270 resultados para clinical-relevance

em BORIS: Bern Open Repository and Information System - Berna - Suiça


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In patients with cirrhosis, bacterial DNA has been found in ascites reflecting bacterial translocation. However, the clinical relevance of this finding is ill-defined especially compared with the standard diagnostics for detection of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP). Furthermore, other DNA tests have not been sufficiently evaluated.

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Using new sensitive quantitative polymerase chain reaction (PCR) assays, cytomegalovirus (CMV) DNA is often detectable in the plasma of immunosuppressed patients. We investigated the prognostic value of a positive CMV DNA test for the development of CMV end-organ disease, other AIDS-defining events and mortality.

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BACKGROUND: Eosinophilic esophagitis (EE) is often associated with concomitant atopic diseases. In children with EE in whom food allergens have been identified as causative factors, elemental and elimination diets result in an improvement or resolution of symptoms. Most adult EE patients are sensitized to aeroallergens, which cross-react with plant-derived food allergens, most commonly to grass pollen and cereals. AIMS OF THE STUDY: To investigate the clinical relevance of the sensitization to wheat and rye, and the efficacy of an allergen-specific elimination diet in adult EE patients. METHODS: Six patients (five men, one women) with permanently active EE sensitized to grass pollen and the cereals wheat and rye underwent a double-blind placebo-controlled food challenge and were kept on an elimination diet avoiding wheat and rye for 6 weeks. RESULTS: The challenge tests with wheat and rye did not provoke any EE symptoms in all patients. The elimination diet failed in reducing disease activity. Although one patient noticed an improvement of symptoms, endoscopic and histopathologic findings remained unchanged. CONCLUSIONS: In adult EE patients, sensitization to wheat and rye does not seem causative for EE. Elimination diet is not a reliable and efficient therapeutic measure in EE patients sensitized to wheat and rye. Low specific immunoglobulin-E levels to wheat and rye may be a consequence of the underlying grass pollen allergy.

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REASONS FOR PERFORMING STUDY: Although endoscopic scoring of the tracheal septum thickness is used as a diagnostic tool for evaluation of lower airway disease, its clinical relevance and reliability have never been critically assessed in the horse. OBJECTIVES: To investigate if septum thickness scores (STS) are reliable and serve as a clinically useful indicator of lower airway disease status and/or inflammation. METHODS: The variance of STS attributable to the horse, observer and changes over time was determined. The distribution of STS in a population of clinically normal horses and correlations of STS with age, gender, as well as mucus accumulation and cell differentials of tracheobronchial secretions and bronchoalveolar lavage fluid were investigated. Effects of altered pulmonary ventilation, induced by different drugs, on STS were assessed. Finally, STS of horses affected with recurrent airway obstruction (RAO) were compared to those of clinically normal horses. RESULTS: Recorded STS showed excellent intra- and satisfactory interobserver agreement Established clinical, endoscopic and cytological measures of lower airway inflammation, i.e. mucus accumulation scores and airway neutrophilia, did not correlate with STS. In horses age > or = 10 years, septum scores were significantly higher (P = 0.022) than in younger horses. Septum thickness scores did not differ significantly between clinically normal and RAO-affected horses both in exacerbation and in remission. Horses with markedly increased breathing effort (i.e. with metacholine- or lobeline hydrochloride-challenge), often differed markedly (up to 1.9 scores), but the average of end-inspiratory and end-expiratory STS did not differ from baseline STS. CONCLUSIONS AND CLINICAL RELEVANCE: Endoscopic STS are a reproducible measure, but STS did not correlate with clinical, endoscopic and cytological findings indicative of RAO or inflammatory airway disease.

