The investigation of the primary response of the flash visual evoked response

The topographical distribution of the early components of the flash visual evoked response (VER) were investigated using a twenty channel brain mapping system. Thirty subjects, ranging in age from 21 to 84 years, had flash VERs recorded using the standard 10-20 electrode system to a balanced non-cephalic reference. The subjects were divided into three age groups: a young group, a middle group and an older group. The P2 component (positive component around 100-120 msec) of the flash VER was recorded consistently over the occipital region throughout the age range, as was a frontal negative component (N120) of about the same latency. Only the young age group had this single negative component on the frontage channels, whilst the middle age group showed an additional negative component at around 75 msec (N75). Neither group had a recordable P1 component (positive component around 60-75 msec) over the occipital region. The older age group showed both P1 and P2 components over the occipital region with the distribution of the P1 component being more widespread anteriorly. The frontal channels showed both the negative N75 and the later N120 components. The frontal negative components were shown not to be related to the electroretinogram or the balanced non-cephalic reference, but were affected by the type of stimulation. Responses recorded to both pattern reversal and onset/offset stimulation did not show the frontal negative potentials seen with flash stimulation. It was shown that the P1 component is more readily recordable in the elderly and is preceded during middle age by the development of a frontal negative component at around the same latency. The changing morphology of the negative activity in the frontal region across the age range suggests that the use of an Fz reference would produce an artificial P1 component in the middle age group and an enhancement of this component in the elderly, as well as enhance the P2 component in all ages.

Hantavirus glycoprotein GN in virion assembly and regulation of interferon response

Hantaviruses have a tri-segmented negative-stranded RNA genome. The S segment encodes the nucleocapsid protein (N), M segment two glycoproteins, Gn and Gc, and the L segment the RNA polymerase. Gn and Gc are co-translationally cleaved from a precursor and targeted to the cis-Golgi compartment. The Gn glycoprotein consists of an external domain, a transmembrane domain and a C-terminal cytoplasmic domain. In addition, the S segment of some hantaviruses, including Tula and Puumala virus, have an open reading frame (ORF) encoding a nonstructural potein NSs that can function as a weak interferon antagonist. The mechanisms of hantavirus-induced pathogenesis are not fully understood but it is known that both hemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome (HFRS) and hantavirus (cardio) pulmonary syndrome (HCPS) share various features such as increased capillary permeability, thrombocytopenia and upregulation of TNF-. Several hantaviruses have been reported to induce programmed cell death (apoptosis), such as TULV-infected Vero E6 cells which is known to be defective in interferon signaling. Recently reports describing properties of the hantavirus Gn cytoplasmic tail (Gn-CT) have appeared. The Gn-CT of hantaviruses contains animmunoreceptor tyrosine-based activation motif (ITAM) which directs receptor signaling in immune and endothelial cells; and contain highly conserved classical zinc finger domains which may have a role in the interaction with N protein. More functions of Gn protein have been discovered, but much still remains unknown. Our aim was to study the functions of Gn protein from several aspects: synthesis, degradation and interaction with N protein. Gn protein was reported to inhibit interferon induction and amplication. For this reason, we also carried out projects studying the mechanisms of IFN induction and evasion by hantavirus. We first showed degradation and aggresome formation of the Gn-CT of the apathogenic TULV. It was reported earlier that the degradation of Gn-CT is related to the pathogenicity of hantavirus. We found that the Gn-CT of the apathogenic hantaviruses (TULV, Prospect Hill virus) was degraded through the ubiquitin-proteasome pathway, and TULV Gn-CT formed aggresomes upon treatment with proteasomal inhibitor. Thus the results suggest that degradation and aggregation of the Gn-CT may be a general property of most hantaviruses, unrelated to pathogenicity. Second, we investigated the interaction of TULV N protein and the TULV Gn-CT. The Gn protein is located on the Golgi membrane and its interaction with N protein has been thought to determine the cargo of the hantaviral ribonucleoprotein which is an important step in virus assembly, but direct evidence has not been reported. We found that TULV Gn-CT fused with GST tag expressed in bacteria can pull-down the N protein expressed in mammalian cells; a mutagenesis assay was carried out, in which we found that the zinc finger motif in Gn-CT and RNA-binding motif in N protein are indispensable for the interaction. For the study of mechanisms of IFN induction and evasion by Old World hantavirus, we found that Old World hantaviruses do not produce detectable amounts of dsRNA in infected cells and the 5 -termini of their genomic RNAs are monophosphorylated. DsRNA and tri-phosphorylated RNA are considered to be critical activators of innate immnity response by interacting with PRRs (pattern recognition receptors). We examined systematically the 5´-termini of hantavirus genomic RNAs and the dsRNA production by different species of hantaviruses. We found that no detectable dsRNA was produced in cells infected by the two groups of the old world hantaviruses: Seoul, Dobrava, Saaremaa, Puumala and Tula. We also found that the genomic RNAs of these Old World hantaviruses carry 5´-monophosphate and are unable to trigger interferon induction. The antiviral response is mainly mediated by alpha/beta interferon. Recently the glycoproteins of the pathogenic hantaviruses Sin Nombre and New York-1 viruses were reported to regulate cellular interferon. We found that Gn-CT can inhibit the induction of IFN activation through Toll-like receptor (TLR) and retinoic acid-inducible gene I-like RNA helicases (RLH) pathway and that the inhibition target lies at the level of TANK-binding kinase 1 (TBK-1)/ IKK epislon complex and myeloid differentiation primary response gene (88) (MyD88) / interferon regulatory factor 7 (IRF-7) complex.

