APPLICABILITY OF kDNA-PCR FOR ROUTINE DIAGNOSIS OF AMERICAN TEGUMENTARY LEISHMANIASIS IN A TERTIARY REFERENCE HOSPITAL.

This study evaluated the applicability of kDNA-PCR as a prospective routine diagnosis method for American tegumentary leishmaniasis (ATL) in patients from the Instituto de Infectologia Emílio Ribas (IIER), a reference center for infectious diseases in São Paulo - SP, Brazil. The kDNA-PCR method detected Leishmania DNA in 87.5% (112/128) of the clinically suspected ATL patients, while the traditional methods demonstrated the following percentages of positivity: 62.8% (49/78) for the Montenegro skin test, 61.8% (47/76) for direct investigation, and 19.3% (22/114) for in vitro culture. The molecular method was able to confirm the disease in samples considered negative or inconclusive by traditional laboratory methods, contributing to the final clinical diagnosis and therapy of ATL in this hospital. Thus, we strongly recommend the inclusion of kDNA-PCR amplification as an alternative diagnostic method for ATL, suggesting a new algorithm routine to be followed to help the diagnosis and treatment of ATL in IIER.

Individual IL-3 priming is crucial for consistent in vitro activation of donor basophils in patients with chronic urticaria

The in vivo autologous serum skin test (ASST) is the diagnostic gold standard to detect autoantibodies against FcεRI or IgE itself, as well as other autoreactive serum components, in patients with chronic spontaneous urticaria (CU). Coincubation of patient sera with donor basophils and measuring their degranulation in vitro could be a safe alternative but has shown inconsistent results.

Diagnostic value of animal-side antibody assays for rapid detection of Mycobacterium bovis or Mycobacterium microti infection in South American camelids

Tuberculosis (TB) in South American camelids (SAC) is caused by Mycobacterium bovis or Mycobacterium microti. Two serological methods, rapid testing (RT) and the dual-path platform (DPP) assay, were evaluated using naturally infected SAC. The study population included 156 alpacas and 175 llamas in Great Britain, Switzerland, and the United States. TB due to M. bovis (n = 44) or M. microti (n = 8) in 35 alpacas and 17 llamas was diagnosed by gross pathology examination and culture. Control animals were from herds with no TB history. The RT and the DPP assay showed sensitivities of 71% and 74%, respectively, for alpacas, while the sensitivity for llamas was 77% for both assays. The specificity of the DPP assay (98%) was higher than that of RT (94%) for llamas; the specificities of the two assays were identical (98%) for alpacas. When the two antibody tests were combined, the parallel-testing interpretation (applied when either assay produced a positive result) enhanced the sensitivities of antibody detection to 89% for alpacas and 88% for llamas but at the cost of lower specificities (97% and 93%, respectively), whereas the serial-testing interpretation (applied when both assays produced a positive result) maximized the specificity to 100% for both SAC species, although the sensitivities were 57% for alpacas and 65% for llamas. Over 95% of the animals with evidence of TB failed to produce skin test reactions, thus confirming concerns about the validity of this method for testing SAC. The findings suggest that serological assays may offer a more accurate and practical alternative for antemortem detection of camelid TB.

Host condition and host immunity affect parasite fitness in a bird-ectoparasite system

1. Parasites might preferentially feed on hosts in good nutritional condition as such hosts provide better resources for the parasites' own growth, survival and reproduction. However, hosts in prime condition are also better able to develop costly immunological or physiological defence mechanisms, which in turn reduce the parasites' reproductive success. The interplay between host condition, host defence and parasite fitness will thus play an important part in the dynamics of host-parasite systems.;2. In a 2 x 2 design, we manipulated both the access to food in great tit Parus major broods and the exposure of the nestlings to hen fleas Ceratophyllus gallinae, a common ectoparasite of hole-breeding birds. We subsequently investigated the role of manipulated host condition, host immunocompetence, and experimentally induced host defence in nestlings on the reproductive success of individual hen flea females.;3. The food supplementation of the nestlings significantly influenced the parasites' reproductive success. Female fleas laid significantly more eggs when feeding on food-supplemented hosts.;4. Previous parasite exposure of the birds affected the reproductive success of fleas. However, the impact of this induced host response on flea reproduction depended on the birds' natural level of immunocompetence, assessed by the phytohaemagglutinin (PHA) skin test. Flea fecundity significantly decreased with increasing PHA response of the nestlings in previously parasite-exposed broods. No relationship between flea fitness and host immunocompetence was, however, found in previously unexposed broods. The PHA response thus correlates with the nestlings' ability to mount immunological or physiological defence mechanisms against hen fleas. No significant interaction effect between early flea exposure and food supplementation on the parasites' reproductive success was found.;5. Our study shows that the reproductive success of hen fleas is linked to the hosts' food supply early in life and their ability to mount induced immunological or physiological defence mechanisms. These interactions between host quality and parasite fitness are likely to influence host preference, host choice and parasite virulence and thus the evolutionary dynamics in host-parasite systems.