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BACKGROUND: The value of incidental coronary angiography during percutaneous shunt closure to screen for asymptomatic coronary artery disease (CAD) is unknown. METHODS: On the occasion of percutaneous closure of patent foramen ovale (PFO), incidental coronary angiography routinely offered to men >40 and women >50 years, or younger patients with particular risk patterns, was performed in 575 patients (64% men, mean age 55 +/- 10 years, mean 1.5 +/- 1.1 cardiovascular risk factors) without overt history, signs, or symptoms of CAD. RESULTS: CAD was found in 164 patients (29%); 53 (9%) had >or=50% diameter stenoses. Thirty patients (5%) had one-vessel, 13 (2%) two-vessel, and 10 (2%) three-vessel disease. Patients with CAD (n = 164) were older (60 +/- 9 vs. 53 +/- 10 years; P < 0.0001), more frequently male (76% vs. 59%; P = 0.0002), and had a higher body mass index (26.5 +/- 4.0 vs. 25.4 +/- 4.6; P = 0.006) and more cardiovascular risk factors (2.0 +/- 1.1 vs. 1.2 +/- 1.0; P < 0.0001). There were six procedural complications (1%). Two were unequivocally related to coronary angiography: one minor stroke (diplopia), and one iatrogenic dissection of the right coronary ostium requiring stenting. Furthermore, four arteriovenous fistulae at the puncture site requiring elective surgical closure were possibly related to coronary angiography. Forty-five patients (8% of total) underwent percutaneous (n = 43) or surgical (n = 2) revascularization. CONCLUSIONS: In selected asymptomatic patients referred for percutaneous PFO closure, incidental coronary angiography discloses a rather high prevalence of clinically unsuspected CAD. These findings are relevant not only for timely revascularization but also for maintenance of long-term antiplatelet therapy beyond the few months recommended after PFO closure.

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BACKGROUND: The CD4 T cell count recovery in human immunodeficiency virus type 1 (HIV-1)-infected individuals receiving potent antiretroviral therapy (ART) shows high variability. We studied the determinants and the clinical relevance of incomplete CD4 T cell restoration. METHODS: Longitudinal CD4 T cell count was analyzed in 293 participants of the Swiss HIV Cohort Study who had had a plasma HIV-1 RNA load <1000 copies/mL for > or =5 years. CD4 T cell recovery was stratified by CD4 T cell count 5 years after initiation of ART (> or =500 cells/microL was defined as a complete response, and <500 cells/microL was defined as an incomplete response). Determinants of incomplete responses and clinical events were evaluated using logistic regression and survival analyses. RESULTS: The median CD4 T cell count increased from 180 cells/microL at baseline to 576 cells/microL 5 years after ART initiation. A total of 35.8% of patients were incomplete responders, of whom 47.6% reached a CD4 T cell plateau <500 cells/microL. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention HIV-1 disease category B and/or C events occurred in 21% of incomplete responders and in 14.4% of complete responders (P>.05). Older age (adjusted odds ratio [aOR], 1.71 per 10-year increase; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.21-2.43), lower baseline CD4 T cell count (aOR, 0.37 per 100-cell increase; 95% CI, 0.28-0.49), and longer duration of HIV infection (aOR, 2.39 per 10-year increase; 95% CI, 1.19-4.81) were significantly associated with a CD4 T cell count <500 cells/microL at 5 years. The median increases in CD4 T cell count after 3-6 months of ART were smaller in incomplete responders (P<.001) and predicted, in conjunction with baseline CD4 T cell count and age, incomplete response with 80% sensitivity and 72% specificity. CONCLUSION: Individuals with incomplete CD4 T cell recovery to <500 cells/microL had more advanced HIV-1 infection at baseline. CD4 T cell changes during the first 3-6 months of ART already reflect the capacity of the immune system to replenish depleted CD4 T lymphocytes.