Canine keratinocytes upregulate type I interferons and proinflammatory cytokines in response to poly(dA:dT) but not to canine papillomavirus.

Papillomaviruses (PV) are double stranded (ds) DNA viruses that infect epithelial cells within the skin or mucosa, most often causing benign neoplasms that spontaneously regress. The immune system plays a key role in the defense against PVs. Since these viruses infect keratinocytes, we wanted to investigate the role of the keratinocyte in initiating an immune response to canine papillomavirus-2 (CPV-2) in the dog. Keratinocytes express a variety of pattern recognition receptors (PRR) to distinguish different cutaneous pathogens and initiate an immune response. We examined the mRNA expression patterns for several recently described cytosolic nucleic acid sensing PRRs in canine monolayer keratinocyte cultures using quantitative reverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction. Unstimulated normal cells were found to express mRNA for melanoma differentiation associated gene 5 (MDA5), retinoic acid-inducible gene I (RIG-I), DNA-dependent activation of interferon regulatory factors, leucine rich repeat flightless interacting protein 1, and interferon inducible gene 16 (IFI16), as well as their adaptor molecules myeloid differentiation primary response gene 88, interferon-β promoter stimulator 1, and endoplasmic reticulum-resident transmembrane protein stimulator of interferon genes. When stimulated with synthetic dsDNA [poly(dA:dT)] or dsRNA [poly(I:C)], keratinocytes responded with increased mRNA expression levels for interleukin-6, tumor necrosis factor-α, interferon-β, RIG-I, IFI16, and MDA5. There was no detectable increase in mRNA expression, however, in keratinocytes infected with CPV-2. Furthermore, CPV-2-infected keratinocytes stimulated with poly(dA:dT) and poly(I:C) showed similar mRNA expression levels for these gene products when compared with expression levels in uninfected cells. These results suggest that although canine keratinocytes contain functional PRRs that can recognize and respond to dsDNA and dsRNA ligands, they do not appear to recognize or initiate a similar response to CPV-2.