Dermatophagoides farinae-specific immunotherapy in atopic dogs with hypersensitivity to multiple allergens: a randomised, double blind, placebo-controlled study

A randomised, placebo-controlled, double blind study was conducted on 25 dogs that had atopic dermatitis, together with skin test reactivity and elevated serum IgE to Dermatophagoides farinae (Df) and at least one additional allergen. Dogs were treated with either a Df-restricted immunotherapy solution (n=14) or a placebo (n=11) and evaluated 6 weeks and 3, 5, 7 and 9 months after the initiation of treatment using a clinical scoring system (SASSAD) and pruritus analogue scale scores. The Df-restricted solution and the placebo had an equal effect on both pruritus and the skin manifestations (P>0.05). The results of this study indicate that in dogs with atopic dermatitis based on hypersensitivity to environmental allergens in addition to D. farinae, Df-restricted immunotherapy is insufficient to control the disease. Consequently, a solution for allergen-specific immunotherapy should remain customised.

Antibody Responses of Vaccinated and Nonvaccinated Calves to Haemophilus somnus

Respiratory disease resulting from infection of calves with Haemophilus somnus (H. somnus) is an annual occurrence in fall calves at the McNay Farm. Previous observations of skin test reactivity to H. somnus antigens suggested a role for this phenomenon in the pathogenesis of the disease. Groups of calves, about 90 days of age, were vaccinated with four different commercial H. somnus vaccines, and serum levels of H. somnus antibodies were determined. Antibodies of the IgG and IgE classes were detected with ELISA procedures conducted on sera collected before and after vaccination. Most of the calves had detectable H. somnus IgE class antibodies at the start of the experimentation but IgG class antibodies were minimal. Antibodies of both classes increased in nonvaccinated and vaccinated calves during the 30 day period of experimentation. However, the level of IgE class antibodies in vaccinates was lower than in controls suggesting that vaccination may limit the IgE response.

A prospective cohort study evaluating the state of medical readiness in the United States Air Force and risk factors to improve the medical readiness posture

A cohort of 418 United States Air Force (USAF) personnel from over 15 different bases deployed to Morocco in 1994. This was the first study of its kind and was designed with two primary goals: to determine if the USAF was medically prepared to deploy with its changing mission in the new world order, and to evaluate factors that might improve or degrade USAF medical readiness. The mean length of deployment was 21 days. The cohort was 95% male, 86% enlisted, 65% married, and 78% white.^ This study shows major deficiencies indicating the USAF medical readiness posture has not fully responded to meet its new mission requirements. Lack of required logistical items (e.g., mosquito nets, rainboots, DEET insecticide cream, etc.) revealed a low state of preparedness. The most notable deficiency was that 82.5% (95% CI = 78.4, 85.9) did not have permethrin pretreated mosquito nets and 81.0% (95% CI = 76.8, 84.6) lacked mosquito net poles. Additionally, 18% were deficient on vaccinations and 36% had not received a tuberculin skin test. Excluding injections, the overall compliance for preventive medicine requirements had a mean frequency of only 50.6% (95% CI = 45.36, 55.90).^ Several factors had a positive impact on compliance with logistical requirements. The most prominent was "receiving a medical intelligence briefing" from the USAF Public Health. After adjustment for mobility and age, individuals who underwent a briefing were 17.2 (95% CI = 4.37, 67.99) times more likely to have received an immunoglobulin shot and 4.2 (95% CI = 1.84, 9.45) times more likely to start their antimalarial prophylaxsis at the proper time. "Personnel on mobility" had the second strongest positive effect on medical readiness. When mobility and briefing were included in models, "personnel on mobility" were 2.6 (95% CI = 1.19, 5.53) times as likely to have DEET insecticide and 2.2 (95% CI = 1.16, 4.16) times as likely to have had a TB skin test.^ Five recommendations to improve the medical readiness of the USAF were outlined: upgrade base level logistical support, improve medical intelligence messages, include medical requirements on travel orders, place more personnel on mobility or only deploy personnel on mobility, and conduct research dedicated to capitalize on the powerful effect from predeployment briefings.^ Since this is the first study of its kind, more studies should be performed in different geographic theaters to assess medical readiness and establish acceptable compliance levels for the USAF. ^

Natural anti-FcepsilonRIalpha autoantibodies may interfere with diagnostic tests for autoimmune urticaria.