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PURPOSE High aldehyde dehydrogenase (ALDH) has been suggested to selectively mark cells with high tumorigenic potential in established prostate cancer cell lines. However, the existence of cells with high ALDH activity (ALDH(bright)) in primary prostate cancer specimens has not been shown so far. We investigated the presence, phenotype, and clinical significance of ALDH(bright) populations in clinical prostate cancer specimens. EXPERIMENTAL DESIGN We used ALDEFLUOR technology and fluorescence-activated cell-sorting (FACS) staining to identify and characterize ALDH(bright) populations in cells freshly isolated from clinical prostate cancer specimens. Expression of genes encoding ALDH-specific isoforms was evaluated by quantitative real-time PCR in normal prostate, benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), and prostate cancer tissues. ALDH1A1-specific expression and prognostic significance were assessed by staining two tissue microarrays that included more than 500 samples of BPH, prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia (PIN), and multistage prostate cancer. RESULTS ALDH(bright) cells were detectable in freshly excised prostate cancer specimens (n = 39) and were mainly included within the EpCAM((+)) and Trop2((+)) cell populations. Although several ALDH isoforms were expressed to high extents in prostate cancer, only ALDH1A1 gene expression significantly correlated with ALDH activity (P < 0.01) and was increased in cancers with high Gleason scores (P = 0.03). Most importantly, ALDH1A1 protein was expressed significantly more frequently and at higher levels in advanced-stage than in low-stage prostate cancer and BPH. Notably, ALDH1A1 positivity was associated with poor survival (P = 0.02) in hormone-naïve patients. CONCLUSIONS Our data indicate that ALDH contributes to the identification of subsets of prostate cancer cells of potentially high clinical relevance.

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BACKGROUND This study evaluates the geographic expression pattern of Raf-1 Kinase Inhibitor Protein (RKIP) in colorectal cancer (CRC) in correlation with clinicopathological and molecular features, markers of epithelial-mesenchymal transition (EMT) and survival outcome. METHODS Whole-tissue sections of 220 well-characterised CRCs were immunostained for RKIP. NF-κB and E-Cadherin expression was assessed using a matched multi-punch tissue microarray. Analysis of mismatch repair (MMR) protein expression, B-Raf and KRAS mutations was performed. RKIP expression in normal mucosa, tumour centre, invasion front and tumour buds was each assessed for clinical relevance. RESULTS RKIP was diffusely expressed in normal mucosa and progressively lost towards tumour centre and front (P<0.0001). Only 0.9% of tumour buds were RKIP-positive. In the tumour centre, RKIP deficiency predicted metastatic disease (P=0.0307), vascular invasion (P=0.0506), tumour budding (P=0.0112) and an invasive border configuration (P=0.0084). Loss of RKIP correlated with NF-κB activation (P=0.0002) and loss of E-Cadherin (P<0.0001). Absence of RKIP was more common in MMR-deficient cancers (P=0.0191), while no impact of KRAS and B-Raf mutation was observed. RKIP in the tumour centre was identified as a strong prognostic indicator (HR (95% CI): 2.13 (1.27-3.56); P=0.0042) independently of TNM classification and therapy (P=0.0474). CONCLUSION The clinical relevance of RKIP expression as an independent prognostic factor is restricted to the tumour centre. Loss of RKIP predicts features of EMT and correlates with frequent distant metastasis.

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BACKGROUND/AIM Human lectins translate sugar-encoded signals of cell surface glycoconjugates into biological effects, and this is what is known for the adhesion/growth-regulatory galectins. In addition, the multifunctional members of this group can be intracellular, binding to distinct proteins. The presence of galectins and galectin reactivity were exemplarily studied in the present article. MATERIALS AND METHODS We combined immuno- and lectin histochemical monitoring in colon cancer on tissue arrays. RESULTS Intracellular presence of galectins-7 and -9 in colon cancer is detected, extending the previously known set of five expressed lectins this tumor type. The assumed significance of intracellular galectin presence, e.g. for an interplay with BCL2, β-catenin, oncogenic KRAS or synexin, is underscored by respective staining with labeled galectin-3. Statistical significance was obtained for galectin-3 staining with respect to tumor differentiation (p=0.0376), lymph node metastasis (p=0.0069) and lymphatic invasion (p=0.0156). Survival was correlated to staining, galectin-3 reactivity indicating a favorable prognosis (p=0.0183), albeit not as an independent marker. No correlation to KRAS/BRAF status was detected. CONCLUSION These results encourage further testing of labeled human galectins as probes and immunohistochemical fingerprinting instead of measuring single or few activities, in colon cancer and other tumor types.

