482 resultados para ATOPIC-DERMATITIS


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Epidemiological data on snoring from preschool children are scarce, although habitual snoring (snoring on almost all nights) has been associated with poor long-term outcomes. In a population survey of 6,811 children aged 1-4 yrs (from Leicestershire, UK) the present authors determined prevalence, severity and risk factors for snoring, especially habitual snoring. In 59.7% of the children, parents reported snoring in the previous 12 months, including 7.9% with habitual snoring and 0.9% with habitual snoring and sleep disturbance. Prevalence of habitual snoring increased with age from 6.6% in 1-yr-olds to 13.0% in 4-yr-olds. Habitual snoring was associated with: one and both parents smoking (adjusted odds ratio (OR) 1.46 and 2.09, respectively); road traffic (OR 1.23); single parent (OR 1.60); and in White but not South Asian children, socioeconomic deprivation (OR 1.25 and 2.03 for middle and upper thirds of Townsend score, respectively). Respiratory tract symptoms related to atopic disorders and to respiratory infections were strongly associated with snoring; however, body mass index was not. In conclusion, habitual snoring is common in preschool children with one-third of cases attributable to avoidable risk factors. The strong association with atopic disorders, viral infections and environmental exposures suggests a complex aetiology, based on a general vulnerability of the respiratory tract.

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BACKGROUND: Epidemiological data for south Asian children in the United Kingdom are contradictory, showing a lower prevalence of wheeze, but a higher rate of medical consultations and admissions for asthma compared with white children. These studies have not distinguished different asthma phenotypes or controlled for varying environmental exposures. OBJECTIVE: To compare the prevalence of wheeze and related health-service use in south Asian and white pre-schoolchildren in the United Kingdom, taking into account wheeze phenotype (viral and multiple wheeze) and environmental exposures. METHODS: A postal questionnaire was completed by parents of a population-based sample of 4366 white and 1714 south Asian children aged 1-4 years in Leicestershire, UK. Children were classified as having viral wheeze or multiple trigger wheeze. RESULTS: The prevalence of current wheeze was 35.6% in white and 25.5% in south Asian 1-year-olds (P<0.001), and 21.9% and 20.9%, respectively, in children aged 2-4 years. Odds ratios (ORs) (95% confidence interval) for multiple wheeze and for viral wheeze, comparing south Asian with white children, were 2.21 (1.19-4.09) and 1.43 (0.77-2.65) in 2-4-year-olds after controlling for socio-economic conditions, environmental exposures and family history. In 1-year-olds, the respective ORs for multiple and viral wheeze were 0.66 (0.47-0.92) and 0.81 (0.64-1.03). Reported GP consultation rates for wheeze and hospital admissions were greater in south Asian children aged 2-4 years, even after adjustment for severity, but the use of inhaled corticosteroids was lower. CONCLUSIONS: South Asian 2-4-year-olds are more likely than white children to have multiple wheeze (a condition with many features of chronic atopic asthma), after taking into account ethnic differences in exposure to some environmental agents. Undertreatment with inhaled corticosteroids might partly explain their greater use of health services.

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We report the phenotype of mice with targeted disruption of the Trpv6 (Trpv6 KO) epithelial calcium channel. The mice exhibit disordered Ca(2+) homeostasis, including defective intestinal Ca(2+) absorption, increased urinary Ca(2+) excretion, decreased BMD, deficient weight gain, and reduced fertility. Although our Trpv6 KO affects the closely adjacent EphB6 gene, the phenotype reported here is not related to EphB6 dysfunction. INTRODUCTIOn: The mechanisms underlying intestinal Ca(2+) absorption are crucial for overall Ca(2+) homeostasis, because diet is the only source of all new Ca(2+) in the body. Trpv6 encodes a Ca(2+)-permeable cation channel responsible for vitamin D-dependent intestinal Ca(2+) absorption. Trpv6 is expressed in the intestine and also in the skin, placenta, kidney, and exocrine organs. MATERIALS AND METHODS: To determine the in vivo function of TRPV6, we generated mice with targeted disruption of the Trpv6 (Trpv6 KO) gene. RESULTS: Trpv6 KO mice are viable but exhibit disordered Ca(2+) homeostasis, including a 60% decrease in intestinal Ca(2+) absorption, deficient weight gain, decreased BMD, and reduced fertility. When kept on a regular (1% Ca(2+)) diet, Trpv6 KO mice have deficient intestinal Ca(2+) absorption, despite elevated levels of serum PTH (3.8-fold) and 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D (2.4-fold). They also have decreased urinary osmolality and increased Ca(2+) excretion. Their serum Ca(2+) is normal, but when challenged with a low (0.25%) Ca(2+) diet, Trpv6 KO mice fail to further increase serum PTH and vitamin D, ultimately developing hypocalcemia. Trpv6 KO mice have normal urinary deoxypyridinoline excretion, although exhibiting a 9.3% reduction in femoral mineral density at 2 months of age, which is not restored by treatment for 1 month with a high (2%) Ca(2+) "rescue" diet. In addition to their deranged Ca(2+) homeostasis, the skin of Trpv6 KO mice has fewer and thinner layers of stratum corneum, decreased total Ca(2+) content, and loss of the normal Ca(2+) gradient. Twenty percent of all Trpv6 KO animals develop alopecia and dermatitis. CONCLUSIONS: Trpv6 KO mice exhibit an array of abnormalities in multiple tissues/organs. At least some of these are caused by tissue-specific mechanisms. In addition, the kidneys and bones of Trpv6 KO mice do not respond to their elevated levels of PTH and 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D. These data indicate that the TRPV6 channel plays an important role in Ca(2+) homeostasis and in other tissues not directly involved in this process.

