prophylaxis with E. coli being replaced by E. faecalis as the most common cause of infection. In 63% of the specimens from asymptomatic patients, the bacterial counts per cell were <20, while 81% of specimens from patients with at least one sign and one symptom of urinary tract infection (UTI) had > 20 adherent bacteria per bladder cell. Therefore, it is proposed that counts of > 20 bacteria adherent to sediment transitional epithelial bladder cells may be predictive of symptomatic UTI. Clinical data showed that fluoroquinolone therapy reduced the adhesion counts to <20 per cell in 63% of cases, while trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole only did so in 44%. Further in vitro testing showed that ciprofloxacin (0.1, 0.5 and 1.0 micrograms/ml) partially or completely eradicated adherent biofilms from 92% of spinal cord injured patients' bladder cells, while ofloxacin did so in 71% cases and norfloxacin in 56%. These findings have important implications for the detection and treatment of bacteriuria in spinal cord injured patients.

Quality of life and healthcare utilisation in cystic fibrosis:A multicentre UK study

The aim of our study was to discover the health status and healthcare utilisation associated with pulmonary exacerbations in cystic fibrosis (CF) and chronic Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection.

Patients with CF from five UK CF centres attended two visits, 8–12 weeks apart. They were classified at visit 1 as being in one of the three health states: no current pulmonary exacerbation; “mild” (no hospitalisation) pulmonary exacerbation; and “severe” (hospitalisation) pulmonary exacerbation. All patients completed the Cystic Fibrosis Questionnaire-Revised (CFQ-R) and EuroQol (EQ-5D) and a clinical form, and forced expiratory volume in 1 s (FEV1) was measured at visits 1 and 2. Annual healthcare utilisation data were collected.

94 patients of mean±sd age 28.5±8.2 yrs and FEV1 58.7±26.8% were recruited. 60 patients had no pulmonary exacerbation, 15 had a mild and 19 had a severe pulmonary exacerbation at visit 1. EQ-5D and CFQ-R data showed that the worse the exacerbation, the poorer the health-related quality of life (HRQoL). There were strong relationships between the CFQ-R and EQ-5D domain scores. The mean rate of pulmonary exacerbations per patient per year was 3.6 (1.5 in hospital and 2.2 at home). The mean length of stay per hospital pulmonary exacerbation was 9 days.

As exacerbation status worsens, patients experience worse HRQoL. There is a significant healthcare burden associated with treatment of pulmonary exacerbation and long-term prophylaxis.

Prophylactic ranitidine treatment in critically ill children - a population pharmacokinetic study

Aims: To characterize the population pharmacokinetics of ranitidine in critically ill children and to determine the influence of various clinical and demographic factors on its disposition. Methods: Data were collected prospectively from 78 paediatric patients (n = 248 plasma samples) who received oral or intravenous ranitidine for prophylaxis against stress ulcers, gastrointestinal bleeding or the treatment of gastro-oesophageal reflux. Plasma samples were analysed using high-performance liquid chromatography, and the data were subjected to population pharmacokinetic analysis using nonlinear mixed-effects modelling. Results: A one-compartment model best described the plasma concentration profile, with an exponential structure for interindividual errors and a proportional structure for intra-individual error. After backward stepwise elimination, the final model showed a significant decrease in objective function value (-12.618; P <0.001) compared with the weight-corrected base model. Final parameter estimates for the population were 32.1lh for total clearance and 285l for volume of distribution, both allometrically modelled for a 70kg adult. Final estimates for absorption rate constant and bioavailability were 1.31h and 27.5%, respectively. No significant relationship was found between age and weight-corrected ranitidine pharmacokinetic parameters in the final model, with the covariate for cardiac failure or surgery being shown to reduce clearance significantly by a factor of 0.46. Conclusions: Currently, ranitidine dose recommendations are based on children's weights. However, our findings suggest that a dosing scheme that takes into consideration both weight and cardiac failure/surgery would be more appropriate in order to avoid administration of higher or more frequent doses than necessary.