IgG autoantibodies against the alpha-chain of the high affinity IgE receptor are claimed to play a pathogenetic role in autoimmune urticaria. The best methods for detection of functional autoantibodies are currently the autologous serum skin test and the basophil histamine release assay. A simplified and feasible screening test would facilitate the diagnosis of autoimmune urticaria. Here we offer an explanation for the difficulties in establishing a screening test for autoantibodies directed against the alpha-chain of the high affinity IgE receptor in autoimmune urticaria. Identical autoantibodies in chronic urticaria patients and healthy donors belonging to the natural autoantibody repertoire were found by sequence analysis of anti-alpha-chain autoantibodies isolated by repertoire cloning from antibody libraries. These natural autoantibodies bound to the receptor and triggered histamine release but only if IgE was previously removed from the receptor. Diagnostic assays used for detection of antibodies directed against the IgE receptor may require signal comparison with and without the artificial removal of IgE, immune complexes, and complement in order to avoid false positive or negative results. After IgE removal diagnostic tests will detect natural autoantibodies against the high affinity IgE receptor regardless of whether they are pathogenic or not.

Interferon-gamma release assays for latent tuberculosis infection in child and young adult candidates or recipients of tumor necrosis factor inhibitor therapy

Background. Inhibition of tumor necrosis factor (TNF) is associated with progression of latent tuberculosis infection (LTBI) to active disease. LTBI screening prior to starting TNF inhibitor therapy is recommended. Blood tests, collectively known as interferon-gamma release assays (IGRAs), offer a means other than the tuberculin skin test (TST) of screening for LTBI. However, in the setting of immune compromise, anergy may limit the clinical utility of IGRAs. ^ Methods. A cross-sectional study was conducted in children and young adults ≤ 21 years of age who were cared for at Texas Children's Hospital in Houston, TX, during 2011 and who were candidates for, or were receiving, tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-inhibitor therapy. All subjects answered a risk factor questionnaire and were tested for LTBI by two commercially available IGRAs (QuantiFERON-Gold In-Tube assay and the T-SPOT.TB assay), along with the TST. T-cell phenotypes were evaluated through flow cytometry, both at baseline and after antigen stimulation. ^ Results. Twenty-eight subjects were enrolled. All were TST negative and none were IGRA positive. Results were negative for the 27 subjects who were tested with QuantiFERON-Gold In-Tube. However, 26% of subjects demonstrated anergy in the T-SPOT.T. Patients with T-SPOT. TB anergy had lower quantitative IFN-γ responses to mitogen in the QFT assay—the mean IFN-γ level to mitogen in patients without T-SPOT.TB anergy was 9.84 IU/ml compared to 6.91 IU/ml in patients with T-SPOT.TB anergy (P = 0.046). Age and use of TNF inhibitors, corticosteroids, or methotrexate use were not significantly associated with T-SPOT.TB anergy. Antigen stimulation revealed depressed expression of intracellular IFN-γ in subjects with T-SPOT. TB anergy. ^ Conclusions. The frequency of anergy in this population is higher than would be expected from studies in adults. There appears to be inappropriate IFN-γ responses to antigen in subjects with T-SPOT. TB anergy. This immune defect was detected by the T-SPOT. TB assay but not by the QuantiFERON-Gold In-Tube assay. Further data are needed to clarify the utility of IGRAs in this population.^

An epidemic of tuberculosis with a high rate of tuberculin anergy among a population previously unexposed to tuberculosis, the Yanomami Indians of the Brazilian Amazon