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In a number of diseases with eosinophilia, elevated interleukin (IL)-5 levels are detected in the peripheral blood and/or tissues. IL-5 plays an important role in regulating the production, differentiation, recruitment, activation, and survival of eosinophils. Therefore, neutralizing IL-5 by blocking antibodies seems a promising approach in the treatment of eosinophilic diseases. Clinical trials have demonstrated that anti-IL-5 therapy results in a rapid decrease in peripheral blood eosinophil numbers. Moreover, improvement of symptoms in patients with lymphocytic variants of hypereosinophilic syndromes, in eosinophilic esophagitis and chronic rhinitis with nasal polyposis has been observed. In contrast, in patients with bronchial asthma or atopic eczema, anti-IL-5 therapy showed only moderate or no clinical effects. Future studies will have to identify those eosinophilic diseases in which anti-IL-5 antibodies are effective, perhaps with the help of newly developed biomarkers.

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Perianal streptococcal dermatitis is a common disease. The typical clinical picture includes perianal erythema, pruritus, painful defaecation and bloody stools. The diagnosis is made by a swab taken from the affected skin with bacterial culture. Therapy consists of penicillin for 10 days. Screening for affected persons in contact with the patient is indicated because perianal streptococcal dermatitis is known to be highly contagious. Relapse is common and therefore follow-up visits are recommended. In case of relapse, a first or second generation cephalosporin may be considered.

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BACKGROUND: Continual surveillance based on patch test results has proved useful for the identification of contact allergy. OBJECTIVES: To provide a current view on the spectrum of contact allergy to important sensitizers across Europe. PATIENTS/METHODS: Clinical and patch test data of 19 793 patients patch tested in 2005/2006 in the 31 participating departments from 10 European countries (the European Surveillance System on Contact Allergies' (ESSCA) www.essca-dc.org) were descriptively analysed, aggregated to four European regions. RESULTS: Nickel sulfate remains the most common allergen with standardized prevalences ranging from 19.7% (central Europe) to 24.4% (southern Europe). While a number of allergens shows limited variation across the four regions, such as Myroxylon pereirae (5.3-6.8%), cobalt chloride (6.2-8.8%) or thiuram mix (1.7-2.4%), the differences observed with other allergens may hint on underlying differences in exposures, for example: dichromate 2.4% in the UK (west) versus 4.5-5.9% in the remaining EU regions, methylchloroisothiazolinone/methylisothiazolinone 4.1% in the South versus 2.1-2.7% in the remaining regions. CONCLUSIONS: Notwithstanding residual methodological variation (affecting at least some 'difficult' allergens) tackled by ongoing efforts for standardization, a comparative analysis as presented provides (i) a broad overview on contact allergy frequencies and (ii) interesting starting points for further, in-depth investigation.