Defining response to anti-VEGF therapies in neovascular AMD

The introduction of anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (anti-VEGF) has made significant impact on the reduction of the visual loss due to neovascular age-related macular degeneration (n-AMD). There are significant inter-individual differences in response to an anti-VEGF agent, made more complex by the availability of multiple anti-VEGF agents with different molecular configurations. The response to anti-VEGF therapy have been found to be dependent on a variety of factors including patient’s age, lesion characteristics, lesion duration, baseline visual acuity (VA) and the presence of particular genotype risk alleles. Furthermore, a proportion of eyes with n-AMD show a decline in acuity or morphology, despite therapy or require very frequent re-treatment. There is currently no consensus as to how to classify optimal response, or lack of it, with these therapies. There is, in particular, confusion over terms such as ‘responder status’ after treatment for n-AMD, ‘tachyphylaxis’ and ‘recalcitrant’ n-AMD. This document aims to provide a consensus on definition/categorisation of the response of n-AMD to anti-VEGF therapies and on the time points at which response to treatment should be determined. Primary response is best determined at 1 month following the last initiation dose, while maintained treatment (secondary) response is determined any time after the 4th visit. In a particular eye, secondary responses do not mirror and cannot be predicted from that in the primary phase. Morphological and functional responses to anti-VEGF treatments, do not necessarily correlate, and may be dissociated in an individual eye. Furthermore, there is a ceiling effect that can negate the currently used functional metrics such as >5 letters improvement when the baseline VA is good (ETDRS>70 letters). It is therefore important to use a combination of both the parameters in determining the response.The following are proposed definitions: optimal (good) response is defined as when there is resolution of fluid (intraretinal fluid; IRF, subretinal fluid; SRF and retinal thickening), and/or improvement of >5 letters, subject to the ceiling effect of good starting VA. Poor response is defined as <25% reduction from the baseline in the central retinal thickness (CRT), with persistent or new IRF, SRF or minimal or change in VA (that is, change in VA of 0+4 letters). Non-response is defined as an increase in fluid (IRF, SRF and CRT), or increasing haemorrhage compared with the baseline and/or loss of >5 letters compared with the baseline or best corrected vision subsequently. Poor or non-response to anti-VEGF may be due to clinical factors including suboptimal dosing than that required by a particular patient, increased dosing intervals, treatment initiation when disease is already at an advanced or chronic stage), cellular mechanisms, lesion type, genetic variation and potential tachyphylaxis); non-clinical factors including poor access to clinics or delayed appointments may also result in poor treatment outcomes. In eyes classified as good responders, treatment should be continued with the same agent when disease activity is present or reactivation occurs following temporary dose holding. In eyes that show partial response, treatment may be continued, although re-evaluation with further imaging may be required to exclude confounding factors. Where there is persistent, unchanging accumulated fluid following three consecutive injections at monthly intervals, treatment may be withheld temporarily, but recommenced with the same or alternative anti-VEGF if the fluid subsequently increases (lesion considered active). Poor or non-response to anti-VEGF treatments requires re-evaluation of diagnosis and if necessary switch to alternative therapies including other anti-VEGF agents and/or with photodynamic therapy (PDT). Idiopathic polypoidal choroidopathy may require treatment with PDT monotherapy or combination with anti-VEGF. A committee comprised of retinal specialists with experience of managing patients with n-AMD similar to that which developed the Royal College of Ophthalmologists Guidelines to Ranibizumab was assembled. Individual aspects of the guidelines were proposed by the committee lead (WMA) based on relevant reference to published evidence base following a search of Medline and circulated to all committee members for discussion before approval or modification. Each draft was modified according to feedback from committee members until unanimous approval was obtained in the final draft. A system for categorising the range of responsiveness of n-AMD lesions to anti-VEGF therapy is proposed. The proposal is based primarily on morphological criteria but functional criteria have been included. Recommendations have been made on when to consider discontinuation of therapy either because of success or futility. These guidelines should help clinical decision-making and may prevent over and/or undertreatment with anti-VEGF therapy.

Hormonal carcinogenesis in breast cancer : cellular and molecular studies of malignant progression

We have established and characterized a series of variant cell lines in which to identify the critical factors associated with E2-induced malignant progression, and the acquisition to tamoxifen resistance in human breast cancer. Sublines of the hormone-dependent MCF-7 cell line (MCF7/MIII and MCF7/LCC1) form stable, invasive, estrogen independent tumors in the mammary fat pads of ovariectomized athymic nude mice. These cells retain expression of both estrogen (ER) and progesterone receptors (PGR), but retain sensitivity to each of the major structural classes of antiestrogens. The tamoxifen-resistant MCF7/LCC2 cells retain sensitivity to the inhibitory effects of the steroidal antiestrogen ICI 182780. By comparing the parental hormone-dependent and variant hormone-independent cells, we have demonstrated an altered expression of some estrogen regulated genes (PGR, pS2, cathepsin D) in the hormone-independent variants. Other genes remain normally estrogen regulated (ER, laminin receptor, EGF-receptor). These data strongly implicate the altered regulation of a specific subset or network of estrogen regulated genes in the malignant progression of human breast cancer. Some of the primary response genes in this network may exhibit dose-response and induction kinetics similar to pS2, which is constitutively upregulated in the MCF7/MIII, MCF7/LCC1 and MCF7/LCC2 cells.