Treatment of lung infection in patients with cystic fibrosis:Current and future strategies

In patients with cystic fibrosis (CF) lung damage secondary to chronic infection is the main cause of death. Treatment of lung disease to reduce the impact of infection, inflammation and subsequent lung injury is therefore of major importance. Here we discuss the present status of antibiotic therapy for the major pathogens in CF airways, including prophylaxis against infection, eradication of early infection, suppression of chronic infection, and the treatment of infective exacerbations. We outline measures to optimize maintenance treatment for infection in the light of novel antibiotic drug formulations. We discuss new developments in culture-independent microbiological diagnostic techniques and the use of tools for monitoring the success of antibiotic treatment courses. Finally, cost-effectiveness analyses for antibiotic treatment in CF patients are discussed.

Diagnosis and treatment of endogenous fungal endophthalmitis

Endogenous infectious endophthalmitis is rare, and a primary source is usually identified. A case of primary fungal endophthalmitis successfully treated with vitrectomy and systemic antifungal therapy is presented. The aetiology and treatment of the condition are discussed.

Elucidating the Regulon of the Multidrug Resistance Regulator RarA in Klebsiella pneumoniae

RarA is an AraC-type regulator in Klebsiella pneumoniae, which, when overexpressed, confers a low-level multidrug-resistant (MDR) phenotype linked to the upregulation of both the acrAB and oqxAB efflux genes. Increased rarA expression has also been shown to be integral in the development of tigecycline resistance in the absence of ramA in K. pneumoniae. Given its phenotypic role in MDR, microarray analyses were performed to determine the RarA regulon. Transcriptome analysis was undertaken using strains Ecl8?rarA/pACrarA-2 (rarA-expressing construct) and Ecl8?rarA/pACYC184 (vector-only control) using bespoke microarray slides consisting of probes derived from the genomic sequences of K. pneumoniae MGH 78578 (NC_009648.1) and Kp342 (NC_011283.1). Our results show that rarA overexpression resulted in the differential expression of 66 genes (42 upregulated and 24 downregulated). Under the COG (clusters of orthologous groups) functional classification, the majority of affected genes belonged to the category of cell envelope biogenesis and posttranslational modification, along with genes encoding the previously uncharacterized transport proteins (e.g., KPN_03141, sdaCB, and leuE) and the porin OmpF. However, genes associated with energy production and conversion and amino acid transport/metabolism (e.g., nuoA, narJ, and proWX) were found to be downregulated. Biolog phenotype analyses demonstrated that rarA overexpression confers enhanced growth of the overexpresser in the presence of several antibiotic classes (i.e., beta-lactams and fluoroquinolones), the antifungal/antiprotozoal compound clioquinol, disinfectants (8-hydroxyquinoline), protein synthesis inhibitors (i.e., minocycline and puromycin), membrane biogenesis agents (polymyxin B and amitriptyline), DNA synthesis (furaltadone), and the cytokinesis inhibitor (sanguinarine). Both our transcriptome and phenotypic microarray data support and extend the role of RarA in the MDR phenotype of K. pneumoniae.

