Comparison of serum and whole-blood specimens for the detection of Candida DNA in critically ill, non-neutropenic patients

In contrast to the multitude of studies on fungal PCR assay methods, little work has been reported evaluating Candida PCR performance when using whole blood compared with serum in candidaemic patients. Here, a comparison of the performance of whole-blood and serum specimens using a set of real-time PCR Candida species assays is described. Specimens were collected prospectively from non-neutropenic adults who were recruited to a diagnostic clinical trial, the primary purpose of which was to verify the performance of the assays using serum; in all, 104 participants also had whole-blood specimens submitted for analysis in addition to the serum specimen. Of these participants, 10 had laboratory-confirmed candidaemia and 94 were categorized as being 'unlikely' to have invasive Candida infection. PCR results from the whole-blood specimens are presented here and compared with the results from serum specimens in this subgroup among whom both specimen types were obtained contemporaneously. All participants with candidaemia were PCR-positive from serum samples; however, only seven were PCR-positive from whole blood. All specimens from patients in the 'unlikely' category were PCR-negative in both types of specimen. Moreover, DNA extraction from serum required 1 h; extraction from whole blood required approximately 3 h. These data tentatively suggest that, overall, serum is an appropriate specimen for Candida PCR for detection of candidaemia in non-neutropenic adults.

Phagocytic and serum killing of capsulate and non-capsulate Bacteroides fragilis

The relative susceptibilities of capsulate and non- capsulate variants of Bacteroides fragilis to serum and phagocytic killing were investigated. The capsule of B. fragilis did not confer resistance to serum killing. Phagocytic killing of non- capsulate B. fragilis occurred at bacterial concentrations of 1 X 10(6) and 1 X 10(7) cfu/ml. Capsulate B. fragilis organisms were also phagocytosed and killed at a concentration of 1 X 10(6) cfu/ml, but phagocytosis and killing were impaired at a concentration of 1 X 10(7) cfu/ml.

Total serum IL-12 and IL-12p40, but not IL-12p70, are increased in the serum of older subjects; relationship to CD3(+)and NK subsets

Interleukin 12 (IL-12), a central cytokine acting on T and natural killer (NK) cells, directs proliferation of activated T lymphocytes towards a Th1 phenotype. The heterodimeric molecule IL-12p70, equates with IL-12 biological activity, while IL-12p40 may antagonize IL-12 and inhibit cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) generation in vitro. This study characterizes age-related changes in serum total IL-12, IL-12p70 and IL-12p40 relating them with CD3(+), NK and related subsets from subjects, aged 30-96 years. Total IL-12, IL-12p40 and the IL-12p40/IL-12p70 ratio, but not IL-12p70, increased significantly with age (P

CD69, CD25, and HLA-DR activation antigen expression on CD3+ lymphocytes and relationship to serum TNF-alpha, IFN-gamma, and sIL-2R levels in aging

Aging is associated with changes in lymphocyte subsets and unexplained HLA-DR upregulation on T-lymphocytes. We further investigated this activation, by measuring early (CD69), middle (CD25), and late (HLA-DR) T-lymphocyte activation markers on CD3+ lymphocytes, across subjects (20-100 years) together with serum tumor necrosis factor (TNF-alpha), interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma), and soluble interleukin-2 receptor (sIL-2R). HLA-DR was present as a CD3+ HLA-DR+ subset that constituted 8% of total lymphocytes, increased twofold with age and included CD4+, CD8+, and CD45RA+ phenotypes. HLA-DR was also expressed on a CD8+ CD57+ subset. The CD3+ CD25+ subset constituted 13% of lymphocytes, fell with age but was weakly associated with the CD3+ HLA-DR+ subset especially in older subjects. A small 3-5% CD3+ CD69+ subsets showed no age effect. Serum sIL-2R, TNF-alpha, but not IFN-gamma, were associated with CD3+ HLA-DR+ lymphocytes, TNF-alpha with CD8+ CD57+ count and sIL-2R and IFN-gamma with the CD3+ CD25+/CD3+ CD4+ ratio. The study confirms age-related upregulation of HLA-DR on CD3+ lymphocytes, shows some evidence for associated upregulation of CD25 on CD3+ cells in older subjects, and links serum TNF-alpha, IFN-gamma, and sIL2-R to T-lymphocyte activation.