Protecting World Heritage sites from the adverse impacts of climate change : obligations for States Parties to the World Heritage Convention

Through its mandate to protect and preserve places of ‘outstanding universal value’, the World Heritage Convention provides an unlikely yet effective tool in global efforts to mitigate climate change. The practical efficacy of the Strategy to Assist States Parties to Implement Appropriate Management Responses (‘the Strategy’), which represents the World Heritage Committee’s primary response to the threats posed by climate change to World Heritage sites, is undermined by its weak stance on mitigation. This paper argues that the World Heritage Convention imposes stronger obligations on States Parties than those contained in the Strategy, including a duty on States Parties to commit to ‘deep cuts’ in greenhouse gas emissions. In order to ensure the continuing success of the World Heritage Convention States Parties must engage in extensive mitigation strategies without delay.

Methionine down-regulates TLR4/MyD88/NF-kappa B signalling in osteoclast precursors to reduce bone loss during osteoporosis

Background and PurposeStudies have demonstrated that a moderate intake of amino acids is associated with development of bone health. Methionine, a sulphur-containing essential amino acid, has been largely implicated for improving cartilage formation, however its physiological significance on bone integrity and functionality have not been elucidated. We investigated whether methionine can prevent osteoporotic bone loss. Experimental ApproachThe anti-resorptive effect of methionine, (250mgkg(-1) body wt administered in drinking water for 10 weeks), was evaluated in ovariectomized (OVX) rats by monitoring changes in bone turnover, formation of osteoclasts from blood-derived mononuclear cells and changes in the synthesis of pro-osteoclastogenic cytokines. Key resultsMethionine improved bone density and significantly decreased the degree of osteoclast development from blood mononuclear cells in OVX rats, as indicated by decreased production of osteoclast markers tartarate resistant acid phosphatase b (TRAP5b) and MIP-1. siRNA-mediated knockdown of myeloid differentiation primary response 88 MyD88], a signalling molecule in the toll-like receptor (TLR) signalling cascade, abolished the synthesis of both TRAP5b and MIP-1 in developing osteoclasts. Methionine supplementation disrupted osteoclast development by inhibiting TLR-4/MyD88/NF-B pathway. Conclusions and ImplicationsTLR-4/MyD88/NF-B signalling pathway is integral for osteoclast development and this is down-regulated in osteoporotic system on methionine treatment. Methionine treatment could be beneficial for the treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis.

Effects of prior heavy exercise on V(over dot)O-2 kinetics during heavy exercise are related to changes in muscle activity

Burnley, M., Doust, J.H., Ball, D. and Jones, A.M. (2002) Effects of prior heavy exercise on VO2 kinetics during heavy exercise are related to changes in muscle activity. Journal of Applied Physiology 93, 167-174. RAE2008

Functional metagenomic analysis of the human gut microbiome to identify novel salt tolerance genes

The ability to adapt to and respond to increases in external osmolarity is an important characteristic that enables bacteria to survive and proliferate in different environmental niches. When challenged with increased osmolarity, due to sodium chloride (NaCl) for example, bacteria elicit a phased response; firstly via uptake of potassium (K+), which is known as the primary response. This primary response is followed by the secondary response which is characterised by the synthesis or uptake of compatible solutes (osmoprotectants). The overall osmotic stress response is much broader however, involving many diverse cellular systems and processes. These ancillary mechanisms are arguably more interesting and give a more complete view of the osmotic stress response. The aim of this thesis was to identify novel genetic loci from the human gut microbiota that confer increased tolerance to osmotic stress using a functional metagenomic approach. Functional metagenomics is a powerful tool that enables the identification of novel genes from as yet uncultured bacteria from diverse environments through cloning, heterologous expression and phenotypic identification of a desired trait. Functional metagenomics does not rely on any previous sequence information to known genes and can therefore enable the discovery of completely novel genes and assign functions to new or known genes. Using a functional metagenomic approach, we have assigned a novel function to previously annotated genes; murB, mazG and galE, as well as a putative brp/blh family beta-carotene 15,15’-monooxygenase. Finally, we report the identification of a completely novel salt tolerance determinant with no current known homologues in the databases. Overall the genes identified originate from diverse taxonomic and phylogenetic groups commonly found in the human gastrointestinal (GI) tract, such as Collinsella and Eggerthella, Akkermansia and Bacteroides from the phyla Actinobacteria, Verrucomicrobia and Bacteroidetes, respectively. In addition, a number of the genes appear to have been acquired via lateral gene transfer and/or encoded on a prophage. To our knowledge, this thesis represents the first investigation to identify novel genes from the human gut microbiota involved in the bacterial osmotic stress response.

CD4+ CD25+ regulatory T cells control T helper cell type 1 responses to foreign antigens induced by mature dendritic cells in vivo.