A survey of an emerging tuberculosis epidemic among the Yanomami Indians of the Amazonian rain forest provided a unique opportunity to study the impact of tuberculosis on a population isolated from contact with the tubercle bacillus for millennia until the mid-1960s. Within the Yanomami population, an extraordinary high prevalence of active tuberculosis (6.4% of 625 individuals clinically examined) was observed, indicating a high susceptibility to disease, even among bacille Calmette–Guérin-vaccinated individuals. Observational studies on cell-mediated and humoral immune responses of the Yanomami Indians compared with contemporary residents of the region suggest profound differences in immunological responsiveness to Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection. Among the Yanomami, a very high prevalence of tuberculin skin test anergy was found. Of patients with active tuberculosis, 46% had purified protein derivative of tuberculosis reactions <10 mm; similarly 58% of recent bacillus Calmette–Guérin vaccines exhibited skin test reactions <5 mm. The Yanomami also had higher titers of antibodies against M. tuberculosis glycolipid antigens (>70%) than the control subjects comprised of Brazilians of European descent (14%). The antibodies were mostly of the IgM isotype. Among the tuberculosis patients who also produced IgG antibodies, the titers of IgG4 were significantly higher among the Yanomami than in the control population. Although it was not possible to analyze T-cell responses or patterns of lymphokine production in vitro because of the remoteness of the villages from laboratory facilities, the results suggest that the first encounter of the Yanomami Indian population with tuberculosis engenders a diminished cell-mediated immune response and an increased production antibody responses, relative to other populations with extensive previous contact with the pathogen. These findings suggest that tuberculosis may represent a powerful selective pressure on human evolution that over centuries has shaped the nature of human immune responses to infection.

Circulating nerve growth factor levels are increased in humans with allergic diseases and asthma.

Nerve growth factor (NGF) serum levels were measured in 49 patients with asthma and/or rhinoconjunctivitis and/or urticaria-angioedema. Clinical and biochemical parameters, such as bronchial reactivity, total and specific serum IgE levels, and circulating eosinophil cationic protein levels, were evaluated in relation to NGF values in asthma patients. NGF was significantly increased in the 42 allergic (skin-test- or radioallergosorbent-test-positive) subjects (49.7 +/- 28.8 pg/ml) versus the 18 matched controls (3.8 +/- 1.7 pg/ml; P < 0.001). NGF levels in allergic patients with asthma, rhinoconjunctivitis, and urticaria-angioedema were 132.1 +/- 90.8, 17.6 +/- 6.1, and 7.6 +/- 1.8 pg/ml (P < 0.001, P < 0.002, and P < 0.05 versus controls), respectively. Patients with more than one allergic disease had higher NGF serum values than those with a single disease. When asthma patients were considered as a group, NGF serum values (87.6 +/- 59.8 pg/ml) were still significantly higher than those of control groups (P < 0.001), but allergic asthma patients had elevated NGF serum levels compared with nonallergic asthma patients (132.1 +/- 90.8 versus 4.9 +/- 2.9 pg/ml; P < 0.001). NGF serum levels correlate to total IgE serum values (rho = 0.43; P < 0.02). The highest NGF values were found in patients with severe allergic asthma, a high degree of bronchial hyperreactivity, and high total IgE and eosinophil cationic protein serum levels. This study represents the first observation (that we know of) that NGF is increased in human allergic inflammatory diseases and asthma.

Padronização e validação de marcadores moleculares para o diagnóstico da Leishmaniose Tegumentar

O diagnóstico da leishmaniose tegumentar (LT) baseia-se em critérios clínicos e epidemiológicos podendo ser confirmado por exames laboratoriais de rotina como a pesquisa direta do parasito por microscopia e a intradermorreação de Montenegro. Atualmente, os métodos moleculares, principalmente a reação da cadeia da polimerase (PCR), têm sido considerados para aplicação em amostras clínicas, devido a sua alta sensibilidade e especificidade. Este trabalho teve como objetivo a padronização e validação das técnicas de PCR-RFLP com diferentes iniciadores (kDNA, its1, hsp70 e prp1), visando o diagnóstico e a identificação das espécies de Leishmania presentes em amostras de DNA provenientes de lesões de pele ou mucosa de 140 pacientes com suspeita de leishmaniose tegumentar. Para tal, realizamos ensaios de: 1) sensibilidade das PCRs com os diferentes iniciadores, 2) especificidade dos ensaios utilizando DNAs de diferentes espécies de referência de Leishmania, de tripanossomatídeos inferiores e de fungos, 3) validação das técnicas de PCR-RFLP com os iniciadores estudados em amostras de DNA de lesões de pele ou mucosas de pacientes com LT. Os resultados dos ensaios de limiar de detecção das PCR (sensibilidade) mostraram que os quatro iniciadores do estudo foram capazes de detectar o DNA do parasito, porém em quantidades distintas: até 500 fg com os iniciadores para kDNA e its1, até 400 fg com hsp70 e até 5 ng com prp1. Quanto à especificidade dos iniciadores, não houve amplificação dos DNAs fúngicos. Por outro lado, nos ensaios com os iniciadores para kDNA e hsp70, verificamos amplificação do fragmento esperado em amostras de DNA de tripanossomatídeos. Nos ensaios com its1 e prp1, o padrão de amplificação com os DNAs de tripanossomatídeos foi diferente do apresentado pelas espécies de Leishmania. Verificou-se nos ensaios de validação que o PCR-kDNA detectou o parasito em todas as 140 amostras de DNA de pacientes e, assim, foi utilizado como critério de inclusão das amostras. A PCR-its1 apresentou menor sensibilidade, mesmo após a reamplificação com o mesmo iniciador (85,7% ou 120/140 amostras). Para os ensaios da PCR-hsp70, as amostras de DNA foram amplificadas com Repli G, para obter uma sensibilidade de 68,4% (89/140 amostras). A PCR-prp1 não detectou o parasito em amostras de DNA dos pacientes. Quanto aos ensaios para a identificação da espécie presente na lesão, a PCR-kDNA-RFLP-HaeIII e a PCR-its1- RFLP-HaeIII permitem a distinção de L. (L.) amazonensis das outras espécies pertencentes ao subgênero Viannia. A PCR-hsp70-RFLP-HaeIII-BstUI, apesar de potencialmente ser capaz de identificar as seis espécies de Leishmania analisadas, quando utilizada na avaliação das amostras humanas permitiu apenas a identificação de L. (V.) braziliensis. No entanto, é uma técnica com várias etapas e de difícil execução, o que pode inviabilizar o seu uso rotineiro em centros de referência em diagnósticos. Assim, recomendamos o uso dessa metodologia apenas em locais onde várias espécies de Leishmania sejam endêmicas. Finalmente, os resultados indicam que o kDNA-PCR devido à alta sensibilidade apresentada e facilidade de execução pode ser empregada como exame de rotina nos centros de referência, permitindo a confirmação ou exclusão da LT.