Illness perception clusters at diagnosis predict psychological distress among women with breast cancer at 6 months post-diagnosis.

OBJECTIVE:

This study aimed to examine the extent to which illness perceptions and coping strategies among women diagnosed with breast cancer explain psychological distress at diagnosis and at 6?months post diagnosis relative to demographic and illness-related variables.

METHODS:

Women were recruited to the study shortly after diagnosis. A total of 90 women completed study materials (Illness Perception Questionnaire-Revised, the Cancer Coping Questionnaire and the Hospital Anxiety and Depression Scale) at time 1. The same questionnaires were sent approximately 6?months later to those who had consented at time 1, and completed questionnaires were returned by 72 women.

RESULTS:

Cluster analysis was used to identify groups of respondents who reported a similar profile of illness perception scores. Regression analysis demonstrated that one of these clusters was more likely to experience psychological distress than the other both at diagnosis and at 6?months post diagnosis. Illness perception cluster membership and positive focus type coping were the most important and consistent predictors of lower psychological distress at diagnosis and at 6?months post diagnosis.

CONCLUSIONS:

Illness perceptions remained relatively stable over the study period, and therefore we are unable to clarify whether changes in illness cognitions are associated with a corresponding change in psychological symptoms. Future research should evaluate the impact on psychological distress of interventions specifically designed to modify illness cognitions among women with breast cancer.

Investigation of the Human Brain Metabolome to Identify Potential Markers for Early Diagnosis and Therapeutic Targets of Alzheimer’s Disease

A study combining high resolution mass spectrometry (liquid chromatography-quadrupole time-of-flight-mass spectrometry, UPLC-QTof-MS) and chemometrics for the analysis of post-mortem brain tissue from subjects with Alzheimer’s disease (AD) (n = 15) and healthy age-matched controls (n = 15) was undertaken. The huge potential of this metabolomics approach for distinguishing AD cases is underlined by the correct prediction of disease status in 94–97% of cases. Predictive power was confirmed in a blind test set of 60 samples, reaching 100% diagnostic accuracy. The approach also indicated compounds significantly altered in concentration following the onset of human AD. Using orthogonal partial least-squares discriminant analysis (OPLS-DA), a multivariate model was created for both modes of acquisition explaining the maximum amount of variation between sample groups (Positive Mode-R2 = 97%; Q2 = 93%; root mean squared error of validation (RMSEV) = 13%; Negative Mode-R2 = 99%; Q2 = 92%; RMSEV = 15%). In brain extracts, 1264 and 1457 ions of interest were detected for the different modes of acquisition (positive and negative, respectively). Incorporation of gender into the model increased predictive accuracy and decreased RMSEV values. High resolution UPLC-QTof-MS has not previously been employed to biochemically profile post-mortem brain tissue, and the novel methods described and validated herein prove its potential for making new discoveries related to the etiology, pathophysiology, and treatment of degenerative brain disorders.

Availability of stage at diagnosis, cancer treatment delay and compliance with cancer guidelines as cancer registry indicators for cancer care in Europe:Results of EUROCHIP-3 survey