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Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a chronic disease with an inflammatory and neurodegenerative pathology. Axonal loss and neurodegeneration occurs early in the disease course and may lead to irreversible neurological impairment. Changes in brain volume, observed from the earliest stage of MS and proceeding throughout the disease course, may be an accurate measure of neurodegeneration and tissue damage. There are a number of magnetic resonance imaging-based methods for determining global or regional brain volume, including cross-sectional (e.g. brain parenchymal fraction) and longitudinal techniques (e.g. SIENA [Structural Image Evaluation using Normalization of Atrophy]). Although these methods are sensitive and reproducible, caution must be exercised when interpreting brain volume data, as numerous factors (e.g. pseudoatrophy) may have a confounding effect on measurements, especially in a disease with complex pathological substrates such as MS. Brain volume loss has been correlated with disability progression and cognitive impairment in MS, with the loss of grey matter volume more closely correlated with clinical measures than loss of white matter volume. Preventing brain volume loss may therefore have important clinical implications affecting treatment decisions, with several clinical trials now demonstrating an effect of disease-modifying treatments (DMTs) on reducing brain volume loss. In clinical practice, it may therefore be important to consider the potential impact of a therapy on reducing the rate of brain volume loss. This article reviews the measurement of brain volume in clinical trials and practice, the effect of DMTs on brain volume change across trials and the clinical relevance of brain volume loss in MS.

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Objective: Integrated behavior therapy approaches are defined by the combination of behavioral and or cognitive interventions targeting neurocognition combined with other goal-oriented treatment targets such as social cognition, social skills, or educational issues. The Integrated Psychological Therapy Program (IPT) represents one of the very first behavior therapy approaches combining interventions of neurocognition, social cognition, and social competence. This comprehensive group-based bottom-up and top-down approach consists of five subprograms, each with incremental steps. IPT has been successfully implemented in several countries in Europe, America, Australia and in Asia. IPT worked as a model for some other approaches designed in the USA. IPT was undergone two further developments: based on the social competence part of IPT, the three specific therapy programs focusing residential, occupational or recreational topics were developed. Recently, the cognitive part of INT was rigorously expanded into the Integrated Neurocognitive Therapy (INT) designed exclusively for outpatient treatment: INT includes interventions targeting all neurocognitive and social cognitive domains defined by the NIMH-MATRICS initiative. These group and partially PC-based exercises are structured into four therapy modules, each starting with exercises on neurocognitive domains followed by social cognitive targets. Efficacy: The evidence of integrated therapy approaches and its advantage compared to of one-track interventions was becoming a discussion tool in therapy research as well as in mental health systems. Results of meta-analyses support superiority of integrated approaches compared to one-track interventions in more distal outcome areas such as social functioning. These results are in line with the large body of 37 independent IPT studies in 12 countries. Moreover, IPT research indicates the maintenance of therapy effects after the end of therapy and some evidence generalization effects. Additionally, the international randomized multi-center study on INT with 169 outpatients strongly supports the successful therapy of integrated therapy in proximal and distal outcome such as significant effects in cognition, functioning and negative symptoms. Clinical implication: therapy research as well as expert’s clinical experience recommends integrated therapy approaches such as IPT to be successful agents within multimodal psychiatric treatment concepts. Finally, integrated group therapy based on cognitive remediation seems to motivate and stimulate schizophrenia inpatients and outpatients to more successful and independent life also demanded by the recovery movement.