Recent evidence suggests that in addition to their well known stimulatory properties, dendritic cells (DCs) may play a major role in peripheral tolerance. It is still unclear whether a distinct subtype or activation status of DC exists that promotes the differentiation of suppressor rather than effector T cells from naive precursors. In this work, we tested whether the naturally occurring CD4+ CD25+ regulatory T cells (Treg) may control immune responses induced by DCs in vivo. We characterized the immune response induced by adoptive transfer of antigen-pulsed mature DCs into mice depleted or not of CD25+ cells. We found that the development of major histocompatibility complex class I and II-restricted interferon gamma-producing cells was consistently enhanced in the absence of Treg. By contrast, T helper cell (Th)2 priming was down-regulated in the same conditions. This regulation was independent of interleukin 10 production by DCs. Of note, splenic DCs incubated in vitro with Toll-like receptor ligands (lipopolysaccharide or CpG) activated immune responses that remained sensitive to Treg function. Our data further show that mature DCs induced higher cytotoxic activity in CD25-depleted recipients as compared with untreated hosts. We conclude that Treg naturally exert a negative feedback mechanism on Th1-type responses induced by mature DCs in vivo.

The effect of prenatal or early postnatal irradiation on the production of anti-arsonate antibodies and Cross-reactive idiotypes

Preliminary studies on the long-term effects of prenatal and early postnatal irradiation on the immune response to arsonate were performed using A/J mice. Pregnant mice were irradiated (0·5 Gy, X-rays) or sham-irradiated on a single occasion during gestation (between day 5 and 18 post-conception). Alternatively, newborn mice received the same treatment between day 2 and 7 after birth. Mice were immunized with keyhole limpet haemocyanin-arsonate (KLH-Ars) in adjuvant from 2 months after birth. The levels of specific antibodies to arsonate (anti-Ars) were measured by radioimmunoassay. In addition, the Ars-related cross-reactive idiotype (CRIA) was measured by the haemagglutination technique. In the primary response the titre of anti-Ars was reduced in animals that had been irradiated between day 12 and 15 of gestation. In the second response, in contrast, they had increased levels of anti-Ars. After immunization with KLH-Ars, high levels of CRIA were observed in all groups. However, in mice irradiated 18-20 days after conception the level of CRIA was often much higher than the level of anti-Ars, indicating that a large proportion of the CRIA-positive molecules were not specific for Ars. Thus, in this particular case, some specificity of the immune response was lost after irradiation. The expression of recurrent idiotypes may be a sensitive indicator of immunological perturbations after irradiation. © 1988 Informa UK Ltd All rights reserved: reproduction in whole or part not permitted.

Uric acid is a danger signal activating NALP3 inflammasome in lung injury inflammation and fibrosis.

RATIONALE: Lung injury leads to pulmonary inflammation and fibrosis through myeloid differentiation primary response gene 88 (MyD88) and the IL-1 receptor 1 (IL-1R1) signaling pathway. The molecular mechanisms by which lung injury triggers IL-1beta production, inflammation, and fibrosis remain poorly understood. OBJECTIVES: To determine if lung injury depends on the NALP3 inflammasome and if bleomycin (BLM)-induced lung injury triggers local production of uric acid, thereby activating the NALP3 inflammasome in the lung. Methods: Inflammation upon BLM administration was evaluated in vivo in inflammasome-deficient mice. Pulmonary uric acid accumulation, inflammation, and fibrosis were analyzed in mice treated with the inhibitor of uric acid synthesis or with uricase, which degrades uric acid. MEASUREMENTS AND MAIN RESULTS: Lung injury depends on the NALP3 inflammasome, which is triggered by uric acid locally produced in the lung upon BLM-induced DNA damage and degradation. Reduction of uric acid levels using the inhibitor of uric acid synthesis allopurinol or uricase leads to a decrease in BLM-induced IL-1beta production, lung inflammation, repair, and fibrosis. Local administration of exogenous uric acid crystals recapitulates lung inflammation and repair, which depend on the NALP3 inflammasome, MyD88, and IL-1R1 pathways and Toll-like receptor (TLR)2 and TLR4 for optimal inflammation but are independent of the IL-18 receptor. CONCLUSIONS: Uric acid released from injured cells constitutes a major endogenous danger signal that activates the NALP3 inflammasome, leading to IL-1beta production. Reducing uric acid tissue levels represents a novel therapeutic approach to control IL-1beta production and chronic inflammatory lung pathology.