EUROCHIP (European Cancer Health Indicators Project) focuses on understanding inequalities in the cancer burden, care and survival by the indicators "stage at diagnosis," "cancer treatment delay" and "compliance with cancer guidelines" as the most important indicators. Our study aims at providing insight in whether cancer registries collect well-defined variables to determine these indicators in a comparative way. Eighty-six general European population-based cancer registries (PBCR) from 32 countries responded to the questionnaire, which was developed by EUROCHIP in collaboration with ENCR (European Network of Cancer Registries) and EUROCOURSE. Only 15% of all the PBCR in EU had all three indicators available. The indicator "stage at diagnosis" was gathered for at least one cancer site by 81% (using TNM in 39%). Variables for the indicator "cancer treatment delay" were collected by 37%. Availability of type of treatment (30%), surgery date (36%), starting date of radiotherapy (26%) and starting date of chemotherapy (23%) resulted in 15% of the PBCRs to be able to gather the indicator "compliance to guidelines". Lack of data source access and qualified staff were the major reasons for not collecting all the variables. In conclusion, based on self-reporting, a few of the participating PBCRs had data available which could be used for clinical audits, evaluation of cancer care projects, survival and for monitoring national cancer control strategies. Extra efforts should be made to improve this very efficient tool to compare cancer burden and the effects of the national cancer plans over Europe and to learn from each other. © 2012 UICC.

Human aflatoxin albumin adducts quantitatively compared by ELISA, HPLC with fluorescence detection, and HPLC with isotope dilution mass spectrometry

Essential to the conduct of epidemiologic studies examining aflatoxin exposure and the risk of heptocellular carcinoma, impaired growth, and acute toxicity has been the development of quantitative biomarkers of exposure to aflatoxins, particularly aflatoxin B-1. In this study, identical serum sample sets were analyzed for aflatoxin-albumin adducts by ELISA, high-performance liquid chromatography (HPLC) with fluorescence detection (HPLC-f), and HPLC with isotope dilution mass spectrometry (IDMS). The human samples analyzed were from an acute aflatoxicosis outbreak in Kenya in 2004 (n = 102) and the measured values ranged from 0.018 to 67.0, nondetectable to 13.6, and 0.002 to 17.7 ng/mg albumin for the respective methods. The Deming regression slopes for the HPLC-f and ELISA concentrations as a function of the IDMS concentrations were 0.71 (r(2) = 0.95) and 3.3 (r(2) = 0.96), respectively. When the samples were classified as cases or controls, based on clinical diagnosis, all methods were predictive of outcome (P < 0.01). Further, to evaluate assay precision, duplicate samples were prepared at three levels by dilution of an exposed human sample and were analyzed on three separate days. Excluding one assay value by ELISA and one assay by HPLC-f, the overall relative SD were 8.7%, 10.5%, and 9.4% for IDMS, HPLC-f, and ELISA, respectively. IDMS was the most sensitive technique and HPLC-f was the least sensitive method. Overall, this study shows an excellent correlation between three independent methodologies conducted in different laboratories and supports the validation of these technologies for assessment of human exposure to this environmental toxin and carcinogen.

Complement factor H is a serum-binding protein for adrenomedullin, and the resulting complex modulates the bioactivities of both partners

Adrenomedullin (AM) is an important regulatory peptide involved in both physiological and pathological states. We have previously demonstrated the existence of a specific AM-binding protein (AMBP-1) in human plasma. In the present study, we developed a nonradioactive ligand blotting assay, which, together with high pressure liquid chromatography/SDS-polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis purification techniques, allowed us to isolate AMBP-1 to homogeneity. The purified protein was identified as human complement factor H. We show that AM/factor H interaction interferes with the established methodology for quantification of circulating AM. Our data suggest that this routine procedure does not take into account the AM bound to its binding protein. In addition, we show that factor H affects AM in vitro functions. It enhances AM-mediated induction of cAMP in fibroblasts, augments the AM-mediated growth of a cancer cell line, and suppresses the bactericidal capability of AM on Escherichia coli. Reciprocally, AM influences the complement regulatory function of factor H by enhancing the cleavage of C3b via factor I. In summary, we report on a potentially new regulatory mechanism of AM biology, the influence of factor H on radioimmunoassay quantification of AM, and the possible involvement of AM as a regulator of the complement cascade.