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PURPOSES Geriatric problems frequently go undetected in older patients in emergency departments (EDs), thus increasing their risk of adverse outcomes. We evaluated a novel emergency geriatric screening (EGS) tool designed to detect geriatric problems. BASIC PROCEDURES The EGS tool consisted of short validated instruments used to screen 4 domains (cognition, falls, mobility, and activities of daily living). Emergency geriatric screening was introduced for ED patients 75 years or older throughout a 4-month period. We analyzed the prevalence of abnormal EGS and whether EGS increased the number of EGS-related diagnoses in the ED during the screening, as compared with a preceding control period. MAIN FINDINGS Emergency geriatric screening was performed on 338 (42.5%) of 795 patients presenting during screening. Emergency geriatric screening was unfeasible in 175 patients (22.0%) because of life-threatening conditions and was not performed in 282 (35.5%) for logistical reasons. Emergency geriatric screening took less than 5 minutes to perform in most (85.8%) cases. Among screened patients, 285 (84.3%) had at least 1 abnormal EGS finding. In 270 of these patients, at least 1 abnormal EGS finding did not result in a diagnosis in the ED and was reported for further workup to subsequent care. During screening, 142 patients (42.0%) had at least 1 diagnosis listed within the 4 EGS domains, significantly more than the 29.3% in the control period (odds ratio 1.75; 95% confidence interval, 1.34-2.29; P<.001). Emergency geriatric screening predicted nursing home admission after the in-hospital stay (odds ratio for ≥3 vs <3 abnormal domains 12.13; 95% confidence interval, 2.79-52.72; P=.001). PRINCIPAL CONCLUSIONS The novel EGS is feasible, identifies previously undetected geriatric problems, and predicts determinants of subsequent care.

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BACKGROUND The best-known cause of intolerance to fluoropyrimidines is dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPD) deficiency, which can result from deleterious polymorphisms in the gene encoding DPD (DPYD), including DPYD*2A and c.2846A>T. Three other variants-DPYD c.1679T>G, c.1236G>A/HapB3, and c.1601G>A-have been associated with DPD deficiency, but no definitive evidence for the clinical validity of these variants is available. The primary objective of this systematic review and meta-analysis was to assess the clinical validity of c.1679T>G, c.1236G>A/HapB3, and c.1601G>A as predictors of severe fluoropyrimidine-associated toxicity. METHODS We did a systematic review of the literature published before Dec 17, 2014, to identify cohort studies investigating associations between DPYD c.1679T>G, c.1236G>A/HapB3, and c.1601G>A and severe (grade ≥3) fluoropyrimidine-associated toxicity in patients treated with fluoropyrimidines (fluorouracil, capecitabine, or tegafur-uracil as single agents, in combination with other anticancer drugs, or with radiotherapy). Individual patient data were retrieved and analysed in a multivariable analysis to obtain an adjusted relative risk (RR). Effect estimates were pooled by use of a random-effects meta-analysis. The threshold for significance was set at a p value of less than 0·0167 (Bonferroni correction). FINDINGS 7365 patients from eight studies were included in the meta-analysis. DPYD c.1679T>G was significantly associated with fluoropyrimidine-associated toxicity (adjusted RR 4·40, 95% CI 2·08-9·30, p<0·0001), as was c.1236G>A/HapB3 (1·59, 1·29-1·97, p<0·0001). The association between c.1601G>A and fluoropyrimidine-associated toxicity was not significant (adjusted RR 1·52, 95% CI 0·86-2·70, p=0·15). Analysis of individual types of toxicity showed consistent associations of c.1679T>G and c.1236G>A/HapB3 with gastrointestinal toxicity (adjusted RR 5·72, 95% CI 1·40-23·33, p=0·015; and 2·04, 1·49-2·78, p<0·0001, respectively) and haematological toxicity (adjusted RR 9·76, 95% CI 3·03-31·48, p=0·00014; and 2·07, 1·17-3·68, p=0·013, respectively), but not with hand-foot syndrome. DPYD*2A and c.2846A>T were also significantly associated with severe fluoropyrimidine-associated toxicity (adjusted RR 2·85, 95% CI 1·75-4·62, p<0·0001; and 3·02, 2·22-4·10, p<0·0001, respectively). INTERPRETATION DPYD variants c.1679T>G and c.1236G>A/HapB3 are clinically relevant predictors of fluoropyrimidine-associated toxicity. Upfront screening for these variants, in addition to the established variants DPYD*2A and c.2846A>T, is recommended to improve the safety of patients with cancer treated with fluoropyrimidines. FUNDING None.