Interventions for prevention of giant retinal tear in the fellow eye

Background: A giant retinal tear is a full-thickness retinal break that extends circumferentially around the retina for 90 degrees ormore in the presence of a posteriorly detached vitreous. It causes significant visual morbidity from retinal detachment and proliferative vitreoretinopathy. The fellow eye of patients who have had a spontaneous giant retinal tear has an increased risk of developing a giant retinal tear, a retinal detachment or both. Interventions such as 360-degree encircling scleral buckling, 360-degree cryotherapy and 360-degree laser photocoagulation have been advocated by some ophthalmologists as prophylaxis for the fellow eye against the development of a giant retinal tear and/or a retinal detachment, or to prevent its extension. Objectives: To evaluate the effectiveness of prophylactic 360-degree interventions in the fellow eye of patients with unilateral giant retinal tear to prevent the occurrence of a giant retinal tear and/or a retinal detachment. Search strategy: We searched the Cochrane Central Register of Controlled Trials (CENTRAL) (which contains the Cochrane Eyes and Vision Group Trials Register) (The Cochrane Library 2008, Issue 4), MEDLINE (January 1950 to December 2008), EMBASE (January 1980 to December 2008) and Latin American and Caribbean Literature on Health Sciences (LILACS) (January 1982 to December 2008). In addition, we searched the proceedings of the Annual Meeting of the Association for Research in Vision and Ophthalmology (ARVO) up to 2008 for information about other relevant studies. There were no language or date restrictions in the search for trials. The electronic databases were last searched on 15 December 2008. Selection criteria: Prospective randomised controlled trials (RCTs) comparing one prophylactic treatment for fellow eyes of patients with giant retinal tear against observation (no treatment) or another form of prophylactic treatment. In the absence of RCTs, we planned to discuss case-control studies that met the inclusion criteria but we would not conduct a meta-analysis using these studies. Data collection and analysis: We did not find any studies that met the inclusion criteria for the review and therefore no assessment of methodological quality or meta-analysis could be performed. Main results: No studies met the inclusion criteria for this review. Authors' conclusions: No strong evidence in the literature was found to support or refute prophylactic 360-degree treatments to prevent a giant retinal tear or a retinal detachment in the fellow eye of patients with unilateral giant retinal tears. Copyright © 2009 The Cochrane Collaboration. Published by John Wiley & Sons, Ltd.

Interventions for prevention of giant retinal tear in the fellow eye.

BACKGROUND: A giant retinal tear is a full-thickness retinal break that extends circumferentially around the retina for 90 degrees or more in the presence of a posteriorly detached vitreous. It causes significant visual morbidity from retinal detachment and proliferative vitreoretinopathy. The fellow eye of patients who have had a spontaneous giant retinal tear has an increased risk of developing a giant retinal tear, a retinal detachment or both. Interventions such as 360-degree encircling scleral buckling, 360-degree cryotherapy and 360-degree laser photocoagulation have been advocated by some ophthalmologists as prophylaxis for the fellow eye against the development of a giant retinal tear and/or a retinal detachment, or to prevent its extension. OBJECTIVES: To evaluate the effectiveness of prophylactic 360-degree interventions in the fellow eye of patients with unilateral giant retinal tear to prevent the occurrence of a giant retinal tear and/or a retinal detachment. SEARCH STRATEGY: We searched the Cochrane Central Register of Controlled Trials (CENTRAL) (which contains the Cochrane Eyes and Vision Group Trials Register) (The Cochrane Library 2008, Issue 4), MEDLINE (January 1950 to December 2008), EMBASE (January 1980 to December 2008) and Latin American and Caribbean Literature on Health Sciences (LILACS) (January 1982 to December 2008). In addition, we searched the proceedings of the Annual Meeting of the Association for Research in Vision and Ophthalmology (ARVO) up to 2008 for information about other relevant studies. There were no language or date restrictions in the search for trials. The electronic databases were last searched on 15 December 2008. SELECTION CRITERIA: Prospective randomised controlled trials (RCTs) comparing one prophylactic treatment for fellow eyes of patients with giant retinal tear against observation (no treatment) or another form of prophylactic treatment. In the absence of RCTs, we planned to discuss case-control studies that met the inclusion criteria but we would not conduct a meta-analysis using these studies. DATA COLLECTION AND ANALYSIS: We did not find any studies that met the inclusion criteria for the review and therefore no assessment of methodological quality or meta-analysis could be performed. MAIN RESULTS: No studies met the inclusion criteria for this review. AUTHORS' CONCLUSIONS: No strong evidence in the literature was found to support or refute prophylactic 360-degree treatments to prevent a giant retinal tear or a retinal detachment in the fellow eye of patients with unilateral giant retinal tears.

Interventions for prevention of giant retinal tear in the fellow eye.