Molecular diagnosis of the myeloproliferative neoplasms: UK guidelines for the detection of JAK2 V617F and other relevant mutations

Molecular genetic assays for the detection of the JAK2 V617F (c.1849G>T) and other pathogenetic mutations within JAK2 exon 12 and MPL exon 10 are part of the routine diagnostic workup for patients presenting with erythrocytosis, thrombocytosis or otherwise suspected to have a myeloproliferative neoplasm. A wide choice of techniques are available for the detection of these mutations, leading to potential difficulties for clinical laboratories in deciding upon the most appropriate assay, which can lead to problems with inter-laboratory standardization. Here, we discuss the most important issues for a clinical diagnostic laboratory in choosing a technique, particularly for detection of the JAK2 V617F mutation at diagnosis. The JAK2 V617F detection assay should be both specific and sensitive enough to detect a mutant allele burden as low as 13%. Indeed, the use of sensitive assays increases the detection rate of the JAK2 V617F mutation within myeloproliferative neoplasms. Given their diagnostic relevance, it is also beneficial and relatively straightforward to screen JAK2 V617F negative patients for JAK2 exon 12 mutations (in the case of erythrocytosis) or MPL exon 10 mutations (thrombocytosis or myelofibrosis) using appropriate assays. Molecular results should be considered in the context of clinical findings and other haematological or laboratory results.

Guideline for the diagnosis and management of myelofibrosis

The guideline group regarding the diagnosis and management of myelofibrosis was selected to be representative of UK-based medical experts, together with a contribution from a single expert from the USA. MEDLINE and EMBASE were searched systematically for publications in English from 1966 until August 2011 using a variety of key words. The writing group produced the draft guideline, which was subsequently revised by consensus of the members of the General Haematology and Haemato-oncology Task Forces of the British Committee for Standards in Haematology (BCSH). The guideline was then reviewed by a sounding board of UK haematologists, the BCSH and the British Society for Haematology Committee and comments incorporated where appropriate. The criteria used to state levels and grades of evidence are as outlined in the Procedure for Guidelines commissioned by the BCSH; the 'GRADE' system was used to score strength and quality of evidence. The objective of this guideline is to provide healthcare professionals with clear guidance on the investigation and management of primary myelofibrosis, as well as post-polycythaemic myelofibrosis (post-PV MF) and post-thrombocythemic myelofibrosis (post-ET MF) in both adult and paediatric patients.

Fundus autofluorescence in the diagnosis of cystoid macular oedema

Aim: To determine the sensitivity and specificity of the non-invasive imaging technique, fundus autofluorescence (AF), in the diagnosis of cystoid macular oedema (CMO), using fluorescein angiography as the reference standard. Design: Retrospective, consecutive, observational case series. Methods: Ninety-six consecutive patients with CMO suspected clinically were selected from the AF database of the Retina Unit, Ophthalmology Department, Grampian University Hospitals-NHS Trust, between August 2004 and June 2006. Only patients in whom CMO was secondary to (1) cataract extraction, (2) inherited retinopathies, (3) inflammatory eye disease or (4) idiopathic cases were included in this study. Only patients in whom AF images had been performed within 2 weeks of FFA and, when obtained following FFA, there was a minimum gap of 4 days ("washing out" period), were considered eligible for this study. A total of 34 eyes from 34 patients were eligible and were included in this study. FFA was used as the reference test to confirm the presence of CMO, and, based on fluorescein angiography (FFA), CMO was graded as either mild or florid. AF images were examined in a masked fashion for the presence or absence of CMO. The sensitivity and specificity of AF in detecting CMO were then calculated. Results: CMO was seen on AF imaging as round or oval areas at the fovea with an AF signal similar to that of background levels. At this site (fovea), the AF signal is usually reduced compared with background, due to the blockage caused by luteal pigment. The diagnosis of CMO based on AF imaging had 81% sensitivity and 69% specificity when compared with the reference standard FFA. Based on the FFA, there were 12 cases of florid CMO and eight of mild CMO. Of the former, CMO was detected with AF imaging in 100% (12/12 eyes), and of the latter, in 50% (4/8 eyes). Conclusions: AF imaging can be used as a rapid, non-invasive technique in the diagnosis of CMO.