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BACKGROUND: Exhaled nitric oxide (FENO) is a marker for allergic airway inflammation. We wondered whether in patients with intermittent allergic rhinitis only (i) natural pollen exposure and (ii) artificial pollen exposure by repeated nasal allergen provocations may lead to an elevation of FENO. METHODS: In two prospective studies, we compared the FENO of nonatopic controls with the FENO of nonasthmatic individuals with mild intermittent rhinitis to tree and/or grass pollen. Study I: 13 atopic individuals and seven controls had measurements of FENO, blood eosinophils and eosinophilic cationic protein (ECP) before, during and after pollen season. Study II: 16 atopic individuals and 12 controls had nasal allergen provocations on four following days out of pollen season, with daily measurements of FENO before, 2 and 6 h after provocation, and determination of blood eosinophils, ECP and FEV1 at baseline, on days 5 and 10-12. RESULTS: Natural pollen exposure (study I) caused a significant elevation of FENO in allergic individuals. Nasal allergen provocations (study II) did not elicit a statistically significant rise neither of FENO nor of blood eosinophils between baseline and day 5. However, a subgroup of four individuals with a rise of blood eosinophils during nasal allergen provocations showed also a rise of FENO. CONCLUSIONS: We suppose that in allergic rhinitis a concomitant reaction of the bronchial system is dependent on a strong local inflammation leading to a generalized immune stimulation.

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We encountered recently 3 cases with a histopathologic diagnosis of melanoma in situ on sun-damaged skin (male = 2, female = 1; median age: 59 years; range: 52-60 years). The diagnosis was based mainly on the finding of actinic elastosis in the dermis and increased number of melanocytes in the epidermis and was confirmed by strong positivity for Melan-A in single cells and in small nests ("pseudomelanocytic nests"), located at the dermoepidermal junction. Indeed, examination of slides stained with hematoxylin and eosin revealed the presence of marked hyperpigmentation and small nests of partially pigmented cells at the dermoepidermal junction, positive for Melan-A. The histologic and especially the immunohistochemical features were indistinguishable from those of melanoma in situ on chronic sun-damaged skin. In addition, a variably dense lichenoid inflammation was present. Clinicopathologic correlation, however, showed, in all patients, the presence of a lichenoid dermatitis (phototoxic reaction, 1 case; lichen planus pigmentosus, 1 case; and pigmented lichenoid keratosis, 1 case). Our cases clearly show the histopathologic pitfalls represented by lichenoid reactions on chronic sun-damaged skin. Immunohistochemical investigations, especially if performed with Melan-A alone, may lead to confusing and potentially disastrous results. The unexpected staining pattern of Melan-A in cases like ours raises concern about the utility of this antibody in the setting of a lichenoid tissue reaction on chronic sun-damaged skin. It should be underlined that pigmented lesions represent a paradigmatic example of how immunohistochemical results should be interpreted carefully and always in conjunction with histologic and clinical features.

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The role of platelets in hemostasis is to produce a plug to arrest bleeding. During thrombocytopenia, spontaneous bleeding is seen in some patients but not in others; the reason for this is unknown. Here, we subjected thrombocytopenic mice to models of dermatitis, stroke, and lung inflammation. The mice showed massive hemorrhage that was limited to the area of inflammation and was not observed in uninflamed thrombocytopenic mice. Endotoxin-induced lung inflammation during thrombocytopenia triggered substantial intra-alveolar hemorrhage leading to profound anemia and respiratory distress. By imaging the cutaneous Arthus reaction through a skin window, we observed in real time the loss of vascular integrity and the kinetics of skin hemorrhage in thrombocytopenic mice. Bleeding-observed mostly from venules-occurred as early as 20 minutes after challenge, pointing to a continuous need for platelets to maintain vascular integrity in inflamed microcirculation. Inflammatory hemorrhage was not seen in genetically engineered mice lacking major platelet adhesion receptors or their activators (alphaIIbbeta3, glycoprotein Ibalpha [GPIbalpha], GPVI, and calcium and diacylglycerol-regulated guanine nucleotide exchange factor I [CalDAG-GEFI]), thus indicating that firm platelet adhesion was not necessary for their supporting role. While platelets were previously shown to promote endothelial activation and recruitment of inflammatory cells, they also appear indispensable to maintain vascular integrity in inflamed tissue. Based on our observations, we propose that inflammation may cause life-threatening hemorrhage during thrombocytopenia.

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Insect bite hypersensitivity (IBH) is an IgE-mediated allergic dermatitis of horses caused by bites of insects such as Culicoides or Simulium spp. The aim of the present study was to compare the IgE-binding pattern of sera of IBH-affected horses to Culicoides nubeculosus and Simulium vittatum salivary gland extracts (SGE). Individual IgE responses to proteins of S. vittatum and C. nubeculosus SGEs were evaluated in 15 IBH-affected and three healthy horses on immunoblots. Fourteen out of the 15 IBH-affected but none of the healthy horses showed individual IgE binding patterns to seven and six main protein bands in C. nubeculosus and S. vittatum SGE, respectively. These 14 sera showed IgE-binding to proteins from SGE of both C. nubeculosus and S. vittatum, but they reacted with fewer protein bands derived from S. vittatum than from C. nubeculosus SGE. Sera showing IgE-binding to a 32 kDa band from C. nubeculosus always bound to a 32 kDa band from S. vittatum. Similarly, all sera binding to a 70 kDa band from C. nubeculosus reacted with a corresponding band in S. vittatum SGE. The 70 kDa bands from S. vittatum and C. nubeculosus were identified by mass spectrometry as heat shock protein-70-cognate-3.