Polissensibilização alimentar : um caso clínico

Trabalho Final do Curso de Mestrado Integrado em Medicina, Faculdade de Medicina, Universidade de Lisboa, 2014

A cluster of tuberculosis associated with use of a marijuana water pipe

SETTING: New cases of pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) were noted in a cluster of young Caucasian males, an unusual ethnic group for this disease in Queensland, Australia. It was noted that marijuana water pipe ('bong') smoking was common amongst cases and contacts. OBJECTIVE: To report this cluster of TB and to investigate whether shared use of a marijuana water pipe was associated with transmission of TB. DESIGN: All contacts were identified and screened according to standard protocols. Cases were asked to list contacts with whom they had shared a marijuana water pipe. RESULTS: Five cases of open pulmonary TB were identified clinically and on sputum culture, and all isolates of Mycobacterium tuberculosis were identical on typing. Of 149 contacts identified, 114 (77%) completed screening, and 57 (50%) had significant tuberculin skin test (TST) reactions on follow-up. Of 45 contacts who had shared a marijuana water pipe with a case, 29 (64%) had a significant TST reaction. CONCLUSION: Sharing a marijuana water pipe with a case of pulmonary TB was associated with transmission of TB (OR 2.22, 95% CI 0.96-5.17), although the most important risk factor for acquiring TB infection in this cluster was close household contact with a case (OR 4.91, 95% CI 1.13-20.70).

Evaluation of immune effects of fowlpox vaccine strains and field isolates

The immune effects of fowlpox virus (FPV) field isolates and vaccine strains were evaluated in chickens infected at the age of 1 day and 6 weeks. The field isolates and the obsolete vaccine strain (FPV S) contained integrated reticuloendotheliosis virus (REV) provirus, while the current vaccine strain (FPVST) carries only REV LTR sequences. An indirect antibody ELISA was used to measure the FPV-specific antibody response. The non-specific humoral response was evaluated by injection of two T-cell-dependent antigens, sheep red blood cells (SRBC) and bovine serum albumin (BSA). There was no significant difference in the antibody response to FPV between chickens infected with FPV various isolates and strains at either age. In contrast, antibody responses to both SRBC and BSA were significantly lower in 1-day-old chickens inoculated with field isolates and FPV S at 2-3 weeks post-inoculation. Furthermore, cell-mediated immune (CMI) responses measured by in vitro lymphocyte proliferation assay and in vivo using a PHA-P skin test were significantly depressed in chickens inoculated with field isolates and FPV S at the same periods. In addition, thymus and bursal weights were lower in infected chickens. These immunosuppressive effects were not observed in chickens inoculated with the current vaccine strain, FPVST, at any time. The results of this study suggest that virulent field isolates and FPV S have immunosuppressive effects when inoculated into young chickens, which appeared in the first 3 weeks post infection. REV integrated in the FPV field isolates and FPV S may have played a central role in the development of immunosuppression. (c) 2006 Elsevier B.V. All rights reserved.