A giant retinal tear is a full-thickness retinal break that extends circumferentially around the retina for 90 degrees or more in the presence of a posteriorly detached vitreous. It causes significant visual morbidity from retinal detachment and proliferative vitreoretinopathy. The fellow eye of patients who have had a spontaneous giant retinal tear has an increased risk of developing a giant retinal tear, a retinal detachment or both. Interventions such as 360-degree encircling scleral buckling, 360-degree cryotherapy and 360-degree laser photocoagulation have been advocated by some ophthalmologists as prophylaxis for the fellow eye against the development of a giant retinal tear and/or a retinal detachment, or to prevent its extension. To evaluate the effectiveness of prophylactic 360-degree interventions in the fellow eye of patients with unilateral giant retinal tear to prevent the occurrence of a giant retinal tear, a retinal detachment or both. We searched CENTRAL (which contains the Cochrane Eyes and Vision Group Trials Register) (The Cochrane Library 2011, Issue 11), MEDLINE (January 1950 to December 2011), EMBASE (January 1980 to December 2011), Latin American and Caribbean Literature on Health Sciences (LILACS) (January 1982 to December 2011), the metaRegister of Controlled Trials (mRCT) (www.controlled-trials.com), ClinicalTrials.gov (www.clinicaltrials.gov) and the WHO International Clinical Trials Registry Platform (ICTRP) (www.who.int/ictrp/search/en). There were no date or language restrictions in the electronic searches for trials. The electronic databases were last searched on 6 December 2011. In addition, we searched the proceedings of the Annual Meeting of the Association for Research in Vision and Ophthalmology (ARVO) up to 2008 for information about other relevant studies. Prospective randomised controlled trials (RCTs) comparing one prophylactic treatment for fellow eyes of patients with giant retinal tear against observation (no treatment) or another form of prophylactic treatment. In the absence of RCTs, we planned to discuss case-control studies that met the inclusion criteria but we would not conduct a meta-analysis using these studies. We did not find any studies that met the inclusion criteria for the review and therefore no assessment of methodological quality or meta-analysis could be performed. No studies met the inclusion criteria for this review. No strong evidence in the literature was found to support or refute prophylactic 360-degree treatments to prevent a giant retinal tear or a retinal detachment in the fellow eye of patients with unilateral giant retinal tears.

Serial chimerism analyses indicate that mixed haemopoietic chimerism influences the probability of graft rejection and disease recurrence following allogeneic stem cell transplantation (SCT) for severe aplastic anaemia (SAA): indication for routine assessment of chimerism post SCT for SAA

Ninety-one patients were studied serially for chimeric status following allogeneic stem cell transplantation (SCT) for severe aplastic anaemia (SAA) or Fanconi Anaemia (FA). Short tandem repeat polymerase chain reaction (STR-PCR) was used to stratify patients into five groups: (A) complete donor chimeras (n = 39), (B) transient mixed chimeras (n = 15) (C) stable mixed chimeras (n = 18), (D) progressive mixed chimeras (n = 14) (E) recipient chimeras with early graft rejection (n = 5). As serial sampling was not possible in Group E, serial chimerism results for 86 patients were available for analysis. The following factors were analysed for association with chimeric status: age, sex match, donor type, aetiology of aplasia, source of stem cells, number of cells engrafted, conditioning regimen, graft-versus-host disease (GvHD) prophylaxis, occurrence of acute and chronic GvHD and survival. Progressive mixed chimeras (PMCs) were at high risk of late graft rejection (n = 10, P <0.0001). Seven of these patients lost their graft during withdrawal of immunosuppressive therapy. STR-PCR indicated an inverse correlation between detection of recipient cells post-SCT and occurrence of acute GvHD (P = 0.008). PMC was a bad prognostic indicator of survival (P = 0.003). Monitoring of chimeric status during cyclosporin withdrawal may facilitate therapeutic intervention to prevent late graft rejection in patients transplanted for SAA.