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Insect bite hypersensitivity (IBH) is an allergic dermatitis of horses caused by bites of Culicoides and sometimes Simulium spp. The aim of this investigation was to identify Simulium allergens associated with IBH. A phage surface display cDNA library expressing recombinant Simulium vittatum salivary gland proteins was screened using sera of IBH-affected horses sensitized to S. vittatum salivary gland proteins as shown in immunoblot, resulting in the identification of seven cDNAs encoding IgE-binding proteins. The deduced amino acid sequences of these proteins showed sequence similarities to antigen 5 like protein (Sim v 1), to a serine protease inhibitor (Sim v 2), to two alpha-amylases (Sim v 3 and Sim v 4), and to three S. vittatum erythema proteins (SVEPs). The cDNA inserts were subcloned and expressed as [His](6)-tagged protein in Escherichia coli and purified using Ni(2+)-chelate affinity chromatography. Mice were immunised with the seven recombinant proteins and the antibodies tested against the recombinant proteins and salivary gland extract (SGE) of S. vittatum and Culicoides nubeculosus in immunoblot analyses. r-Sim v 1 specific mouse Abs recognized a band of about 32 kDa in immunoblots of both S. vittatum and C. nubeculosus SGE, detectable also by serum IgE of IBH-affected horses. Preincubation of horse serum with r-Sim v 1 completely inhibited IgE binding to the 32 kDa band demonstrating the presence of cross-reactive antigen 5 like proteins in both SGE. Determination of IgE levels against the r-Sim v proteins and crude S. vittatum extract by ELISA in sera from 25 IBH-affected and 20 control horses showed that IBH-affected horses had significantly higher IgE levels than controls against r-Sim v 1, 2, 3, 4 and S. vittatum extract, whereas the r-SVEP showed only marginal IgE binding. Further analyses showed that 60% of IBH-affected horses reacted to r-Sim v 1, suggesting that this could be a major allergen for IBH. Forty to twenty percent of the IBH-affected horses reacted with r-Sim v 2, 3 or 4. Combination of the results obtained with the 4 r-Sim v proteins showed that 92% of the IBH-affected but only 15% of the healthy horses had IgE levels against one or more of the 4 r-Sim v proteins. Seventy percent of the healthy horses had detectable IgE against S. vittatum extract, indicating a low specificity of the detection system used. Optimization of the ELISA system will be required to determine reliable cut-off values for the IBH-related allergens. Their in vivo relevance needs to be carefully assessed.

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BACKGROUND Induction chemotherapy followed by definitive chemoradiotherapy is an intensified treatment approach for locally advanced squamous cell carcinoma of the head and neck (HNSCC) that might be associated with high rates of toxicity. MATERIALS AND METHODS The data of 40 consecutive patients who underwent induction chemotherapy with docetaxel-containing regimens followed by intensity-modulated radiotherapy (IMRT) and concomitant systemic therapy for unresectable locally advanced HNSCC were retrospectively analyzed. Primary objectives were RT-related acute and late toxicity. Secondary objectives were response to induction chemotherapy, locoregional recurrence-free survival (LRRFS), overall survival (OS), and influencing factors for LRRFS and OS. RESULTS The median follow-up for surviving patients was 21 months (range, 2-53 months). Patients received a median of three cycles of induction chemotherapy followed by IMRT to 72 Gy. Three patients died during induction chemotherapy and one during chemoradiotherapy. Acute RT-related toxicity was of grade 3 and 4 in 72 and 3 % of patients, respectively, mainly dysphagia and dermatitis. Late RT-related toxicity was mainly xerostomia and bone/cartilage necrosis and was of grade 3 and 4 in 15 % of patients. One- and 2-year LRRFS and OS were 72 and 49 % and 77 and 71 %, respectively. CONCLUSION Induction chemotherapy followed by chemoradiotherapy using IMRT was associated with a high rate of severe acute and late RT-related toxicities in this selected patient cohort. Four patients were lost because of fatal complications. Induction chemotherapy did not compromise the delivery of full-dose RT; however, the use of three cycles of concomitant cisplatin was impaired.

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BACKGROUND Among children with wheeze and recurrent cough there is great variation in clinical presentation and time course of the disease. We previously distinguished 5 phenotypes of wheeze and cough in early childhood by applying latent class analysis to longitudinal data from a population-based cohort (original cohort). OBJECTIVE To validate previously identified phenotypes of childhood cough and wheeze in an independent cohort. METHODS We included 903 children reporting wheeze or recurrent cough from an independent population-based cohort (validation cohort). As in the original cohort, we used latent class analysis to identify phenotypes on the basis of symptoms of wheeze and cough at 2 time points (preschool and school age) and objective measurements of atopy, lung function, and airway responsiveness (school age). Prognostic outcomes (wheeze, bronchodilator use, cough apart from colds) 5 years later were compared across phenotypes. RESULTS When using a 5-phenotype model, the analysis distinguished 3 phenotypes of wheeze and 2 of cough as in the original cohort. Two phenotypes were closely similar in both cohorts: Atopic persistent wheeze (persistent multiple trigger wheeze and chronic cough, atopy and reduced lung function, poor prognosis) and transient viral wheeze (early-onset transient wheeze with viral triggers, favorable prognosis). The other phenotypes differed more between cohorts. These differences might be explained by differences in age at measurements. CONCLUSIONS Applying the same method to 2 different cohorts, we consistently identified 2 phenotypes of wheeze (atopic persistent wheeze, transient viral wheeze), suggesting that these represent distinct disease processes. Differences found in other phenotypes suggest that the age when features are assessed is critical and should be considered carefully when defining phenotypes.

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BACKGROUND: Eosinophilic esophagitis (EoE) is often associated with atopic airway and skin diseases. More than 80% of EoE patients are sensitized to aero- and/or food allergens. Immunoglobulin (Ig)E-mediated immune responses to microbes have been reported to be deleterious in connection with atopic diseases. AIM: The aim of this study was to obtain a comprehensive overview about the sensitization spectrum of adult EoE patients. METHODS: IgE in sera of 35 patients with active EoE were analyzed for reactivity to Candida albicans, as well as to a panel of recombinant and purified natural allergen components, using a microarray. RESULTS: IgE sensitization to Candida albicans was found in 43% of EoE patients. More than 80% of EoE patients were sensitized to aeroallergens and 22% to food-specific allergen components, whereas 69% of the patients exhibited specific IgE to cross-reactive allergens. Among the latter, profilins were identified as most frequent IgE cross-reactive allergen components. Interestingly, dysphagia, the main symptom of adult EoE patients following rice and/or bread ingestion, was associated with sensitization to cross-reactive allergens such as profilins, pathogenesis-related (PR) 10 and lipid transfer proteins (LTP). Intolerance toward meat rarely correlated with sensitization to animal food allergens. CONCLUSION: Candida albicans and cross-reactive plant allergen components, in particular profilins, were identified as frequent sensitizers in adult EoE patients. Specific elimination therapies are suggested to reveal their actual roles in the pathogenesis of EoE.

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BACKGROUND IL-33 enhances FcεRI-induced mediator release in human basophils without inducing degranulation itself. In contrast, studies in mice suggested that in the presence of high IgE levels, IL-33 triggers degranulation and anaphylaxis of similar severity as specific allergen. Consistent with this view, sera of atopic patients contain elevated levels of IL-33 after anaphylaxis. In this study, we determined whether IL-33 is potentially anaphylactogenic in humans with high IgE levels by regulating exocytosis independent of FcεRI cross-linking. Furthermore, we investigated whether IL-33 is released upon allergen provocation in vivo. METHODS In subjects with high serum IgE levels, we measured IL-33-induced histamine/LTC4 in vitro, CD63 translocation ex vivo, and responsiveness of mast cells in vivo by skin prick test (SPT). In asthma patients, release of IL-33 and its correlation with early (tryptase)- and late-phase markers (IL-13 levels, eosinophil numbers) of the allergic response were assessed in bronchoalveolar lavage fluids (BALFs) after allergen challenge. RESULTS IL-33 itself does not trigger basophil degranulation in vitro and ex vivo, even in subjects with high serum IgE levels, and negative SPTs demonstrate that skin mast cells do not degranulate in response to IL-33. However, in response to allergen challenge, IL-33 is rapidly released into BALFs at levels that do not correlate with other immediate- and late-phase parameters. CONCLUSION IL-33 is unlikely an independent trigger of anaphylaxis even in subjects with high IgE levels. However, the rapid release of IL-33 upon allergen provocation in vivo supports its role as a mediator of immediate allergic responses.